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  • Need help implementing this algorithm with map Hadoop MapReduce

    - by Julia
    Hi all! i have algorithm that will go through a large data set read some text files and search for specific terms in those lines. I have it implemented in Java, but I didnt want to post code so that it doesnt look i am searching for someone to implement it for me, but it is true i really need a lot of help!!! This was not planned for my project, but data set turned out to be huge, so teacher told me I have to do it like this. EDIT(i did not clarified i previos version)The data set I have is on a Hadoop cluster, and I should make its MapReduce implementation I was reading about MapReduce and thaught that i first do the standard implementation and then it will be more/less easier to do it with mapreduce. But didnt happen, since algorithm is quite stupid and nothing special, and map reduce...i cant wrap my mind around it. So here is shortly pseudo code of my algorithm LIST termList (there is method that creates this list from lucene index) FOLDER topFolder INPUT topFolder IF it is folder and not empty list files (there are 30 sub folders inside) FOR EACH sub folder GET file "CheckedFile.txt" analyze(CheckedFile) ENDFOR END IF Method ANALYZE(CheckedFile) read CheckedFile WHILE CheckedFile has next line GET line FOR(loops through termList) GET third word from line IF third word = term from list append whole line to string buffer ENDIF ENDFOR END WHILE OUTPUT string buffer to file Also, as you can see, each time when "analyze" is called, new file has to be created, i understood that map reduce is difficult to write to many outputs??? I understand mapreduce intuition, and my example seems perfectly suited for mapreduce, but when it comes to do this, obviously I do not know enough and i am STUCK! Please please help.

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  • how to make accessor for Dictionary in a way that returned Dictionary cannot be changed C# / 2.0

    - by matti
    I thought of solution below because the collection is very very small. But what if it was big? private Dictionary<string, OfTable> _folderData = new Dictionary<string, OfTable>(); public Dictionary<string, OfTable> FolderData { get { return new Dictionary<string,OfTable>(_folderData); } } With List you can make: public class MyClass { private List<int> _items = new List<int>(); public IList<int> Items { get { return _items.AsReadOnly(); } } } That would be nice! Thanks in advance, Cheers & BR - Matti NOW WHEN I THINK THE OBJECTS IN COLLECTION ARE IN HEAP. SO MY SOLUTION DOES NOT PREVENT THE CALLER TO MODIFY THEM!!! CAUSE BOTH Dictionary s CONTAIN REFERENCES TO SAME OBJECT. DOES THIS APPLY TO List EXAMPLE ABOVE? class OfTable { private string _wTableName; private int _table; private List<int> _classes; private string _label; public OfTable() { _classes = new List<int>(); } public int Table { get { return _table; } set { _table = value; } } public List<int> Classes { get { return _classes; } set { _classes = value; } } public string Label { get { return _label; } set { _label = value; } } } so how to make this immutable??

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  • Deserialize json with json.net c#

    - by 76mel
    Hi, am new to Json so a little green. I have a Rest Based Service that returns a json string; {"treeNode":[{"id":"U-2905","pid":"R","userId":"2905"}, {"id":"U-2905","pid":"R","userId":"2905"}]} I have been playing with the Json.net and trying to Deserialize the string into Objects etc. I wrote an extention method to help. public static T DeserializeFromJSON<T>(this Stream jsonStream, Type objectType) { T result; using (StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(jsonStream)) { JsonSerializer serializer = new JsonSerializer(); try { result = (T)serializer.Deserialize(reader, objectType); } catch (Exception e) { throw; } } return result; } I was expecting an array of treeNode[] objects. But its seems that I can only deserialize correctly if treeNode[] property of another object. public class treeNode { public string id { get; set; } public string pid { get; set; } public string userId { get; set; } } I there a way to to just get an straight array from the deserialization ? Cheers

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  • Generic cast type to primitive.

