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  • jQuery Validation plugin, IE7 "SCRIPT3: Member not found"

    - by jkinz
    I have the following: <html> <head> </head> <body> <div> <form method="post"> <div id="questions"> <label for="question-6">Name of Course:</label> <input type="text" name="name_of_course[response]" value="" id="question-6" class="required"> <label class="control-label" for="reporting-year">Reporting Year: </label> <select name="reporting_year" id="reporting-year"> <option value="-1" selected="selected">Select option...</option> <option value="4">2013-2014</option> <option value="1">2012-2013</option> <option value="2">2011-2012</option> <option value="3">2010-2011</option> </select> </div> <input type="submit" name="submit" value="Save Entry" class="btn"> </form> </div> <script src="//code.jquery.com/jquery.js"></script> <script src="//ajax.aspnetcdn.com/ajax/jquery.validate/1.10.0/jquery.validate.min.js"></script> <script> $(function(){ jQuery.validator.addMethod("notEqual", function(value, element, param) { return this.optional(element) || value !== param; }, "Please select an option"); $('form').validate({ rules:{ 'reporting_year': { notEqual: "-1" } } }); }); </script> </body> </html> Everyone's favorite browser, IE7 (IE10 w/compatibility really) is reporting the following error in the console: SCRIPT3: Member not found. jquery.js, line 2525 character 4 Of course IE8 and above work fine, but my client is using IE7.

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  • How come my South migrations doesn't work for Django?

    - by TIMEX
    First, I create my database. create database mydb; I add "south" to installed Apps. Then, I go to this tutorial: http://south.aeracode.org/docs/tutorial/part1.html The tutorial tells me to do this: $ py manage.py schemamigration wall --initial >>> Created 0001_initial.py. You can now apply this migration with: ./manage.py migrate wall Great, now I migrate. $ py manage.py migrate wall But it gives me this error... django.db.utils.DatabaseError: (1146, "Table 'fable.south_migrationhistory' doesn't exist") So I use Google (which never works. hence my 870 questions asked on Stackoverflow), and I get this page: http://groups.google.com/group/south-users/browse_thread/thread/d4c83f821dd2ca1c Alright, so I follow that instructions >> Drop database mydb; >> Create database mydb; $ rm -rf ./wall/migrations $ py manage.py syncdb But when I run syncdb, Django creates a bunch of tables. Yes, it creates the south_migrationhistory table, but it also creates my app's tables. Synced: > django.contrib.admin > django.contrib.auth > django.contrib.contenttypes > django.contrib.sessions > django.contrib.sites > django.contrib.messages > south > fable.notification > pagination > timezones > fable.wall > mediasync > staticfiles > debug_toolbar Not synced (use migrations): - (use ./manage.py migrate to migrate these) Cool....now it tells me to migrate these. So, I do this: $ py manage.py migrate wall The app 'wall' does not appear to use migrations. Alright, so fine. I'll add wall to initial migrations. $ py manage.py schemamigration wall --initial Then I migrate: $ py manage.py migrate wall You know what? It gives me this BS: _mysql_exceptions.OperationalError: (1050, "Table 'wall_content' already exists") Sorry, this is really pissing me off. Can someone help ? thanks. How do I get South to work and sync correctly with everything?

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  • Access violation when running native C++ application that uses a /clr built DLL

    - by doobop
    I'm reorganzing a legacy mixed (managed and unmanaged DLLs) application so that the main application segment is unmanaged MFC and that will call a C++ DLL compiled with /clr flag that will bridge the communication between the managed (C# DLLs) and unmanaged code. Unfortuantely, my changed have resulted in an Access violation that occurs before the application InitInstance() is called. This makes it very difficult to debug. The only information I get is the following stack trace. > 64006108() ntdll.dll!_ZwCreateMutant@16() + 0xc bytes kernel32.dll!_CreateMutexW@12() + 0x7a bytes So, here are some sceanrios I've tried. - Turned on Exceptions-Win32 Exceptions-c0000005 Access Violation to break when Thrown. Still the most detail I get is from the above stack trace. I've tried the application with F10, but it fails before any breakpoints are hit and fails with the above stack trace. - I've stubbed out the bridge DLL so that it only has one method that returns a bool and that method is coded to just return false (no C# code called). bool DllPassthrough::IsFailed() { return false; } If the stubbed out DLL is compiled with the /clr flag, the application fails. If it is compiled without the /clr flag, the application runs. - I've created a stub MFC application using the Visual Studio wizard for multidocument applications and call DllPassthrough::IsFailed(). This succeeds even with the /clr flag used to compile the DLL. - I've tried doing a manual LoadLibrary on winmm.lib as outlined in the following note Access violation when using c++/cli. The application still fails. So, my questions are how to solve the problem? Any hints, strategies, or previous incidents. And, failing that, how can I get more information on what code segment or library is causing the access exception? If I try more involved workarounds like doing LoadLibrary calls, I'd like to narrow it to the failing libraries. Thanks. BTW, we are using Visual Studio 2008 and the project is being built against the .NET 2.0 framework for the managed sections.

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  • SQLAlchemy unsupported type error - and table design issues?

