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• Visual Studio - Edit source code located in a database

  - by mfeingold

  I am building something similar to Server Explorer for Apache CouchDB. One of the things necessary is to be able to edit CouchDB view definitions which in CouchDB are JavaScript functions. How can I trick Visual Studio into using my object to retrieve and save the content of the JavaScript function but still use the rest of it - I am happy with editor itself and have no intention of writing my own Editor/Language Service, etc. The latter would be much bigger effort than what this project warrants Edit After more digging I am still stuck. Here is what I know: IVsUIShellOpenDocument interface provides a method OpenStandardEditor which can be used to open the standard Visual Studio editor. As one of the parameters this method takes a Pointer to the IUnknown interface of the document data object. This object is supposed to implement several interfaces described in many places all over the MSDN. Visual Studio SDK also provides a 'sample' implementation of the document data object VsTextBufferClass. I can create an instance of this class and when I pass the pointer to the instance to the OpenStandardEditor I can see my editor and it seems to work ok. When I try to implement my own class implementing the same interfaces (IVsTextBuffer, VsTextBuffer, IVsTextLines) OpenStandardEditor method returns success, but VS bombs out on call editor.Show() with an access violation. My suspicion is that VsTextBufferClass also implements some other interface(s) but not in C# way but rather in the good old COM way. I just do not know which one(s). Any thoughts?

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• ObjectiveC - Releasing objects added as parameters

  - by NobleK

  Ok, here goes. Being a Java developer I'm still struggling with the memory management in ObjectiveC. I have all the basics covered, but once in a while I encounter a challenge. What I want to do is something which in Java would look like this: MyObject myObject = new MyObject(new MyParameterObject()); The constructor of MyObject class takes a parameter of type MyParameterObject which I initiate on-the-fly. In ObjectiveC I tried to do this using following code: MyObject *myObject = [[MyObject alloc] init:[[MyParameterObject alloc] init]]; However, running the Build and Analyze tool this gives me a "Potential leak of an object" warning for the MyParameter object which indeed occurs when I test it using Instruments. I do understand why this happens since I am taking ownership of the object with the alloc method and not relinquishing it, I just don't know the correct way of doing it. I tried using MyObject *myObject = [[MyObject alloc] init:[[[MyParameterObject alloc] init] autorelease]]; but then the Analyze tool told me that "Object sent -autorelease too many times". I could solve the issue by modifying the init method of MyParameterObject to say return [self autorelease]; in stead of just return self;. Analyze still warnes about a potential leak, but it doesn't actually occur. However I believe that this approach violates the convention for managing memory in ObjectiveC and I really want to do it the right way. Thanx in advance.

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• How do I create an inheritable Semaphore in .NET?

  - by pauldoo

  I am trying to create a Win32 Semaphore object which is inheritable. This means that any child processes I launch may automatically have the right to act on the same Win32 object. My code currently looks as follows: Semaphore semaphore = new Semaphore(0, 10); Process process = Process.Start(pathToExecutable, arguments); But the semaphore object in this code cannot be used by the child process. The code I am writing is a port of come working C++. The old C++ code achieves this by the following: SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES security = {0}; security.nLength = sizeof(security); security.bInheritHandle = TRUE; HANDLE semaphore = CreateSemaphore(&security, 0, LONG_MAX, NULL); Then later when CreateProcess is called the bInheritHandles argument is set to TRUE. (In both the C# and C++ case I am using the same child process (which is C++). It takes the semaphore ID on command line, and uses the value directly in a call to ReleaseSemaphore.) I suspect I need to construct a special SemaphoreSecurity or ProcessStartInfo object, but I haven't figured it out yet.