    - by Nix
    Is there a way to do the below? Imagine a generic result wrapper class. Where you have a type and an associated error list. When there is no result to return to the user we will use boolean to indicate success failure. I want to create a constructor that takes in an error list, and if the list is null or count 0, AND the type is a bool/Boolean i want to set it to true.... Seemingly simple, but amazingly not possible. public class Result<T>{ private T valueObject { get;set;} private List<Error> errors{ get;set;} public Result(T valueObj, List<Error> errorList){ this.valueObject = valueObj; this.errors = errorList; } public Result(List<Error> errors) { this.valueObject = default(ReturnType); if (valueObject is Boolean) { //Wont work compile //(valueObject as Boolean) = ((errors == null) || errors.Count == 0); //Compiles but detaches reference //bool temp = ((bool)(valueObject as object)) ; //temp = ((errors == null) || errors.Count == 0); } this.errors = errors; } } } Am I missing something simple? And in general I would prefer to do it without reflection.

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  • WPF: ComboBox SelectedIndex = -1 ??

    - by msfanboy
    Hello, I am using a MVVM Wizard with several pages. When I set a value in the combobox and go to the next page and switch back I want to reset the value I set before. But all whats happening is that the combobox is empty at top and the index is -1 ? What do I wrong? <ComboBox ItemsSource="{Binding Path=LessonNumbers}" SelectedIndex="{Binding SelectedLessonNumber}" /> private ReadOnlyCollection<int> _lessonNumbers; public ReadOnlyCollection<int> LessonNumbers { get { if (_lessonNumbers == null) this.CreateLessonNumbers(); return _lessonNumbers; } } private void CreateLessonNumbers() { var list = new List<int>(); for (int i = 1; i < 24; i++) { list.Add(i); } _lessonNumbers = new ReadOnlyCollection<int>(list); } private int _selectedLessonNumber; public int SelectedLessonNumber { get { return _selectedLessonNumber; } set { if (_selectedLessonNumber == value) return; _selectedLessonNumber = value; this.OnPropertyChanged("SelectedLessonNumber"); } }

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  • Retaining parameters in ASP.NET MVC

    - by MapDot
    Many MVC frameworks (e.g. PHP's Zend Framework) have a way of providing basic state management through URLs. The basic principle is this: Any parameters that were not explicitly modified or un-set get copied into every URL For instance, consider a listing with pagination. You'll have the order, direction and page number passed as URL parameters. You may also have a couple of filters. Changing the value of a filter should not alter the sort order. ASP.net MVC seems to remember your controller and action by default: <%: Html.RouteLink("Next", "MyRoute", new {id = next.ItemId}) %> This will not re-set your action or controller. However, it does seem to forget all other parameters. The same is true of ActionLink. Parameters that get set earlier on in your URL seem to get retained as well. Is there a way to make it retain more than that? For instance, this does not seem to affect any of the links being generated: RouteValues.RouteData.Values["showDeleted"] = true;

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  • Problem creating XML using c#

    - by Pankaj
    I am searching a batter solution for creating xml through xml serialization. What i need, i have a given format like this <product Id="1"> <name>2 1/2 X 6 PVC NIPPLE TOE SCH 80</name> <notes> <note>!--note 1---</note> <note>!--note 2--</note> ...... </notes> </product> what i am doing here, i created a 2 classes like this public class product { [XmlElement("name")] public string Name { get; set; } [XmlArray("notes")] public List<notes> ListNotes { get; set; } } public class notes { [XmlIgnore] public string Note { get; set; } } when i am serializing this then i am getting xml in this formate <product Id="1"> <name>2 1/2 X 6 PVC NIPPLE TOE SCH 80</name> <notes> <notes> <note>!--note 1---</note> <note>!--note 2--</note> </notes> </notes> </product> i don't want extra <notes>. Any batter solution to solve this problem? Thanks

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  • nhibernate mapping: delete collection, insert new collection with old IDs

    - by npeBeg
    my issue lokks similar to this one: (link) but i have one-to-many association: <set name="Fields" cascade="all-delete-orphan" lazy="false" inverse="true"> <key column="[TEMPLATE_ID]"></key> <one-to-many class="MyNamespace.Field, MyLibrary"/> </set> (i also tried to use ) this mapping is for Template object. this one and the Field object has their ID generators set to identity. so when i call session.Update for the Template object it works fine, well, almost: if the Field object has an Id number, UPDATE sql request is called, if the Id is 0, the INSERT is performed. But if i delete a Field object from the collection it has no effect for the Database. I found that if i also call session.Delete for this Field object, everything will be ok, but due to client-server architecture i don't know what to delete. so i decided to delete all the collection elements from the DB and call session.Update with a new collection. and i've got an issue: nhibernate performs the UPDATE operation for the Field objects that has non-zero Id, but they are removed from DB! maybe i should use some other Id generator or smth.. what is the best way to make nhibernate perform "delete all"/"insert all" routine for the collection?