    - by Az
    Hi there, back again with some more SQLAlchemy shenanigans. Let me step through this. My table is now set up as so: engine = create_engine('sqlite:///:memory:', echo=False) metadata = MetaData() students_table = Table('studs', metadata, Column('sid', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('name', String), Column('preferences', Integer), Column('allocated_rank', Integer), Column('allocated_project', Integer) ) metadata.create_all(engine) mapper(Student, students_table) Fairly simple, and for the most part I've been enjoying the ability to query almost any bit of information I want provided I avoid the error cases below. The class it is mapped from is: class Student(object): def __init__(self, sid, name): self.sid = sid self.name = name self.preferences = collections.defaultdict(set) self.allocated_project = None self.allocated_rank = 0 def __repr__(self): return str(self) def __str__(self): return "%s %s" %(self.sid, self.name) Explanation: preferences is basically a set of all the projects the student would prefer to be assigned. When the allocation algorithm kicks in, a student's allocated_project emerges from this preference set. Now if I try to do this: for student in students.itervalues(): session.add(student) session.commit() It throws two errors, one for the allocated_project column (seen below) and a similar error for the preferences column: sqlalchemy.exc.InterfaceError: (InterfaceError) Error binding parameter 4 - probably unsupported type. u'INSERT INTO studs (sid, name, allocated_rank, allocated_project) VALUES (?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?)' [1101, 'Muffett,M.', 1, 888 Human-spider relationships (Supervisor id: 123)] If I go back into my code I find that, when I'm copying the preferences from the given text files, it actually refers to the Project class which is mapped to a dictionary, using the unique project id's (pid) as keys. Thus, as I iterate through each student via their rank and to the preferences set, it adds not a project id, but the reference to the project id from the projects dictionary. students[sid].preferences[int(rank)].add(projects[int(pid)]) Now this is very useful to me since I can find out all I want to about a student's preferred projects without having to run another check to pull up information about the project id. The form you see in the error has the object print information passed as: return "%s %s (Supervisor id: %s)" %(self.proj_id, self.proj_name, self.proj_sup) My questions are: I'm trying to store an object in a database field aren't I? Would the correct way then, be copying the project information (project id, name, etc) into its own table, referenced by the unique project id? That way I can just have the project id field for one of the student tables just be an integer id and when I need more information, just join the tables? So and so forth for other tables? If the above makes sense, then how does one maintain the relationship with a column of information in one table which is a key index on another table? Does this boil down into a database design problem? Are there any other elegant ways of accomplishing this? Apologies if this is a very long-winded question. It's rather crucial for me to solve this, so I've tried to explain as much as I can, whilst attempting to show that I'm trying (key word here sadly) to understand what could be going wrong.

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  • auto complete asp.net

    - by lodun
    Why my autocomplete ajax script does not work: This is my WebService.cs: using System; using System.Data; using System.Web; using System.Collections; using System.Web.Services; using System.Web.Services.Protocols; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Data.SqlClient; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Configuration; using System.Web.Script.Services; [ScriptService] [WebService(Namespace = "http://tempuri.org/")] [WebServiceBinding(ConformsTo = WsiProfiles.BasicProfile1_1)] // To allow this Web Service to be called from script, using ASP.NET AJAX, uncomment the following line. public class WebService : System.Web.Services.WebService { public WebService () { //Uncomment the following line if using designed components //InitializeComponent(); } [WebMethod] public string[] GetCountryInfo(string prefixText, int count) { string sql = "Select * from questions Where username like @prefixText"; SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(sql,"estudent_piooConnectionString"); da.SelectCommand.Parameters.Add("@prefixText", SqlDbType.VarChar, 50).Value = prefixText + "%"; DataTable dt = new DataTable(); da.Fill(dt); string[] items = new string[dt.Rows.Count]; int i = 1; foreach (DataRow dr in dt.Rows) { items.SetValue(dr["username"].ToString(),i); i++; } return items; } } my css: /*AutoComplete flyout */ .autocomplete_completionListElement { margin : 0px!important; background-color : inherit; color : windowtext; border : buttonshadow; border-width : 1px; border-style : solid; cursor : 'default'; overflow : auto; height : 200px; text-align : left; list-style-type : none;padding:0px; } /* AutoComplete highlighted item */ .autocomplete_highlightedListItem { background-color: #ffff99; color: black; padding: 1px; } /* AutoComplete item */ .autocomplete_listItem { background-color : window; color : windowtext; padding : 1px; } and textbox: <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox2" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <cc1:AutoCompleteExtender ID="AutoCompleteExtender1" CompletionListCssClass="autocomplete_completionListElement" CompletionListItemCssClass="autocomplete_listItem" CompletionSetCount="20" CompletionInterval="1000" DelimiterCharacters=";,:" CompletionListHighlightedItemCssClass="autocomplete_highlightedList MinimumPrefixLength="1" ServiceMethod="GetCountryInfo" ShowOnlyCurrentWordInCompletionListItem="true" TargetControlID="TextBox2" ServicePath="WebService.asmx" runat="server"></cc1:AutoCompleteExtender>

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  • How to check for palindrome using Python logic

    - by DrOnline
    My background is only a 6 month college class in basic C/C++, and I'm trying to convert to Python. I may be talking nonsense, but it seems to me C, at least at my level, is very for-loop intensive. I solve most problems with these loops. And it seems to me the biggest mistake people do when going from C to Python is trying to implement C logic using Python, which makes things run slowly, and it's just not making the most of the language. I see on this website: http://hyperpolyglot.org/scripting (serach for "c-style for", that Python doesn't have C-style for loops. Might be outdated, but I interpret it to mean Python has its own methods for this. I've tried looking around, I can't find much up to date (Python 3) advice for this. How can I solve a palindrome challenge in Python, without using the for loop? I've done this in C in class, but I want to do it in Python, on a personal basis. The problem is from the Euler Project, great site btw. def isPalindrome(n): lst = [int(n) for n in str(n)] l=len(lst) if l==0 || l==1: return True elif len(lst)%2==0: for k in range (l) ##### else: while (k<=((l-1)/2)): if (list[]): ##### for i in range (999, 100, -1): for j in range (999,100, -1): if isPalindrome(i*j): print(i*j) break I'm missing a lot of code here. The five hashes are just reminders for myself. Concrete questions: 1) In C, I would make a for loop comparing index 0 to index max, and then index 0+1 with max-1, until something something. How to best do this in Python? 2) My for loop (in in range (999, 100, -1), is this a bad way to do it in Python? 3) Does anybody have any good advice, or good websites or resources for people in my position? I'm not a programmer, I don't aspire to be one, I just want to learn enough so that when I write my bachelor's degree thesis (electrical engineering), I don't have to simultaneously LEARN an applicable programming language while trying to obtain good results in the project. "How to go from basic C to great application of Python", that sort of thing. 4) Any specific bits of code to make a great solution to this problem would also be appreciated, I need to learn good algorithms.. I am envisioning 3 situations. If the value is zero or single digit, if it is of odd length, and if it is of even length. I was planning to write for loops... PS: The problem is: Find the highest value product of two 3 digit integers that is also a palindrome.