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• C# parameter count mismatch when trying to add AsyncCallback into BeginInvoke()

  - by PunX

  I have main form (PrenosForm) and I am trying to run Form2 asynchronously. It works without callback delegate: this.BeginInvoke(cp, new object[] { datoteke, this.treeView1.SelectedNode.FullPath.ToString(), this, efekt }, null); //works 1. Doesn't work with callback delegate (parameter count mismatch): this.BeginInvoke(cp, new object[] { datoteke, this.treeView1.SelectedNode.FullPath.ToString(), this, efekt }, new AsyncCallback(callBackDelegate), null); //doesn't work parameter count mismatch 2. Works with callback delegate if I do it like this: cp.BeginInvoke(datoteke, this.treeView1.SelectedNode.FullPath.ToString(), this, efekt, new AsyncCallback(callBackDelegate), null); //works 3. My question is why does one way work and the other doesn't? I'm new at this. Would anyone be so kind as to answer my question and point out my mistakes? private delegate void copyDelegat(List<ListViewItem> datoteke, string path, PrenosForm forma, DragDropEffects efekt); private delegate void callBackDelegat(IAsyncResult a); public void doCopy(List<ListViewItem> datoteke, string path, PrenosForm forma, DragDropEffects efekt) { new Form2(datoteke, path, forma, efekt); } public void callBackFunc(IAsyncResult a) { AsyncResult res = a.AsyncState as AsyncResult; copyDelegat delegat = res.AsyncDelegate as copyDelegat; delegat.EndInvoke(a); } public void kopiraj(List<ListViewItem> datoteke, DragDropEffects efekt) { copyDelegat cp = new copyDelegat(doCopy); callBackDelegat callBackDelegate = new callBackDelegat(callBackFunc); this.BeginInvoke(cp, new object[] { datoteke, this.treeView1.SelectedNode.FullPath.ToString(), this, efekt }, new AsyncCallback(callBackDelegate), null); //doesn't work parameter count missmatch 2. this.BeginInvoke(cp, new object[] { datoteke, this.treeView1.SelectedNode.FullPath.ToString(), this, efekt }, null); //works 1. cp.BeginInvoke(datoteke, this.treeView1.SelectedNode.FullPath.ToString(), this, efekt, new AsyncCallback(callBackDelegate), null); //works 3. }

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• How to test method call order with Moq

  - by Finglas

  At the moment I have: [Test] public void DrawDrawsAllScreensInTheReverseOrderOfTheStack() { // Arrange. var screenMockOne = new Mock<IScreen>(); var screenMockTwo = new Mock<IScreen>(); var screens = new List<IScreen>(); screens.Add(screenMockOne.Object); screens.Add(screenMockTwo.Object); var stackOfScreensMock = new Mock<IScreenStack>(); stackOfScreensMock.Setup(s => s.ToArray()).Returns(screens.ToArray()); var screenManager = new ScreenManager(stackOfScreensMock.Object); // Act. screenManager.Draw(new Mock<GameTime>().Object); // Assert. screenMockOne.Verify(smo => smo.Draw(It.IsAny<GameTime>()), Times.Once(), "Draw was not called on screen mock one"); screenMockTwo.Verify(smo => smo.Draw(It.IsAny<GameTime>()), Times.Once(), "Draw was not called on screen mock two"); } But the order in which I draw my objects in the production code does not matter. I could do one first, or two it doesn't matter. However it should matter as the draw order is important. How do you (using Moq) ensure methods are called in a certain order? Edit I got rid of that test. The draw method has been removed from my unit tests. I'll just have to manually test it works. The reversing of the order though was taken into a seperate test class where it was tested so it's not all bad. Thanks for the link about the feature they are looking into. I sure hope it gets added soon, very handy.

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• Why can I call a non-const member function pointer from a const method?

  - by sdg

  A co-worker asked about some code like this that originally had templates in it. I have removed the templates, but the core question remains: why does this compile OK? #include <iostream> class X { public: void foo() { std::cout << "Here\n"; } }; typedef void (X::*XFUNC)() ; class CX { public: explicit CX(X& t, XFUNC xF) : object(t), F(xF) {} void execute() const { (object.*F)(); } private: X& object; XFUNC F; }; int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { X x; const CX cx(x,&X::foo); cx.execute(); return 0; } Given that CX is a const object, and its member function execute is const, therefore inside CX::execute the this pointer is const. But I am able to call a non-const member function through a member function pointer. Are member function pointers a documented hole in the const-ness of the world? What (presumably obvious to others) issue have we missed?

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• Why does this extension method throw a NullReferenceException in VB.NET?