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  • implementing a read/write field for an interface that only defines read

    - by PaulH
    I have a C# 2.0 application where a base interface allows read-only access to a value in a concrete class. But, within the concrete class, I'd like to have read/write access to that value. So, I have an implementation like this: public abstract class Base { public abstract DateTime StartTime { get; } } public class Foo : Base { DateTime start_time_; public override DateTime StartTime { get { return start_time_; } internal set { start_time_ = value; } } } But, this gives me the error: Foo.cs(200,22): error CS0546: 'Foo.StartTime.set': cannot override because 'Base.StartTime' does not have an overridable set accessor I don't want the base class to have write access. But, I do want the concrete class to provide read/write access. Is there a way to make this work? Thanks, PaulH Unfortunately, Base can't be changed to an interface as it contains non-abstract functionality also. Something I should have thought to put in the original problem description. public abstract class Base { public abstract DateTime StartTime { get; } public void Buzz() { // do something interesting... } } My solution is to do this: public class Foo : Base { DateTime start_time_; public override DateTime StartTime { get { return start_time_; } } internal void SetStartTime { start_time_ = value; } } It's not as nice as I'd like, but it works.

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  • Maven 3 plugin - How to programatically exclude a dependency and all its transitive dependencies?

    - by electrotype
    I'm developing a Maven 3 plugin and I want to exclude some dependencies, and their transitive dependencies, when a configuration is set to true in the plugin. I don't want to use <exclusions> in the POM itself, even in a profile. I want to exclude those dependencies programatically. In fact, what I want is to prevent the dependency jars to be included in the final war (I'm building a war), when a plugin configuration is set to true. I tried : @Mojo(requiresDependencyResolution=ResolutionScope.COMPILE, name="compileHook",defaultPhase=LifecyclePhase.COMPILE) public class compileHook extends AbstractMojo { @Override public void execute() throws MojoExecutionException, MojoFailureException { // ... Set<Artifact> artifacts = this.project.getArtifacts(); for(Artifact artifact : artifacts) { if("org.package.to.remove".equalsIgnoreCase(artifact.getGroupId())) { artifact.setScope("provided"); } } // ... } } Since this occures at the compile phase, it will indeed remove the artifacts with a group id "org.package.to.remove" from having their jars included in the war when packaged. But this doesn't remove the transitive artifacts those dependencies add! What is the best way to programatically remove some dependencies, and their transitive dependencies, from being included in a final .jar/.war?

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  • Add an event to HTML elements with a specific class.

    - by Juan C. Rois
    Hello everybody, I'm working on a modal window, and I want to make the function as reusable as possible. Said that, I want to set a few anchor tags with a class equals to "modal", and when a particular anchor tag is clicked, get its Id and pass it to a function that will execute another function based on the Id that was passed. This is what I have so far: // this gets an array with all the elements that have a class equals to "modal" var anchorTrigger = document.getElementsByClassName('modal'); Then I tried to set the addEventListener for each item in the array by doing this: var anchorTotal = anchorTrigger.length; for(var i = 0; i < anchorTotal ; i++){ anchorTrigger.addEventListener('click', fireModal, false); } and then run the last function "fireModal" that will open the modal, like so: function fireModal(){ //some more code here ... } My problem is that in the "for" loop, I get an error saying that anchorTrigger.addEvent ... is not a function. I can tell that the error might be related to the fact that I'm trying to set up the "addEventListener" to an array as oppose to individual elements, but I don't know what I'm supposed to do. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Why is TRest in Tuple<T1... TRest> not constrained?