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  • How to obtain a pointer out of a C++ vtable?

    - by Josh Haberman
    Say you have a C++ class like: class Foo { public: virtual ~Foo() {} virtual DoSomething() = 0; }; The C++ compiler translates a call into a vtable lookup: Foo* foo; // Translated by C++ to: // foo->vtable->DoSomething(foo); foo->DoSomething(); Suppose I was writing a JIT compiler and I wanted to obtain the address of the DoSomething() function for a particular instance of class Foo, so I can generate code that jumps to it directly instead of doing a table lookup and an indirect branch. My questions are: Is there any standard C++ way to do this (I'm almost sure the answer is no, but wanted to ask for the sake of completeness). Is there any remotely compiler-independent way of doing this, like a library someone has implemented that provides an API for accessing a vtable? I'm open to completely hacks, if they will work. For example, if I created my own derived class and could determine the address of its DoSomething method, I could assume that the vtable is the first (hidden) member of Foo and search through its vtable until I find my pointer value. However, I don't know a way of getting this address: if I write &DerivedFoo::DoSomething I get a pointer-to-member, which is something totally different. Maybe I could turn the pointer-to-member into the vtable offset. When I compile the following: class Foo { public: virtual ~Foo() {} virtual void DoSomething() = 0; }; void foo(Foo *f, void (Foo::*member)()) { (f->*member)(); } On GCC/x86-64, I get this assembly output: Disassembly of section .text: 0000000000000000 <_Z3fooP3FooMS_FvvE>: 0: 40 f6 c6 01 test sil,0x1 4: 48 89 74 24 e8 mov QWORD PTR [rsp-0x18],rsi 9: 48 89 54 24 f0 mov QWORD PTR [rsp-0x10],rdx e: 74 10 je 20 <_Z3fooP3FooMS_FvvE+0x20> 10: 48 01 d7 add rdi,rdx 13: 48 8b 07 mov rax,QWORD PTR [rdi] 16: 48 8b 74 30 ff mov rsi,QWORD PTR [rax+rsi*1-0x1] 1b: ff e6 jmp rsi 1d: 0f 1f 00 nop DWORD PTR [rax] 20: 48 01 d7 add rdi,rdx 23: ff e6 jmp rsi I don't fully understand what's going on here, but if I could reverse-engineer this or use an ABI spec I could generate a fragment like the above for each separate platform, as a way of obtaining a pointer out of a vtable.

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  • XSL transformation and special XML entities escaping

    - by Tomas R
    I have an XML file which is transformed with XSL. Some elements have to be changed, some have to be left as is - specifically, text with entities &quot;, &amp;, &apos;, &lt;, &gt; should be left as is, and in my case &quot; and &apos; are changed to " and ' accordingly. Test XML: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?> <root> <element> &quot; &amp; &apos; &lt; &gt; </element> </root> transformation file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <xsl:stylesheet xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" version="1.0"> <xsl:output method="xml" encoding="UTF-8" omit-xml-declaration="no" indent="no" /> <xsl:template match="element"> <xsl:copy> <xsl:value-of disable-output-escaping="no" select="." /> </xsl:copy> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> result: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <element> " &amp; ' &lt; &gt; </element> desired result: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <element> &quot; &amp; &apos; &lt; &gt; </element> I have 2 questions: why does some of those entities are transformed and other not? how can I get a desired result?

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  • Collision point of 2 curves in a 3d-room

    - by Frank
    Hello, i am programming a small game for quite some time. We started coding a small FPS-Shooter inside of a project at school to get a bit experience using directX. I dont know why, but i couldnt stop the project and started programming at home aswell. At the moment i am trying to create some small AI. Of cause thats definatlly not easy, but thats my personal goal anyways. The topic could prolly fill multiple books hehe. I've got the walking part of my bots done so far. They walk along a scriped path. I am not working on the "aiming" of the bots. While programming that i hit on some math problem i couldnt solve yet. I hope of your input on this to help me get further. Concepts, ideas and everything else are highly appreciated. Problem: Calculate the position (D3DXVECTOR3) where the curve of the projectile (depends on gravity, speed), hit the curved of the enemys walking path (depends on speed). We assume that the enemy walks in a constant line. Known variables: float projectilSpeed = 2000 m/s //speed of the projectile per second float gravitation = 9.81 m/s^2 //of cause the gravity lol D3DXVECTOR3 targetPosition //position of the target stored in a vector (x,y,z) D3DXVECTOR3 projectilePosition //position of the projectile D3DXVECTOR3 targetSpeed //stores the change of the targets position in the last second Variabledefinition ProjectilePosition at time of collision = ProjectilePos_t TargetPosition at time of collision = TargetPos_t ProjectilePosition at time 0, now = ProjectilePos_0 TargetPosition at time 0, now = TargetPos_0 Time to impact = t Aim-angle = theta My try: Found a formular to calculate "drop" (Drop of the projectile based on the gravity) on Wikipedia: float drop = 0.5f * gravity * t * t The speed of the projectile has a horizontal and a vertical part.. Found a formular for that on wikipedia aswell: ProjectilVelocity.x = projectilSpeed * cos(theta) ProjectilVelocity.y = projectilSpeed * sin(theta) So i would assume this is true for the projectile curve: ProjectilePos_t.x = ProjectilePos_0.x + ProjectileSpeed * t ProjectilePos_t.y = ProjectilePos_0.y + ProjectileSpeed * t + 0.5f * gravity * t * t ProjectilePos_t.z = ProjectilePos_0.z + ProjectileSpeed * t The target walk with a constant speed, so we can determine his curve by this: TargetPos_t = TargetPos_0 + TargetSpeed * D3DXVECTOR3(t, t, t) Now i dont know how to continue. I have to solve it somehow to get a hold on the time to impact somehow. As a basic formular i could use: float time = distanz / projectileSpeed But that wouldnt be truly correct as it would assume a linear "Trajectory". We just find this behaivor when using a rocket. I hope i was able to explain the problem as much as possible. If there are questions left, feel free to ask me! Greets from germany, Frank

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  • Self updating app, wont overwrite existing app, using Android packagemanager?