  - by Dan

  From previous experience I had been under the impression that it's perfectly legal (though perhaps not advisable) to call extension methods on a null instance. So in C#, this code compiles and runs: // code in static class static bool IsNull(this object obj) { return obj == null; } // code elsewhere object x = null; bool exists = !x.IsNull(); However, I was just putting together a little suite of example code for the other members of my development team (we just upgraded to .NET 3.5 and I've been assigned the task of getting the team up to speed on some of the new features available to us), and I wrote what I thought was the VB.NET equivalent of the above code, only to discover that it actually throws a NullReferenceException. The code I wrote was this: ' code in module ' <Extension()> _ Function IsNull(ByVal obj As Object) As Boolean Return obj Is Nothing End Function ' code elsewhere ' Dim exampleObject As Object = Nothing Dim exists As Boolean = Not exampleObject.IsNull() The debugger stops right there, as if I'd called an instance method. Am I doing something wrong (e.g., is there some subtle difference in the way I defined the extension method between C# and VB.NET)? Is it actually not legal to call an extension method on a null instance in VB.NET, though it's legal in C#? (I would have thought this was a .NET thing as opposed to a language-specific thing, but perhaps I was wrong.) Can anybody explain this one to me?

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• Give a reference to a python instance attribute at class definition

  - by Guenther Jehle

  I have a class with attributes which have a reference to another attribute of this class. See class Device, value1 and value2 holding a reference to interface: class Interface(object): def __init__(self): self.port=None class Value(object): def __init__(self, interface, name): self.interface=interface self.name=name def get(self): return "Getting Value \"%s\" with interface \"%s\""%(self.name, self.interface.port) class Device(object): interface=Interface() value1=Value(interface, name="value1") value2=Value(interface, name="value2") def __init__(self, port): self.interface.port=port if __name__=="__main__": d1=Device("Foo") print d1.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Foo" d2=Device("Bar") print d2.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Bar" print d1.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Bar" The last print is wrong, cause d1 should have the interface "Foo". I know whats going wrong: The line interface=Interface() line is executed, when the class definition is parsed (once). So every Device class has the same instance of interface. I could change the Device class to: class Device(object): interface=Interface() value1=Value(interface, name="value1") value2=Value(interface, name="value2") def __init__(self, port): self.interface=Interface() self.interface.port=port So this is also not working: The values still have the reference to the original interface instance and the self.interface is just another instance... The output now is: >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" So how could I solve this the pythonic way? I could setup a function in the Device class to look for attributes with type Value and reassign them the new interface. Isn't this a common problem with a typical solution for it? Thanks!

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• Converting to a column oriented array in Java

  - by halfwarp

  Although I have Java in the title, this could be for any OO language. I'd like to know a few new ideas to improve the performance of something I'm trying to do. I have a method that is constantly receiving an Object[] array. I need to split the Objects in this array through multiple arrays (List or something), so that I have an independent list for each column of all arrays the method receives. Example: List<List<Object>> column-oriented = new ArrayList<ArrayList<Object>>(); public void newObject(Object[] obj) { for(int i = 0; i < obj.length; i++) { column-oriented.get(i).add(obj[i]); } } Note: For simplicity I've omitted the initialization of objects and stuff. The code I've shown above is slow of course. I've already tried a few other things, but would like to hear some new ideas. How would you do this knowing it's very performance sensitive?

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• ClassCastException in iterating list returned by Query using Hibernate Query Language

  - by Tushar Paliwal

  I'm beginner in hibernate.I'm trying a simplest example using HQL but it generates exception at line 25 ClassCastException when i try to iterate list.When i try to cast the object returned by next() methode of iterator it generates the same problem.I could not identify the problem.Kindly give me solution of the problem. Employee.java package one; import javax.persistence.Entity; import javax.persistence.Id; @Entity public class Employee { @Id private Long id; private String name; public Long getId() { return id; } public void setId(Long id) { this.id = id; } public String getName() { return name; } public void setName(String name) { this.name = name; } public Employee(Long id, String name) { super(); this.id = id; this.name = name; } public Employee() { } } Main2.java package one; import java.util.Iterator; import java.util.List; import org.hibernate.Query; import org.hibernate.Session; import org.hibernate.SessionFactory; import org.hibernate.Transaction; import org.hibernate.cfg.Configuration; public class Main2 { public static void main(String[] args) { SessionFactory sf=new Configuration().configure().buildSessionFactory(); Session s1=sf.openSession(); Query q=s1.createQuery("from Employee "); Transaction tx=s1.beginTransaction(); List l=q.list(); Iterator itr=l.iterator(); while(itr.hasNext()) { Object obj[]=(Object[])itr.next();//Line 25 for(Object temp:obj) { System.out.println(temp); } } tx.commit(); s1.close(); sf.close(); } }