    - by Anthony Pegram
    In a Tuple, if you have more than 7 items, you can provide an 8th item that is another tuple and define up to 7 items, and then another tuple as the 8th and on and on down the line. However, there is no constraint on the 8th item at compile time. For example, this is legal code for the compiler: var tuple = new Tuple<int, int, int, int, int, int, int, double> (1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1d); Even though the intellisense documentation says that TRest must be a Tuple. You do not get any error when writing or building the code, it does not manifest until runtime in the form of an ArgumentException. You can roughly implement a Tuple in a few minutes, complete with a Tuple-constrained 8th item. I just wonder why it was left off the current implementation? Is it possibly a forward-compatibility issue where they could add more elements with a hypothetical C# 5? Short version of rough implementation interface IMyTuple { } class MyTuple<T1> : IMyTuple { public T1 Item1 { get; private set; } public MyTuple(T1 item1) { Item1 = item1; } } class MyTuple<T1, T2> : MyTuple<T1> { public T2 Item2 { get; private set; } public MyTuple(T1 item1, T2 item2) : base(item1) { Item2 = item2; } } class MyTuple<T1, T2, TRest> : MyTuple<T1, T2> where TRest : IMyTuple { public TRest Rest { get; private set; } public MyTuple(T1 item1, T2 item2, TRest rest) : base(item1, item2) { Rest = rest; } } ... var mytuple = new MyTuple<int, int, MyTuple<int>>(1, 1, new MyTuple<int>(1)); // legal var mytuple2 = new MyTuple<int, int, int>(1, 2, 3); // illegal

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  • EF/LINQ: Where() against a property of a subtype

    - by ladenedge
    I have a set of POCOs, all of which implement the following simple interface: interface IIdObject { int Id { get; set; } } A subset of these POCOs implement this additional interface: interface IDeletableObject : IIdObject { bool IsDeleted { get; set; } } I have a repository hierarchy that looks something like this: IRepository<T <: BasicRepository<T <: ValidatingRepository<T (where T is IIdObject) I'm trying to add a FilteringRepository to the hierarchy such that all of the POCOs that implement IDeletableObject have a Where(p => p.IsDeleted == false) filter applied before any other queries take place. My goal is to avoid duplicating the hierarchy solely for IDeletableObjects. My first attempt looked like this: public override IQueryable<T> Query() { return base.Query().Where(t => ((IDeletableObject)t).IsDeleted == false); } This works well with LINQ to Objects, but when I switch to an EF backend I get: "LINQ to Entities only supports casting Entity Data Model primitive types." I went on to try some fancier parameterized solutions, but they ultimately failed because I couldn't make T covariant in the following case for some reason I don't quite understand: interface IQueryFilter<out T> // error { Expression<Func<T, bool>> GetFilter(); } I'd be happy to go into more detail on my more complicated solutions if it would help, but I think I'll stop here for now in hope that someone might have an idea for me to try. Thanks very much in advance!

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  • IIS to SQL Server kerberos auth issues

    - by crosan
    We have a 3rd party product that allows some of our users to manipulate data in a database (on what we'll call SvrSQL) via a website on a separate server (SvrWeb). On SvrWeb, we have a specific, non-default website setup for this application so instead of going to http://SvrWeb.company.com to get to the website we use http://application.company.com which resolves to SvrWeb and the host headers resolve to the correct website. There is also a specific application pool set up for this site which uses an Active Directory account identity we'll call "company\SrvWeb_iis". We're setup to allow delegation on this account and to allow it to impersonate another login which we want it to do. (we want this account to pass along the AD credentials of the person signed into the website to SQL Server instead of a service account. We also set up the SPNs for the SrvWeb_iis account via the following command: setspn -A HTTP/SrvWeb.company.com SrvWeb_iis The website pulls up, but the section of the website that makes the call to the database returns the message: Cannot execute database query. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'. I thought we had the SPN information set up correctly, but when I check the security event log on SrvWeb I see entries of my logging in, but it seems to be using NTLM and not kerberos: Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Any ideas or articles that cover this setup in detail would be extremely appreciated! If it helps, we are using SQL Server 2005, and both the web and SQL servers are Windows 2003.

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  • Length-1 arrays can be converted to python scalars error? python