    - by LokiSinclair
    I know there are plenty of questions about this on here, but I've tried everything (but the correct 'thing', obviously!) and nothing seems to shine any light on the problem I'm having. I've written an app (for a customer), which is designed to be hosted on their own server. The app references a simple text file with the latest version code in it and checks it against it's own version. If it's out of date it goes off and downloads the update. Everything is working as intended up to this point. I use the: Intent i = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW); i.setDataAndType(Uri.fromFile(outputFile), "application/vnd.android.package-archive"); i.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); startActivity(i); ...code to start the install process of the newly downloaded .apk file. And that all starts as I would expect. I click on "Install" - when I'm prompted to confirm the overwriting of the current app, with the new. It starts, and then displays: App not installed. And existing package by the same name with a conflicting signature is already installed. Now I'm aware that Android can't have multiple applications sharing the same package name, which is fine, but nothing comes up in LogCat and I can only assume that the OS is annoyed at me attempting to 'update' my app, even though I'm going through all the correct channels and using the inbuilt package manager to do it for me! Can anyone tell me what the OS is moaning about? I'm not attempting to install two apps side by side, I want it to update it, which it starts to do, and then gets really confused. Is it something to do with me using the same keystore for signing the packages? I highly doubt it as I've used the same keystores previously to handle updates to games and the like, but I just can't figure out what it's complaining about. Hopefully someone out there has had this issue and solved it, and can point me in the right direction. I'm flying a bit blind with the limited information it's giving me :( Cheers.

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  • Virtual member call in a constructor when assigning value to property

    - by comecme
    I have an Abstract class and a Derived class. The abstract class defines an abstract property named Message. In the derived class, the property is implemented by overriding the abstract property. The constructor of the derived class takes a string argument and assigns it to its Message property. In Resharper, this assignment leads to a warning "Virtual member call in constructor". The AbstractClass has this definition: public abstract class AbstractClass { public abstract string Message { get; set; } protected AbstractClass() { } public abstract void PrintMessage(); } And the DerivedClass is as follows: using System; public class DerivedClass : AbstractClass { private string _message; public override string Message { get { return _message; } set { _message = value; } } public DerivedClass(string message) { Message = message; // Warning: Virtual member call in a constructor } public DerivedClass() : this("Default DerivedClass message") {} public override void PrintMessage() { Console.WriteLine("DerivedClass PrintMessage(): " + Message); } } I did find some other questions about this warning, but in those situations there is an actual call to a method. For instance, in this question, the answer by Matt Howels contains some sample code. I'll repeat it here for easy reference. class Parent { public Parent() { DoSomething(); } protected virtual void DoSomething() {}; } class Child : Parent { private string foo; public Child() { foo = "HELLO"; } protected override void DoSomething() { Console.WriteLine(foo.ToLower()); } } Matt doesn't describe on what error the warning would appear, but I'm assuming it will be on the call to DoSomething in the Parent constructor. In this example, I understand what is meant by a virtual member being called. The member call occurs in the base class, in which only a virtual method exists. In my situation however, I don't see why assigning a value to Message would be calling a virtual member. Both the call to and the implementation of the Message property are defined in the derived class. Although I can get rid of the error by making my Derived Class sealed, I would like to understand why this situation is resulting in the warning.

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  • How to count the length (number of lines) of a csv file in Rails?

    - by Mathias
    Hello, I have a form (Rails) which allows me to load a .csv file using the file_field. In the view: <% form_for(:upcsv, :html => {:multipart => true}) do |f| %> <table> <tr> <td><%= f.label("File:") %></td> <td><%= f.file_field(:filename) %></td> </tr> </table> <%= f.submit("Submit") %> <% end %> Clicking Submit redirects me to another page (create.html.erb). The file was loaded fine, and I was able to read the contents just fine in this second page. I am trying to show the number of lines in the .csv file in this second page. My controller (semi-pseudocode): class UpcsvController < ApplicationController def index end def create file = params[:upcsv][:filename] ... #params[:upcsv][:file_length] = file.length # Show number of lines in the file #params[:upcsv][:file_length] = file.size ... end end Both file.length and file.size returns '91' when my file only contains 7 lines. From the Rails documentation that I read, once the Submit button is clicked, Rails creates a temp file of the uploaded file, and the params[:upcsv][:filename] contains the contents of the temp/uploaded file and not the path to the file. And I don't know how to extract the number of lines in my original file. What is the correct way to get the number of lines in the file? My create.html.erb: <table> <tr> <td>File length:</td> <td><%= params[:upcsv][:file_length] %></td> </tr> </table> I'm really new at Rails (just started last week), so please bear with my stupid questions. Thank you!