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• ActiveX won't run from server

  - by user1709555

  I have a MFC activeX that runs fine from disk but when I put it on a server I get errors. Client: WIN7 machine Server: Ubunto running apache The HTML and the errors are below, please advice. 10xs, Nahum HTML: <html> <HEAD> <TITLE>myFirstOCX.CAB</TITLE> <script type="text/javascript" FOR="window"> function fn() { try{ document.all('Ctrl1').AboutBox();//error: Undifiend : object doesn't have AboutBox() method //OR var obj = new ActiveXObject ("activex.activexCtrl"); obj.AboutBox ();//error: Undifiend : Automation server can't create object } catch (ex) { alert("Error: " + ex.Description + " : " + ex.message); } } </script> </HEAD> <body bgcolor=lightblue > <TABLE BORDER> <TR> <TD><OBJECT CLASSID="CLSID:E228C560-FA68-48E6-850F-B1167515C920" CODEBASE=".\nsip.CAB#version=1,0,0,1" ID="Ctrl1" name="Ctrl1"> </OBJECT> </TD> </TR> <TR> <TD ALIGN="CENTER"> <INPUT TYPE=BUTTON VALUE="Click Me" onclick="fn()" > </TD> </TR> </TABLE> <INPUT TYPE=TEXT ID="ConnectionString" VALUE="" > </body> </html>

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• Problems with objectatasource,giving attributes like delete insert and update

  - by kamal

  After going to the process of adding the various attributes like insert,delete and update.But when i run it through the browser ,editing works but updating and deleting doesn't !(for the update and shows the same thing for delete,my friends think i need to use codes to repair the problems,can you help me please.it shows this: Server Error in '/WebSite3' Application. ObjectDataSource 'ObjectDataSource1' could not find a non-generic method 'Update' that has parameters: First_name, Surname, Original_author_id, First name, original_author id. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.InvalidOperationException: ObjectDataSource 'ObjectDataSource1' could not find a non-generic method 'Update' that has parameters: First_name, Surname, Original_author_id, First name, original_author id. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [InvalidOperationException: ObjectDataSource 'ObjectDataSource1' could not find a non-generic method 'Update' that has parameters: First_name, Surname, Original_author_id, First name, original_author id.] System.Web.UI.WebControls.ObjectDataSourceView.GetResolvedMethodData(Type type, String methodName, IDictionary allParameters, DataSourceOperation operation) +1119426 System.Web.UI.WebControls.ObjectDataSourceView.ExecuteUpdate(IDictionary keys, IDictionary values, IDictionary oldValues) +1008 System.Web.UI.DataSourceView.Update(IDictionary keys, IDictionary values, IDictionary oldValues, DataSourceViewOperationCallback callback) +92 System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridView.HandleUpdate(GridViewRow row, Int32 rowIndex, Boolean causesValidation) +907 System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridView.HandleEvent(EventArgs e, Boolean causesValidation, String validationGroup) +704 System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridView.OnBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs e) +95 System.Web.UI.Control.RaiseBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs args) +37 System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridViewRow.OnBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs e) +123 System.Web.UI.Control.RaiseBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs args) +37 System.Web.UI.WebControls.LinkButton.OnCommand(CommandEventArgs e) +118

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• php class scope when calling a non-method function not accessing all class members

  - by Aglystas

  So I'm using a stand alone function from within a class that that uses the class it's being called from. Here's the function function catalogProductLink($product_id,$product_name,$categories=true) { //This is the class that the function is called from global $STATE; if ($categories) { //The $STATE->category_id is the property I want to access, which I can't if (is_array($STATE->category_id)) { foreach($STATE->category_id as $cat_id) { if ($cat_id == 0) continue; $str .= "c$cat_id/"; } } } $str .= catalogUrlKeywords($product_name).'-p'.$product_id.'.html'; return $str; } And here's the function call, which is being made from within the $STATE class. $redirect = catalogProductLink($this->product_id, $tempProd->product_name, true, false); The object that I need access to is the $STATE object that has been declared global. Prior to this function call there are lots of public properties populated, but when I look at the $STATE object within the function scope it loses all the properties but one, product_id. The property that matters for this function is the category_id property, which is an array of category id's. I'm wondering why I don't have access to all the public properties of the $STATE object and how I can get access to them.