    - by Randy
    from numpy import * from pylab import * from math import * def LogisticMap(a,x): return 4.*a*x*(1.-x) def CosineMap(a,x): return a*cos(x/(2.*pi)) def TentMap(a,x): if x>= 0 or x<0.5: return 2.*a*x if x>=0.5 or x<=1.: return 2.*a*(1.-x) a = 0.98 N = 40 xaxis = arange(0.0,N,1.0) Func = CosineMap subplot(211) title(str(Func.func_name) + ' at a=%g and its second iterate' %a) ylabel('X(n+1)') # set y-axis label plot(xaxis,Func(a,xaxis), 'g', antialiased=True) subplot(212) ylabel('X(n+1)') # set y-axis label xlabel('X(n)') # set x-axis label plot(xaxis,Func(a,Func(a,xaxis)), 'bo', antialiased=True) My program is supposed to take any of the three defined functions and plot it. They all take in a value x from the array xaxis from 0 to N and then return the value. I want it to plot a graph of xaxis vs f(xaxis) with f being any of the three above functions. The logisticmap function works fine, but for CosineMap i get the error "only length-1 arrays can be converted to python scalars" and for TentMap i get error "The truth value of an array with more than one element is ambiguous, use a.any() or a.all()". My tent map function is suppose to return 2*a*x if 0<=x<0.5 and it's suppose to return 2*a*(1-x) if 0.5<=0<=1.

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  • Run-time error 459 when using WithEvents with a class that implements another

    - by Ken Keenan
    I am developing a VBA project in Word and have encountered a problem with handling events when using a class that implements another. I define an empty class, IMyInterface: Public Sub Xyz() End Sub Public Event SomeEvent() And a class, MyClass that implements the above: Implements IMyInterface Public Event SomeEvent() Public Sub Xyz() ' ... code ... RaiseEvent SomeEvent End Sub Private Sub IMyInterface_Xyz() Xyz End Sub If I create a third class, OtherClass, that declares a member variable with the type of the interface class: Private WithEvents mMy As IMyInterface and try to initialize this variable with an instance of the implementing class: Set mMy = New MyClass I get a run-time error '459': This component doesn't support this set of events. The MSDN page for this error message states: "You tried to use a WithEvents variable with a component that can't work as an event source for the specified set of events. For example, you may be sinking events of an object, then create another object that Implements the first object. Although you might think you could sink the events from the implemented object, that isn't automatically the case. Implements only implements an interface for methods and properties." The above pretty much sums up what I'm trying to do. The wording, "that isn't automatically the case", rather than "this is flat-out impossible", seems to suggest that there is some bit of manual work I need to do to get it to work, but it doesn't tell me what! Does anybody know if this is possible in VBA?

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  • Should my validator have access to my entire model?

    - by wb
    As the title states I'm wondering if it's a good idea for my validation class to have access to all properties from my model. Ideally, I would like to do that because some fields require 10+ other fields to verify whether it is valid or not. I could but would rather not have functions with 10+ parameters. Or would that make the model and validator too coupled with one another? Here is a little example of what I mean. This code however does not work because it give an infinite loop! Class User Private m_UserID Private m_Validator Public Sub Class_Initialize() End Sub Public Property Let Validator(value) Set m_Validator = value m_Validator.Initialize(Me) End Property Public Property Get Validator() Validator = m_Validator End Property Public Property Let UserID(value) m_UserID = value End property Public Property Get UserID() UserID = m_Validator.IsUserIDValid() End property End Class Class Validator Private m_User Public Sub Class_Initialize() End Sub Public Sub Initialize(value) Set m_User = value End Sub Public Function IsUserIDValid() IsUserIDValid = m_User.UserID > 13 End Function End Class Dim mike : Set mike = New User mike.UserID = 123456 mike.Validator = New Validator Response.Write mike.UserID If I'm right and it is a good idea, how can I go a head and fix the infinite loop with the get property UserID? Thank you.

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  • ASP:DropDownList in ItemTemplate: Why is SelectedValue attribute allowed?

    - by recursive
    This piece of code <asp:DropDownList runat="server" ID="testdropdown" SelectedValue="2"> <asp:ListItem Text="1" Value="1"></asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Text="2" Value="2"></asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Text="3" Value="3"></asp:ListItem> </asp:DropDownList> yields this error: The 'SelectedValue' property cannot be set declaratively. Yet, this is a legal and commonly used edit template for databound GridViews. The SelectedValue attribute certainly appears to be declaratively set here. <EditItemTemplate> <asp:DropDownList runat="server" ID="GenreDropDownList" DataSourceID="GenreDataSource" DataValueField="GenreId" DataTextField="Name" SelectedValue='<%# Bind("Genre.GenreId") %>'> </asp:DropDownList> </EditItemTemplate> The question is: what is the difference between the cases when you are allowed to set it declaratively and those in which you are not? The error message implies that it's never allowed.