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  • log4net initialisation

    - by Ruben Bartelink
    I've looked hard for duplicates but have to ask the following, no matter how basic it may seem, to get it clear once and for all! In a fresh Console app using log4net version 1.2.10.0 on VS28KSP1 on 64 bit W7, I have the following code:- using log4net; using log4net.Config; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Program { static readonly ILog _log = LogManager.GetLogger(typeof(Program)); static void Main(string[] args) { _log.Info("Ran"); } } } In my app.config, I have: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name="log4net" type="log4net.Config.Log4NetConfigurationSectionHandler, log4net" /> </configSections> <log4net> <appender name="RollingFileAppender" type="log4net.Appender.RollingFileAppender"> <file value="Program.log" /> <lockingModel type="log4net.Appender.FileAppender+MinimalLock" /> <appendToFile value="true" /> <rollingStyle value="Size" /> <maxSizeRollBackups value="10" /> <maximumFileSize value="1MB" /> <staticLogFileName value="true" /> <layout type="log4net.Layout.PatternLayout"> <conversionPattern value="[%username] %date [%thread] %-5level %logger [%property{NDC}] - %message%newline" /> </layout> </appender> <root> <level value="DEBUG" /> <appender-ref ref="RollingFileAppender" /> </root> </log4net> </configuration> This doesnt write anything, unless I either add an attribute: [ assembly:XmlConfigurator ] Or explicitly initialise it in Main(): _log.Info("This will not go to the log"); XmlConfigurator.Configure(); _log.Info("Ran"); This raises the following questions: I'm almost certain I've seen it working somewhere on some version of log4net without the addition of the assembly attribute or call in Main. Can someone assure me I'm not imagining that? Can someone please point me to where in the doc it explicitly states that both the config section and the initialisation hook are required - hopefully with an explanation of when this changed, if it did? I can easily imagine why this might be the policy -- having the initialisation step explicit to avoid surprises etc., it's just that I seem to recall this not always being the case... (And normally I have the config in a separate file, which generally takes configsections out of the picture)

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  • MVC pattern implementation. What is the n-relation between its components

    - by Srodriguez
    Dear all, I'm working in a C# project and we are , in order to get some unity across the different parts of our UI, trying to use the MVC pattern. The client is windows form based and I'm trying to create a simple MVC pattern implementation. It's been more challenging than expected, but I still have some questions regarding the MVC pattern. The problem comes mostly from the n-n relationships between its components: Here is what I've understood, but I'm not sure at all of it. Maybe someone can correct me? Model: can be shared among different Views. 1-n relationship between Model-View View: shows the state of the model. only one controller (can be shared among different views?). 1-1 relationship with the Model, 1-1 relationship with the controller Controller: handles the user actions on the view and updates the model. One controller can be shared among different views, a controller interacts only with one model? I'm not sure about the two last ones: Can a view have several controller? Or can a view share a controller with another view? Or is it only a 1:1 relationship? Can a controller handle several views? can it interact with several models? Also, I take advantage of this question to ask another MVC related question. I've suppressed all the synchronous calls between the different members of the MVC, making use of the events and delegates. One last call is still synchronous and is actually the most important one: The call between the view and the controller is still synchronous, as I need to know rather the controller has been able to handle the user's action or not. This is very bad as it means that I could block the UI thread (hence the client itself) while the controller is processing or doing some work. How can I avoid this? I can make use of the callback but then how do i know to which event the callback comes from? PS: I can't change the pattern at this stage, so please avoid answers of type "use MVP or MVVC, etc ;) Thanks!

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  • MVC pattern implementation. What is the n-relation between its components

    - by Srodriguez
    Dear all, I'm working in a C# project and we are , in order to get some unity across the different parts of our UI, trying to use the MVC pattern. The client is windows form based and I'm trying to create a simple MVC pattern implementation. It's been more challenging than expected, but I still have some questions regarding the MVC pattern. The problem comes mostly from the n-n relationships between its components: Here is what I've understood, but I'm not sure at all of it. Maybe someone can correct me? Model: can be shared among different Views. 1-n relationship between Model-View View: shows the state of the model. only one controller (can be shared among different views?). 1-1 relationship with the Model, 1-1 relationship with the controller Controller: handles the user actions on the view and updates the model. One controller can be shared among different views, a controller interacts only with one model? I'm not sure about the two last ones: Can a view have several controller? Or can a view share a controller with another view? Or is it only a 1:1 relationship? Can a controller handle several views? can it interact with several models? Also, I take advantage of this question to ask another MVC related question. I've suppressed all the synchronous calls between the different members of the MVC, making use of the events and delegates. One last call is still synchronous and is actually the most important one: The call between the view and the controller is still synchronous, as I need to know rather the controller has been able to handle the user's action or not. This is very bad as it means that I could block the UI thread (hence the client itself) while the controller is processing or doing some work. How can I avoid this? I can make use of the callback but then how do i know to which event the callback comes from? PS: I can't change the pattern at this stage, so please avoid answers of type "use MVP or MVVC, etc ;) Thanks!

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  • Function Point Analysis -- a seriously overestimating technique?

    - by kizzx2
    I know questions about FPA has been asked numerous times before, but this time I'm taking a more analytical angle at it, backed up with data. 1. First, some data This question is based on a tutorial. He had a "Sample Count" section where he demonstrated it step by step. You can see some screenshots of his sample application here. In the end, he calculated the unadjusted FP to be 99. There is another article on InformIT with industry data on typical hour/FP. It ranges from 2 hours/FP to 27.4 hours/FP. Let's try to stick with 2 for the moment (since SO readers are probably the more efficient crowd :p). 2. Reality check!? Now just check out the screenshots again. Do a little math here 99 * 2 = 198 hours 198 hours / 40 hours per week = 5 weeks Seriously? That sample application is going to take 5 weeks to implement? Is it just my feeling that it wouldn't take any decent programmer longer than one week (I"m not even saying weekend) to have it completed? Now let's try estimating the cost of the project. We'll use New York's minimum wage at the moment (Wikipedia), which is $7.25 198 * 7.25 = $1435.5 From what I could see from the screenshots, this application is a small excel-improvement app. I could have bought MS Office Pro for 200 bucks which gives me greater interoperability (.xls files) and flexibility (spreadsheets). (For the record, that same Web site has another article discussing productivity. It seems like they typically use 4.2 hours/FP, which gives us even more shocking stats: 99 * 4.2 = 415 hours = 10 weeks = almost 3 whopping months! 415 hours * $7.25 = $3000 zomg (That's even assuming that all our poor coders get the minimum wage!) 3. Am I missing something here? Right now, I could come up with several possible explanation: FPA is really only suited for bigger projects (1000+ FPs) so it becomes extremely inaccurate at smaller scale. The hours/FP metric fluctuates abruptly from team to team, project to project. For a small project like this, we could have used something like 0.5 hour/FP or something. (Now this kind of makes the whole estimation thing pointless, unless my firm does the same type of projects for several years with the same team, not really common.) From my experience with several software metrics, Function Point is really not a lightweight metric. If the hour/FP thing fluctuates so much, then what's the point, maybe I could have gone with User Story Points which is a lot faster to get and arguably almost as uncertain. What would be the FP experts' answers to this?