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• What is the simplest way to implement multithreading in c# to existing code

  - by Kaeso

  I have already implemented a functionnal application that parses 26 pages of html all at once to produce an xml file with data contained on the web pages. I would need to implement a thread so that this method can work in the background without causing my app to seems unresponsive. Secondly, I have another function that is decoupled from the first one which compares two xml files to produce a third one and then transform this third xml file to produce an html page using XSLT. This would have to be on a thread, where I can click Cancel to stop the thread whithout crashing the app. What is the easiest best way to do this using WPF forms in VS 2010 ? I have chosen to use the BackgroundWorker. BackgroundWorker implementation: public partial class MainWindow : Window { private BackgroundWorker bw = new BackgroundWorker(); public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); bw.WorkerReportsProgress = true; bw.DoWork += new DoWorkEventHandler(bw_DoWork); bw.RunWorkerCompleted += new RunWorkerCompletedEventHandler(backgroundWorker1_RunWorkerCompleted); } private void Window_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { this.LoadFiles(); } private void btnCompare_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (bw.IsBusy != true) { progressBar2.IsIndeterminate = true; // Start the asynchronous operation. bw.RunWorkerAsync(); } } private void bw_DoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { StatsProcessor proc = new StatsProcessor(); if (lstStatsBox1.SelectedItem != null) if (lstStatsBox2.SelectedItem != null) proc.CompareStats(lstStatsBox1.SelectedItem.ToString(), lstStatsBox2.SelectedItem.ToString()); } private void backgroundWorker1_RunWorkerCompleted(object sender, RunWorkerCompletedEventArgs e) { progressBar2.IsIndeterminate = false; progressBar2.Value = 100; } I have started with the bgworker solution, but it seems that the bw_DoWork method is never called when btnCompare is clicked, I must be doing something wrong... I am new to threads.

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• template specialization of a auto_ptr<T>

  - by Chris Kaminski

  Maybe I'm overcomplicating things, but then again, I do sort of like clean interfaces. Let's say I want a specialization of auto_ptr for an fstream - I want a default fstream for the generic case, but allow a replacement pointer? tempate <> class auto_ptr<fstream> static fstream myfStream; fstream* ptr; public: auto_ptr() { // set ptr to &myfStream; } reset(fstream* newPtr) { // free old ptr if not the static one. ptr = newPtr }; } Would you consider something different or more elegant? And how would you keep something like the above from propagating outside this particular compilation unit? [The actual template is a boost::scoped_ptr.] EDIT: It's a contrived example. Ignore the fstream - it's about providing a default instance of object for an auto_ptr. I may not want to provide a specialized instance, but would like to keep the auto_ptr semantics for this static default object. class UserClass { public: auto_ptr<fstream> ptr; UserClass() { } } I may not provide an dynamic object at construction time - I still want it to have a meaningful default. Since I'm not looking at ownership-transfer semantics, it really shouldn't matter that my pointer class is pointing to a statically allocated object, no?

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• NHibernate query against the key field of a dictionary (map)

  - by Carl Raymond

  I have an object model where a Calendar object has an IDictionary<MembershipUser, Perms> called UserPermissions, where MembershipUser is an object, and Perms is a simple enumeration. This is in the mapping file for Calendar as <map name="UserPermissions" table="CalendarUserPermissions" lazy="true" cascade="all"> <key column="CalendarID"/> <index-many-to-many class="MembershipUser" column="UserGUID" /> <element column="Permissions" type="CalendarPermission" not-null="true" /> </map> Now I want to execute a query to find all calendars for which a given user has some permission defined. The permission is irrelevant; I just want a list of the calendars where a given user is present as a key in the UserPermissions dictionary. I have the username property, not a MembershipUser object. How do I build that using QBC (or HQL)? Here's what I've tried: ISession session = SessionManager.CurrentSession; ICriteria calCrit = session.CreateCriteria<Calendar>(); ICriteria userCrit = calCrit.CreateCriteria("UserPermissions.indices"); userCrit.Add(Expression.Eq("Username", username)); return calCrit.List<Calendar>(); This constructed invalid SQL -- the WHERE clause contained WHERE membership1_.Username = @p0 as expected, but the FROM clause didn't include the MemberhipUsers table. Also, I really had to struggle to learn about the .indices notation. I found it by digging through the NHibernate source code, and saw that there's also .elements and some other dotted notations. Where's a reference to the allowed syntax of an association path? I feel like what's above is very close, and just missing something simple.

