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  • Using javascript to add form fields, but what will the new name be?

    - by user1322844
    After reading this post: using javascript to add form fields.. but below, not to the side? I've made the button work! But I don't know how to receive the output. This is what I entered. var counter = 0; function addNew() { // Get the main Div in which all the other divs will be added var mainContainer = document.getElementById('mainContainer'); // Create a new div for holding text and button input elements var newDiv = document.createElement('div'); // Create a new text input var newText = document.createElement('input'); newText.type = "input"; newText.maxlength = "50"; newText.maxlimit = "50"; newText.size = "60"; newText.value = counter; // Create a new button input var newDelButton = document.createElement('input'); newDelButton.type = "button"; newDelButton.value = "Delete"; // Append new text input to the newDiv newDiv.appendChild(newText); // Append new button input to the newDiv newDiv.appendChild(newDelButton); // Append newDiv input to the mainContainer div mainContainer.appendChild(newDiv); counter++; // Add a handler to button for deleting the newDiv from the mainContainer newDelButton.onclick = function() { mainContainer.removeChild(newDiv); } } </script> With this in the form: <input type="button" size="3" cols="30" value="Add" onClick="addNew()"> So, what will the new field names be? I don't understand enough of the coding to figure out what I'm telling it to. Good thing there are other smart folks out there for me to lean on! Thanks for any answers.

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  • NHibernate, legacy database, foreign keys that aren't

    - by Joe
    The project I'm working on has a legacy database with lots of information in it that's used to alter application behavior. Basically I'm stuck with something that I have to be super careful about changing. Onto my problem. In this database is a table and in this table is a column. This column contains integers and most of the pre-existing data have a value of zero for this column. The problem is that this column is in fact a foreign key reference to another entity, it was just never defined as such in the database schema. Now in my new code I defined my Fluent-NHibernate mapping to treat this column as a Reference so that I don't have to deal with entity id's directly in my code. This works fine until I come across an entity that has a value of 0 in this column. NHibernate thinks that a value of 0 is a valid reference. When my code tries to use that referenced object I get an ObjectNotFoundException as obviously there is no object in my database with an id of 0. How can I, either through mapping or some kind of convention (I'm using Fluent-nhibernate), get NHibernate to treat id's that are 0 the same as if it was NULL?

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  • Understanding Java Wait and Notify methods

    - by Maddy
    Hello all: I have a following program: import java.util.concurrent.ExecutorService; import java.util.concurrent.Executors; public class SimpleWaitNotify implements Runnable { final static Object obj = new Object(); static boolean value = true; public synchronized void flag() { System.out.println("Before Wait"); try { obj.wait(); } catch (InterruptedException e) { System.out.println("Thread interrupted"); } System.out.println("After Being Notified"); } public synchronized void unflag() { System.out.println("Before Notify All"); obj.notifyAll(); System.out.println("After Notify All Method Call"); } public void run() { if (value) { flag(); } else { unflag(); } } public static void main(String[] args) throws InterruptedException { ExecutorService pool = Executors.newFixedThreadPool(4); SimpleWaitNotify sWait = new SimpleWaitNotify(); pool.execute(sWait); SimpleWaitNotify.value = false; SimpleWaitNotify sNotify = new SimpleWaitNotify(); pool.execute(sNotify); pool.shutdown(); } } When I wait on obj, I get the following exception Exception in thread "pool-1-thread-1" java.lang.IllegalMonitorStateException: current thread not owner for each of the two threads. But if I use SimpleWaitNotify's monitor then the program execution is suspended. In other words, I think it suspends current execution thread and in turn the executor. Any help towards understanding what's going on would be duly appreciated. This is an area1 where the theory and javadoc seem straightforward, and since there aren't many examples, conceptually left a big gap in me.

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  • How to get the actual address of a pointer in C?