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  • How to execute stored procedure from Access using linked tables

    - by webworm
    I have an Access 2003 database that connects to a SQL Server 2008 box via ODBC. The tables from SQL Server are connected as linked tables in Access. I have a stored procedure on the SQL Server that I am trying to execute via ADO code. The problem I have is that Access cannot seem to find the procedure. What do I have to do within Access to be able to execute this stored procedure? Some facts ... The stored procedure in question accepts one parameter which is an integer. The stored procedure returns a recordset which I am hoping to use as the datasource for a ListBox. Here is my ADO code in Access ... Private Sub LoadUserCaseList(userID As Integer) Dim cmd As ADODB.Command Set cmd = New ADODB.Command cmd.ActiveConnection = CurrentProject.Connection cmd.CommandType = adCmdStoredProc cmd.CommandText = "uspGetUserCaseSummaryList" Dim par As New ADODB.Parameter Set par = cmd.CreateParameter("userID", adInteger) cmd.Parameters.Append par cmd.Parameters("userID") = userID Dim rs As ADODB.Recordset Set rs = cmd.Execute() lstUserCases.Recordset = rs End Sub The error I get is "the microsoft jet database engine cannot find the input table or query "uspGetUserCaseSummaryList".

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  • PHP file upload issue

    - by Varun
    I am working on a PHP based, ticket management system. While creating a ticket, one can upload an attachment. I want to put a limit (say 10 MB) per file upload. To implement this I plan the following- 1. In php.ini set post_max_size = 10M 2.In PHP script which receives the POST- Since the file is larger than post_max_size, $_FILES[] will be empty. But I can still check the content-length header and discard the upload, if size more than 10M. While testing this I tried uploading a file of 1 GB and analysed the http traffic and this is what I found. - the entire 1 GB data is first uploaded to a to the server temporarily and discarded once the http request completes. Though I couldn't exactly find out where the file was getting saved(as it was not there in the temporary directory in the server.), but my http traffic analyzer showed that the browser did send 1 GB data to the server. - the PHP script execution started only after completion of the http request(i.e after uploading the entire 1 GB) Now I have 2 concerns: a) People may exploit my server bandwidth by trying to upload large file, which I will have to discard anyways. b) Even worse, if someone starts uploading a huge file (say 100 GB), entire 100 GB data is first uploaded to the server temporarily, that means for that period, it will consume that much of memory on my server. What's the common solution for this. Am I missing something here?

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  • How do I add mouseClicked event to a swing table?

    - by Ayelet
    Hi, I am a new, terribly green user of Swing. I managed to create a table class using examples from java.sun tutorials, and I managed to load data dynamically into it. I want to be able to react to a click on a row by displaying a dialog box. How do I add the event Handler that will identify the selected row number? The main function code: public static void main(String[] args) { javax.swing.SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { try { MainWindow window = new MainWindow(); window.frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); //Create and set up the content pane. createAndShowGUI(); //... and: private static void createAndShowGUI() { //Create and set up the window. JFrame frame = new JFrame("Data Table"); frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); //Create and set up data of the content pane. TableClass mainTable = new TableClass(fh.getColNames(), fh.getTableContent()); mainTable.setOpaque(true); frame.setContentPane(mainTable); //Display the window. frame.pack(); frame.setVisible(true); } Thank you

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  • Multiple usage of MenuItems declared once (WPF)

    - by Alex Kofman
    Is it possible in WPF to define some menu structure and than use it in multiple contexts? For example I'd like to use a set of menu items from resources in ContextMenu, Window's menu and ToolBar (ToolBar with icons only, without headers). So items order, commands, icons, separators must be defined just once. I look for something like this: Declaration in resources: <MenuItem Command="MyCommands.CloneObject" CommandParameter="{Binding SelectedObject}" Header="Clone"> <MenuItem.Icon> <Image Source="Images\Clone.png" Height="16" Width="16"></Image> </MenuItem.Icon> </MenuItem> <MenuItem Command="MyCommands.RemoveCommand" CommandParameter="{Binding SelectedObject}" Header="Remove"> <MenuItem.Icon> <Image Source="Images\Remove.png" Height="16" Width="16"></Image> </MenuItem.Icon> </MenuItem> <Separator/> <MenuItem Command="MCommands.CreateChild" CommandParameter="{Binding SelectedObject}" Header="Create child"> <MenuItem.Icon> <Image Source="Images\Child.png" Height="16" Width="16"></Image> </MenuItem.Icon> </MenuItem> Usage: <ToolBar MenuItems(?)="{Reference to set of items}" ShowText(?)="false" /> and <ContextMenu MenuItems(?)="{Reference to set of items}" />