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• Call a dynamically generated method on a ILGenerator on the same type

  - by Thiado de Arruda

  Normally, when I want to call a dynamic method in another ILGenerator object that is writing a method on the same type I do the following : generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldarg_0); // reference to the current object generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldstr, "someArgument"); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Call, methodBuilder); //this methodbuilder is also defined on this dynamic type. However, I faced the following problem: I cant have a reference to the methodbuilder of the method I want to call, because it is generated by another framework(I only get a reference to the current TypeBuilder). This method is defined as protected virtual(and overriden on the methodbuilder I cant get a reference to) in the base class of the current dynamic type and I can get a reference to it by doing this : generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldarg_0); // reference to the current object generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldstr, "someArgument"); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Call, baseType.GetMethod("SomeMethodDefinedInBaseClassThatWasOverridenInThisDynamicType")); The problem is that this calls the method on the base type and not the overriden method. Is there any way I can get a reference to a methodbuilder only having a reference to the typebuilder that defined it? Or is there a way to call a method using ILGenerator without having to pass the 'MethodInfo' object to it?

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• Why is Request not available for my PDF request?

  - by Beska

  We're trying to create a .NET aspx page that will have a PDF within it. Doing this by hardcoding it is easy. <object height="1250px" width="100%" type="application/pdf" data="our.pdf"> <param value="our.pdf" name="src" /> <param value="transparent" name="wmode" /> </object> (don't worry too much about the transparent thing...we're doing that for other reasons...but I include it here "just in case".) The problem is when we want to generate the PDF dynamically. Our code to populate the literal on the front end looks like this: ltrPDF.Text = String.Format("<object height=\"1250px\" width=\"100%\" type=\"application/pdf\" data=\"ourPdfGenerator.aspx?var0={0}&var1={1}&var2={2}\">", var0, var1, var2); ltrPDF.Text += String.Format("<param value=\"ourPdfGenerator.aspx?var0={0}&var1={1}&var2={2}\">", var0, var1, var2); ltrPDF.Text += "<param value=\"transparent\" name=\"wmode\"/>"; ltrPDF.Text += "</object>"; Kind of ugly, but it seems like it should work. But it doesn't. When I debug, and put a breakpoint on the first line of ourPdfGenerator.aspx.cs Page_Load method, I reach the breakpoint without any difficulty. However, the first thing we do is try to use Request.QueryString: string var0 = Request.QueryString["var0"]; which immediately throws an HttpException: "Request is not available in this context." I'm not clear on: Why isn't it available? What can I do about it?

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• Java - Call to start method on thread : how does it route to Runnable interface's run () ?

  - by Bhaskar

  Ok , I know the two standard ways to create a new thread and run it in Java : 1 Implement Runnable in a class , define run method ,and pass an instance of the class to a new Thread. When the start method on the thread instance is called , the run method of the class instance will be invoked. 2 Let the class derive from Thread, so it can to override the method run() and then when a new instance's start method is called , the call is routed to overridden method. In both methods , basically a new Thread object is created and its start method invoked. However , while in the second method , the mechanism of the call being routed to the user defined run() method is very clear ,( its a simple runtime polymorphism in play ), I dont understand how the call to start method on the Thread object gets routed to run() method of the class implementing Runnable interface. Does the Thread class have an private field of Type Runnable which it checks first , and if it is set then invokes the run method if it set to an object ? that would be a strange mechanism IMO. How does the call to start() on a thread get routed to the run method of the Runnable interface implemented by the class whose object is passed as a parameter when contructing the thread ?