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  • How can this PHP/FQL code be modified to increase the performance and usability?

    - by Kaoukkos
    I try to get some insights from the pages I am administrator on Facebook. What my code does, it gets the IDs of the pages I want to work with through mySQL. I did not include that part though.After this, I get the page_id, name and fan_count of each of those facebook IDs and are saved in fancounts[]. Using the IDs ( pages[] ) I get two messages max from each page. There may be no messages, there may be 1 or 2 messages max. Possibly I will increase it later. messages[] holds the messages of each page. I have two problems with it. It has a very slow performance I can't find a way to echo the data like this: ID - Name of the page - Fan Count Here goes the first message Here goes the second one //here is a break ID - Name of the page 2 - Fan Count Here goes the first message of page 2 Here goes the second one of page 2 My questions are, how can the code be modified to increase performance and show the data as above? I read about fql.multiquery. Can it be used here? Please provide me with code examples. Thank you $pages = array(); // I get the IDs I want to work with $pagesIds = implode(',', $pages); // fancounts[] holds the page_id, name and fan_count of the Ids I work with $fancounts = array(); $pagesFanCounts = $facebook->api("/fql", array( "q" => "SELECT page_id, name, fan_count FROM page WHERE page_id IN ({$pagesIds})" )); foreach ($pagesFanCounts['data'] as $page){ $fancounts[] = $page['page_id']."-".$page['name']."-".$page['fan_count']; } //messages[] holds from 0 to 2 messages from each of the above pages $messages = array(); foreach( $pages as $id) { $getMessages = $facebook->api("/fql", array( "q" => "SELECT message FROM stream WHERE source_id = '$id' LIMIT 2" )); $messages[] = $getMessages['data']; } // this is how I print them now but it does not give me the best output. ( thanks goes to Mark for providing me this code ) $count = min(count($fancounts),count($messages)); for($i=0; $i<$count; ++$i) { echo $fancounts[$i],'<br>'; foreach($messages[$i] as $msg) { echo $msg['message'],'<br>'; } }

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  • Add Access-Control-Allow-Origin to header in PHP

    - by SANDeveloper
    I am trying to workaround CORS restriction on a WebGL application. I have a Web Service which resolves URL and returns images. Since this web service is not CORS enabled, I can't use the returned images as textures. I was planning to: Write a PHP script to handle image requests Image requests would be sent through the query string as a url parameter The PHP Script will: Call the web service with the query string url Fetch the image response (web service returns a content-type:image response) Add the CORS header (Add Access-Control-Allow-Origin) to the response Send the response to the browser I tried to implement this using a variety of techniques including CURL, HTTPResponse, plain var_dump etc. but got stuck at some point in each. So I have 2 questions: Is the approach good enough? Considering the approach is good enough: I made the most progress with CURL. I could get the image header and data with: $ch = curl_init(); $url = $_GET["url"]; curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, array('Content-Type:image/jpeg')); //Execute request $response = curl_exec($ch); //get the default response headers $headers = curl_getinfo($ch); //close connection curl_close($ch); But this doesn't actually change set the response content-type to image/jpeg. It dumps the header + response into a new response of content-type text/html and display the header and the image BLOB data in the browser. How do I get it to send the response in the format I want? Managed to get it working: $ch = curl_init(); $url = $_GET["url"]; curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, false); //Execute request $response = curl_exec($ch); //get the default response headers $headers = curl_getinfo($ch); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, $headers); header('Content-Type: image/jpeg'); header("Access-Control-Allow-Origin: *"); // header("Expires: Sat, 26 Jul 2017 05:00:00 GMT"); //close connection curl_close($ch); flush();

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  • Chrome extension: sendMessage doesn't work

    - by user3334776
    I've already read the documentation from Google on 'message passing' a few times and have probably looked at over 10 other questions with the same problem and already tried quiet a few variations of most of their "solutions" and of what I have below... This is black magic, right? Either way, here it goes. Manifest File: { "manifest_version" : 2, "name" : "Message Test", "version" : "1.0", "browser_action": { "default_popup": "popup.html" }, "background": { "scripts": ["background.js"] }, "content_scripts": [ { "matches" : ["<all_urls>"], "js": ["message-test.js"] } ] } I'm aware extensions aren't suppose to use inline JS, but I'm leaving this in so the original question can be left as it was since I still can't get the message to send from the background page, When I switch from the popup to the background, I removed the appropriate lines from the manifest.json popup.html file: <html> <head> <script> chrome.tabs.query({active: true, currentWindow: true}, function(tabs) { chrome.tabs.sendMessage(tabs[0].id, {greeting: "hello", theMessage: "Why isn\'t this working?"}, function(response) { console.log(response.farewell); }); }); </script> </head> <body> </body> </html> OR background.js file: chrome.tabs.query({active: true, currentWindow: true}, function(tabs) { chrome.tabs.sendMessage(tabs[0].id, {greeting: "hello", theMessage: "Why isn\'t this working?"}, function(response) { console.log(response.farewell); }); }); message-test.js file: var Mymessage; chrome.runtime.onMessage.addListener(function(message, sender, sendResponse) { if (message.greeting == "hello"){ Mymessage = message.theMessage; alert(Mymessage); } else{ sendResponse({}); } }); No alert(Mymessage) goes off. I'm also trying to execute this after pressing a button from a popup and having a window at a specified url, but that's a later issue. The other files can be found here except with the background.js content wrapped in an addEventListener("click"....: http://pastebin.com/KhqxLx5y AND http://pastebin.com/JaGcp6tj

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  • How can I refactor this JavaScript code to avoid making functions in a loop?