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  • Cookie blocked/not saved in IFRAME in Internet Explorer

    - by Piskvor
    I have two websites, let's say they're example.com and anotherexample.net. On anotherexample.net/page.html, I have an IFRAME SRC="http://example.com/someform.asp". That IFRAME displays a form for the user to fill out and submit to http://example.com/process.asp. When I open the form ("someform.asp") in its own browser window, all works well. However, when I load someform.asp as an IFRAME in IE 6 or IE 7, the cookies for example.com are not saved. In Firefox this problem doesn't appear. For testing purposes, I've created a similar setup on http://newmoon.wz.cz/test/page.php . example.com uses cookie-based sessions (and there's nothing I can do about that), so without cookies, process.asp won't execute. How do I force IE to save those cookies? Results of sniffing the HTTP traffic: on GET /someform.asp response, there's a valid per-session Set-Cookie header (e.g. Set-Cookie: ASPKSJIUIUGF=JKHJUHVGFYTTYFY), but on POST /process.asp request, there is no Cookie header at all. Edit3: some AJAX+serverside scripting is apparently capable to sidestep the problem, but that looks very much like a bug, plus it opens a whole new set of security holes. I don't want my applications to use a combination of bug+security hole just because it's easy. Edit: the P3P policy was the root cause, full explanation below.

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  • Connecting to SQL Server 2005 via Web Service

    - by clear-cycle-corp
    Delphi 2010, dbExpress, and SQL Server 2005 DB I am trying to make a connection to a SQL Server 2005 DB using Delphi 2010 & DBExpress. If I create a standard delphi application and hard code my connection (IT WORKS!): procedure TForm1.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); var Conn: TSQLConnection; begin Conn:= TSQLConnection.Create(nil); Conn.ConnectionName:= 'VPUCDS_VPN_SE01'; Conn.LoadParamsOnConnect := True; Conn.LoginPrompt:=True; try Conn.Connected:= True; if Conn.Connected then ShowMessage('Connected!') else ShowMessage('NOT Connected!') finally Conn.Free; end; end; All the ini files, and DLLs reside in the same folder as my executable and yes, I have DBXMsSQL & MidasLib in the uses clause again, it works if its not a web service! However, if i then move the code over to a Web services CGI module: function TTest.ConnectToDB: Boolean;stdcall; var Conn: TSQLConnection; begin Conn:= TSQLConnection.Create(nil); Conn.ConnectionName:= 'VPUCDS_VPN_SE01'; Conn.LoadParamsOnConnect := True; Conn.LoginPrompt:=True; try Conn.Connected:= True; result:= Conn.Connected; finally Conn.Free; end; end; Thanks

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  • Removing dotted border without setting NoFocus in Windows PyQt

    - by Cryptite
    There are a few questions on SO about this, all of which seem to say that the only way to remove the dotted border is to set the focusPolicy on widget/item in question to NoFocus. While this works as a temporary fix, this prevents further interaction with said widget/item in the realm of other necessary focusEvents. Said border in question: Here's an example of why this doesn't work. I have a Non-Modal widget popup, think a lightbox for an image. I want to detect a mousePressEvent outside of the widget and close the widget as a result. To do this, I should catch the focusOutEvent. However, if a vast majority of widgets in my program are set as NoFocus (to remove the border issue), then I cannot catch the focusOutEvent because, you guessed it, they have no focus policy. Here's another example: I have a QTreeWidget that is subclassed so I can catch keyPressEvents for various reasons. The QTreeWidget is also set as NoFocus to prevent the border. Because of this, however, the widget never has focus and therefore no keyPressEvents can be caught. A workaround for this (kludgy, imo) is to use the widget's grabKeyboard class, which is dangerous if I forget to releaseKeyboard later. This is not optimal. So then the question is, is there a way to remove this weird (mostly just ugly) dotted border without turning off focus for everything in my app? Thanks in advance!

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