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• safe placement new & explicit destructor call

  - by uray

  this is an example of my codes: ` template <typename T> struct MyStruct { T object; } template <typename T> class MyClass { MyStruct<T>* structPool; size_t structCount; MyClass(size_t count) { this->structCount = count; this->structPool = new MyStruct<T>[count]; for( size_t i=0 ; i<count ; i++ ) { //placement new to call constructor new (&this->structPool[i].object) T(); } } ~MyClass() { for( size_t i=0 ; i<this->structCount ; i++ ) { //explicit destructor call this->structPool[i].object.~T(); } delete[] this->structPool; } } ` my question is, is this a safe way to do? do I make some hidden mistake at some condition? will it work for every type of object (POD and non-POD) ?

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• EF4 POCO Not Updating Navigation Property On Save

  - by Gavin Draper

  I'm using EF4 with POCO objects the 2 tables are as follows Service ServiceID, Name, StatusID Status StatusID, Name The POCO objects look like this Service ServiceID, Status, Name Status StatusID, Name With Status on the Service object being a Navigation Property and of type Status. In my Service Repository I have a save method that takes a service objects attaches it to the context and calls save. This works fine for the service, but if the status for that service has been changed it does not get updated. My Save method looks like this public static void SaveService(Service service) { using (var ctx = Context.CreateContext()) { ctx.AttachModify("Services", service); ctx.AttachTo("Statuses",service.Status); ctx.SaveChanges(); } } The AttachModify method attaches an object to the context and sets it to modified it looks like this public void AttachModify(string entitySetName, object entity) { if (entity != null) { AttachTo(entitySetName, entity); SetModified(entity); } } public void SetModified(object entity) { ObjectStateManager.ChangeObjectState(entity, EntityState.Modified); } If I look at a SQL profile its not even including the navigation property in the update for the service table, it never touches the StatusID. Its driving me crazy. Any idea what I need to do to force the Navigation Property to update?

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• In a Windows forms application, how can I setup can I set up the SelectedIndexChanged handle for 4 d

  - by Alex

  In a Windows forms application, within a DataGridView, I have 4 different DataGridCombobox controlshow can I set up the handler SelectedIndexChanged handler for the first combobox via the EditingControlShowing event. I added code for a second combobox but the SelectedIndexChanged didn't get wired up. Here's my code. Any advice would be appreciated. private ComboBox countryCombo; private EventHandler countryHandler; private ComboBox partCombo; private EventHandler partHandler; private void dataGridView2_EditingControlShowing(object sender, DataGridViewEditingControlShowingEventArgs e) { countryCombo = e.Control as ComboBox; if (countryCombo != null) { //remove any existing handler if there is one countryCombo.SelectedIndexChanged -= countryHandler; //add the new handler countryCombo.SelectedIndexChanged += new EventHandler(countryCombo_SelectedIndexChanged); } if (partCombo != null) { partCombo.SelectedIndexChanged -= partHandler; partCombo.SelectedIndexChanged += new EventHandler(partCombo_SelectedIndexChanged); } } private void countryCombo_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { ComboBox box = (ComboBox) sender; //MessageBox.Show(box.Items.Count.ToString()); int rowNum = dataGridView2.CurrentCell.RowIndex; dataGridView2.BeginEdit(false); dataGridView2.Rows[0].Cells[2].Value = "abcdef"; dataGridView2.EndEdit(); } private void dataGridView2_CellContentClick(object sender, DataGridViewCellEventArgs e) { int cellColumn = e.ColumnIndex; //MessageBox.Show("Column is: " + cellColumn.ToString()); } private void partCombo_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { ComboBox box = (ComboBox)sender; string partNumber = box.SelectedValue as string; // ToDo: now we need to get the HTSUS from the database so we can //populate the field int rowNum = dataGridView2.CurrentCell.RowIndex; dataGridView2.BeginEdit(false); dataGridView2.Rows[0].Cells[2].Value = "abcdef"; dataGridView2.EndEdit(); } } Al D.