    - by Bungle
    I wrote the following code for a project that I'm working on: var clicky_tracking = [ ['related-searches', 'Related Searches'], ['related-stories', 'Related Stories'], ['more-videos', 'More Videos'], ['web-headlines', 'Publication'] ]; for (var x = 0, length_x = clicky_tracking.length; x < length_x; x++) { links = document.getElementById(clicky_tracking[x][0]) .getElementsByTagName('a'); for (var y = 0, length_y = links.length; y < length_y; y++) { links[y].onclick = (function(name, url) { return function() { clicky.log(url, name, 'outbound'); }; }(clicky_tracking[x][1], links[y].href)); } } What I'm trying to do is: define a two-dimensional array, with each instance the inner arrays containing two elements: an id attribute value (e.g., "related-searches") and a corresponding description (e.g., "Related Searches"); for each of the inner arrays, find the element in the document with the corresponding id attribute, and then gather a collection of all <a> elements (hyperlinks) within it; loop through that collection and attach an onclick handler to each hyperlink, which should call clicky.log, passing in as parameters the description that corresponds to the id (e.g., "Related Searches" for the id "related-searches") and the value of the href attribute for the <a> element that was clicked. Hopefully that wasn't thoroughly confusing! The code may be more self-explanatory than that. I believe that what I've implemented here is a closure, but JSLint complains: http://img.skitch.com/20100526-k1trfr6tpj64iamm8r4jf5rbru.png So, my questions are: How can I refactor this code to make JSLint agreeable? Or, better yet, is there a best-practices way to do this that I'm missing, regardless of what JSLint thinks? Should I rely on event delegation instead? That is, attaching onclick event handlers to the document elements with the id attributes in my arrays, and then looking at event.target? I've done that once before and understand the theory, but I'm very hazy on the details, and would appreciate some guidance on what that would look like - assuming this is a viable approach. Thanks very much for any help!

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  • how to create a system-wide independent universal counter object primarily for Database keys?

    - by andora
    I would like to create/use a system-wide independent universal 'counter object' that can be called via COM in a thread-safe manner. The counter object will be passed an ID to identify which counter to return, handle the counting, 'persist' the count (occasionally), have reasonable performance (as fast as possible) perhaps capable of 1000 counts per second or better (1mS) and be accessible cross-process/out-of-process. The current count status must be persisted between object restarts/shutdowns. The counter object is liklely to be a 'singleton' type object implemented in some form of free-threaded dictionary, containing maybe 10 counters (perhaps 50 max). The count needs to be monotonic and consistent, (ie: guaranteed unique sequential values). Each counter should have a few methods, like reset, inc, dec, set, clear, remove. As a luxury, I would like to have a variable-increment (ie: 'step by' value). To support thread-safefty, perhaps some sorm of critical-section or mutex call. It just needs to return a long/4byte signed integer. I really want something that can be called from anywhere, including VBScript, so I figure COM is my preferred solution. The primary use of this is for database keys. I am unable to use autoinc or guid type keys and have ruled out database-generated counting systems at this point. I've spent days researching this and I have really struggled to find a solution. The best I can find is a free-threaded dictionary object that can be instantiated using COM+ from Motobit - it seems to offer all the 'basics' and I guess I could create some form of wrapper for this. So, here are my questions: Does such a 'general purpose counter-object already exist? Can you direct me to it? (MS did do an IIS/ASP object called 'MSWC.Counter' but this isn't 'cross-process'/ out-of-process component and isn't thread-safe. (but if it was, it would do!) What is the best way of creating such a Component? (I'd prefer VB6 right-now, [don't ask!] but can do in VB.NET2005 if I had to). I don't have the skills/knowledge/tools to use anything else. I am desparate for a workable solution. I need specific guidance! If anybody can code something up for me I am prepared to pay for it.

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  • Implementing a logging library in .NET with a database as the storage medium

    - by Dave
    I'm just starting to work on a logging library that everyone can use to keep track of any sort of system information while the user is running our application. The simplest example so far is to track Info, Warnings, and Errors. I want all plugins to be able to use this feature, but since each developer might have a different idea of what's important to report, I want to keep this as generic as possible. In the C++ world, I would normally use something like a stl::pair<string,string> to act as a key value pair structure, and have a stl::list of these to act as a "row" in the log. The log cache would then be a list<list<pair<string,string>>> (ugh!). This way, the developers can use a const string key like INFO, WARNING, ERROR to have a consistent naming for a column in the database (for SELECTing specific types of information). I'd like the database to be able to deal with any number of distinct column names. For example, John might have an INFO row with a column called USER, and Bill might have an INFO row with a column called FILENAME. I want the log viewer to be able to display all information, and if one report doesn't have a value for INFO / FILENAME, those fields should just appear blank. So one option is to use List<List<KeyValuePair<String,String>>, and the another is to have the log library consumer somehow "register" its schema, and then have the database do an ALTER TABLE to handle this situation. Yet another idea is to have a table that's just for key value pairs, with a foreign key that maps the key value pairs back to the original log entry. I obviously don't want logging to bog down the system, so I only lock the log cache to make a copy of the data (and remove the already-copied data), then a background thread will dump the information to the database. My specific questions regarding this are: Do you see any performance issues? In other words, have you ever tried something like this and found that certain things just don't work well in practice? Is there a more .NETish way to implement the key value pairs, other than List<List<KeyValuePair<String,String>>>? Even if there is a way to do #2 better, is the ALTER TABLE idea I proposed above a Bad Thing? Would you recommend multiple databases over a single one? I don't yet have an idea of how frequently the log would get written to, but we ideally would like to have lots of low level information. Perhaps there should be a DB with a fixed schema only for the low level stuff, and then another DB that's more flexible for reporting information back to users.

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  • Implementing Skip List in C++

    - by trikker
    [SOLVED] So I decided to try and create a sorted doubly linked skip list... I'm pretty sure I have a good grasp of how it works. When you insert x the program searches the base list for the appropriate place to put x (since it is sorted), (conceptually) flips a coin, and if the "coin" lands on a then that element is added to the list above it(or a new list is created with element in it), linked to the element below it, and the coin is flipped again, etc. If the "coin" lands on b at anytime then the insertion is over. You must also have a -infinite stored in every list as the starting point so that it isn't possible to insert a value that is less than the starting point (meaning that it could never be found.) To search for x, you start at the "top-left" (highest list lowest value) and "move right" to the next element. If the value is less than x than you continue to the next element, etc. until you have "gone too far" and the value is greater than x. In this case you go back to the last element and move down a level, continuing this chain until you either find x or x is never found. To delete x you simply search x and delete it every time it comes up in the lists. For now, I'm simply going to make a skip list that stores numbers. I don't think there is anything in the STL that can assist me, so I will need to create a class List that holds an integer value and has member functions, search, delete, and insert. The problem I'm having is dealing with links. I'm pretty sure I could create a class to handle the "horizontal" links with a pointer to the previous element and the element in front, but I'm not sure how to deal with the "vertical" links (point to corresponding element in other list?) If any of my logic is flawed please tell me, but my main questions are: How to deal with vertical links and whether my link idea is correct Now that I read my class List idea I'm thinking that a List should hold a vector of integers rather than a single integer. In fact I'm pretty positive, but would just like some validation. I'm assuming the coin flip would simply call int function where rand()%2 returns a value of 0 or 1 and if it's 0 then a the value "levels up" and if it's 0 then the insert is over. Is this incorrect? How to store a value similar to -infinite? Edit: I've started writing some code and am considering how to handle the List constructor....I'm guessing that on its construction, the "-infinite" value should be stored in the vectorname[0] element and I can just call insert on it after its creation to put the x in the appropriate place.

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  • Hide public method used to help test a .NET assembly

    - by ChrisW
    I have a .NET assembly, to be released. Its release build includes: A public, documented API of methods which people are supposed to use A public but undocumented API of other methods, which exist only in order to help test the assembly, and which people are not supposed to use The assembly to be released is a custom control, not an application. To regression-test it, I run it in a testing framework/application, which uses (in addition to the public/documented API) some advanced/undocumented methods which are exported from the control. For the public methods which I don't want people to use, I excluded them from the documentation using the <exclude> tag (supported by the Sandcastle Help File Builder), and the [EditorBrowsable] attribute, for example like this: /// <summary> /// Gets a <see cref="IEditorTransaction"/> instance, which helps /// to combine several DOM edits into a single transaction, which /// can be undone and redone as if they were a single, atomic operation. /// </summary> /// <returns>A <see cref="IEditorTransaction"/> instance.</returns> IEditorTransaction createEditorTransaction(); /// <exclude/> [EditorBrowsable(EditorBrowsableState.Never)] void debugDumpBlocks(TextWriter output); This successfully removes the method from the API documentation, and from Intellisense. However, if in a sample application program I right-click on an instance of the interface to see its definition in the metadata, I can still see the method, and the [EditorBrowsable] attribute as well, for example: // Summary: // Gets a ModelText.ModelDom.Nodes.IEditorTransaction instance, which helps // to combine several DOM edits into a single transaction, which can be undone // and redone as if they were a single, atomic operation. // // Returns: // A ModelText.ModelDom.Nodes.IEditorTransaction instance. IEditorTransaction createEditorTransaction(); // [EditorBrowsable(EditorBrowsableState.Never)] void debugDumpBlocks(TextWriter output); Questions: Is there a way to hide a public method, even from the meta data? If not then instead, for this scenario, would you recommend making the methods internal and using the InternalsVisibleTo attribute? Or would you recommend some other way, and if so what and why? Thank you.

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  • Best practices regarding equals: to overload or not to overload?

    - by polygenelubricants
    Consider the following snippet: import java.util.*; public class EqualsOverload { public static void main(String[] args) { class Thing { final int x; Thing(int x) { this.x = x; } public int hashCode() { return x; } public boolean equals(Thing other) { return this.x == other.x; } } List<Thing> myThings = Arrays.asList(new Thing(42)); System.out.println(myThings.contains(new Thing(42))); // prints "false" } } Note that contains returns false!!! We seems to have lost our things!! The bug, of course, is the fact that we've accidentally overloaded, instead of overridden, Object.equals(Object). If we had written class Thing as follows instead, then contains returns true as expected. class Thing { final int x; Thing(int x) { this.x = x; } public int hashCode() { return x; } @Override public boolean equals(Object o) { return (o instanceof Thing) && (this.x == ((Thing) o).x); } } Effective Java 2nd Edition, Item 36: Consistently use the Override annotation, uses essentially the same argument to recommend that @Override should be used consistently. This advice is good, of course, for if we had tried to declare @Override equals(Thing other) in the first snippet, our friendly little compiler would immediately point out our silly little mistake, since it's an overload, not an override. What the book doesn't specifically cover, however, is whether overloading equals is a good idea to begin with. Essentially, there are 3 situations: Overload only, no override -- ALMOST CERTAINLY WRONG! This is essentially the first snippet above Override only (no overload) -- one way to fix This is essentially the second snippet above Overload and override combo -- another way to fix The 3rd situation is illustrated by the following snippet: class Thing { final int x; Thing(int x) { this.x = x; } public int hashCode() { return x; } public boolean equals(Thing other) { return this.x == other.x; } @Override public boolean equals(Object o) { return (o instanceof Thing) && (this.equals((Thing) o)); } } Here, even though we now have 2 equals method, there is still one equality logic, and it's located in the overload. The @Override simply delegates to the overload. So the questions are: What are the pros and cons of "override only" vs "overload & override combo"? Is there a justification for overloading equals, or is this almost certainly a bad practice?

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