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• C# generics when T could be an array

  - by bufferz

  I am writing a C# wrapper for a 3rd party library that reads both single values and arrays from a hardware device, but always returns an object[] array even for one value. This requires repeated calls to object[0] when I'd like the end user to be able to use generics to receive either an array or single value. I want to use generics so the callee can use the wrapper in the following ways: MyWrapper<float> mw = new MyWrapper<float>( ... ); float value = mw.Value; //should return float; MyWrapper<float[]> mw = new MyWrapper<float[]>( ... ); float[] values = mw.Value; //should return float[]; In MyWrapper I have the Value property currently as the following: public T Value { get { if(_wrappedObject.Values.Length > 1) return (T)_wrappedObject.Value; //T could be float[]. this doesn't compile. else return (T)_wrappedObject.Values[0]; //T could be float. this compiles. } } I get a compile error in the first case: Cannot convert type 'object[]' to 'T' If I change MyWrapper.Value to T[] I receive: Cannot convert type 'object[]' to 'T[]' Any ideas of how to achieve my goal? Thanks!

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• Windows Phone - failing to get a string from a website with login information

  - by jumantyn

  I am new to accessing web services with Windows Phone 7/8. I'm using a WebClient to get a string from a php-website. The site returns a JSON string but at the moment I'm just trying to put it into a TextBox as a normal string just to test if the connection works. The php-page requires an authentication and I think that's where my code is failing. Here's my code: WebClient client = new WebClient(); client.Credentials = new NetworkCredential("myUsername", "myPassword"); client.DownloadStringCompleted += new DownloadStringCompletedEventHandler(client_DownloadStringCompleted); client.DownloadStringAsync(new Uri("https://www.mywebsite.com/ba/php/jsonstuff.php")); void client_DownloadStringCompleted(object sender, DownloadStringCompletedEventArgs e) { try { string data = e.Result; this.jsonText.Text = data; } catch (Exception ex) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine(ex.Message); } } This returns first a WebException and then a TargetInvocationException. If I replace the Uri with for example "http://www.google.com/index.html" the jsonText TextBox gets filled with html text from Google (oddly enough, this also works even when the WebClient credentials are still set). So is the problem in the setting of the credentials? I couldn't find any good results when searching for guides on how to access php-pages with credentials, only without them. Then I found a short mention somewhere to use the WebClient.Credentials property. But should it work some other way? Update: here's what I can get out of the WebException (sorry for the bad formatting): System.Net.WebException: The remote server returned an error: NotFound. ---System.Net.WebException: The remote server returned an error: NotFound. at System.Net.Browser.ClientHttpWebRequest.InternalEndGetResponse(IAsyncResult asyncResult) at System.Net.Browser.ClientHttpWebRequest.<c_DisplayClasse.b_d(Object sendState) at System.Net.Browser.AsyncHelper.<c_DisplayClass1.b_0(Object sendState) --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at System.Net.Browser.AsyncHelper.BeginOnUI(SendOrPostCallback beginMethod, Object state) at System.Net.Browser.ClientHttpWebRequest.EndGetResponse(IAsyncResult asyncResult) at System.Net.WebClient.GetWebResponse(WebRequest request, IAsyncResult result) at System.Net.WebClient.DownloadBitsResponseCallback(IAsyncResult result)

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• Run-time error 459 when using WithEvents with a class that implements another

  - by Ken Keenan

  I am developing a VBA project in Word and have encountered a problem with handling events when using a class that implements another. I define an empty class, IMyInterface: Public Sub Xyz() End Sub Public Event SomeEvent() And a class, MyClass that implements the above: Implements IMyInterface Public Event SomeEvent() Public Sub Xyz() ' ... code ... RaiseEvent SomeEvent End Sub Private Sub IMyInterface_Xyz() Xyz End Sub If I create a third class, OtherClass, that declares a member variable with the type of the interface class: Private WithEvents mMy As IMyInterface and try to initialize this variable with an instance of the implementing class: Set mMy = New MyClass I get a run-time error '459': This component doesn't support this set of events. The MSDN page for this error message states: "You tried to use a WithEvents variable with a component that can't work as an event source for the specified set of events. For example, you may be sinking events of an object, then create another object that Implements the first object. Although you might think you could sink the events from the implemented object, that isn't automatically the case. Implements only implements an interface for methods and properties." The above pretty much sums up what I'm trying to do. The wording, "that isn't automatically the case", rather than "this is flat-out impossible", seems to suggest that there is some bit of manual work I need to do to get it to work, but it doesn't tell me what! Does anybody know if this is possible in VBA?

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