    - by Airjoe
    BACKGROUND: I'm writing a single level cache simulator in C for a homework assignment, and I've been given code that I must work from. In our discussions of the cache, we were told that the way a small cache can hold large addresses is by splitting the large address into the position in the cache and an identifying tag. That is, if you had an 8 slot cache but wanted to store something with address larger than 8, you take the 3 (because 2^3=8) rightmost bits and put the data in that position; so if you had address 22 for example, binary 10110, you would take those 3 rightmost bits 110, which is decimal 5, and put it in slot 5 of the cache. You would also store in this position the tag, which is the remaining bits 10. One function, cache_load, takes a single argument, and integer pointer. So effectively, I'm being given this int* addr which is an actual address and points to some value. In order to store this value in the cache, I need to split the addr. However, the compiler doesn't like when I try to work with the pointer directly. So, for example, I try to get the position by doing: npos=addr%num_slots The compiler gets angry and gives me errors. I tried casting to an int, but this actually got me the value that the pointer was pointing to, not the numerical address itself. Any help is appreciated, thanks!

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  • how do I insert an hidden token in my form to prevent double posts? (PHP)

    - by jpjp
    I want to prevent users from accidentally posting a comment twice. I use the PRG (post redirect get) method, so that I insert the data on another page then redirect the user back to the page which shows the comment. This allows users to refresh as many times as they want. However this doesn't work when the user goes back and clicks submit again or when they click submit 100 times really fast. I don't want 100 of the same comments. I looked at related questions on SO and found that a token is best. But I am having trouble using it. //makerandomtoken(20) returns a random 20 length char. <form method="post" ... > <input type="text" id="comments" name="comments" class="commentbox" /><br/> <input type="hidden" name="_token" value="<?php echo $token=makerandomtoken(20); ?>" /> <input type="submit" value="submit" name="submit" /> </form> if (isset($_POST['submit']) && !empty($comments)) { $comments= mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc,trim($_POST['comments'])); //how do I make the if-statment to check if the token has been already set once? if ( ____________){ //don't insert comment because already clicked submit } else{ //insert the comment into the database } } So I have the token as a hidden value, but how do I use that to prevent multiple clicking of submit.

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  • Adding a Taxonomy Filter to a Custom Post Type

    - by ken
    There is an amazing conversation from about two years ago on the Wordpress Answer site where a number of people came up with good solutions for adding a taxonomy filter to the admin screen for your custom post types (see URL for screen I'm referring to): http://[yoursite.com]/wp-admin/edit.php?s&post_status=all&post_type=[post-type] Anyway, I loved Michael's awesome contribution but in the end used Somatic's implementation with the hierarchy option from Manny. I wrapped it in a class - cuz that's how I like to do things -- and it ALMOST works. The dropdown appears but the values in the dropdown are all looking in the $_GET property for the taxonomies slug-name that you are filtering by. For some reason I don't get anything. I looked at the HTML of the dropdown and it appears ok to me. Here's a quick screen shot for some context: You can tell from this that my post-type is called "exercise" and that the Taxonomy I'm trying to use as a filter is "actions". Here then is the HTML surrounding the dropdown list: <select name="actions" id="actions" class="postform"> <option value="">Show all Actions</option> <option value="ate-dinner">Ate dinner(1)</option> <option value="went-running">Went running(1)</option> </select> I have also confirmed that all of the form elements are within the part of the DOM. And yet if I choose "Went running" and click on the filter button the URL query string comes back without ANY reference to what i've picked. More explicitly, the page first loads with the following URL: /wp-admin/edit.php?post_type=exercise and after pressing the filter button while having picked "Went Running" as an option from the actions filter: /wp-admin/edit.php?s&post_status=all&post_type=exercise&action=-1&m=0&actions&paged=1&mode=list&action2=-1 actually you can see a reference to an "actions" variable but it's set to nothing and as I now look in detail it appears that the moment I hit "filter" on the page it resets the filter dropdown to the default "Show All Actions". Can anyone help me with this?

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  • Separating Javascript functions

    - by msharma
    I am wondering how javascripts get included in a jsp - can we put any code which the jsp will recognize and not just javascript code only in the .js file? I have some common javascript code which needs to get executed on different pages, so I decided to place it in its own separate .js file and include it on all jsps which call that function. The js function now refers to a key from a properties file and some other non-javascript code: function openPrivacyStmntWindow(){ var url = <h:outputText escape="false" value="\"#{urls.url_privacyStatement}\";" /> newwindow=window.open(url,'Terms','height=600,width=800,left=300,top=100,scrollbars=1'); newwindow.focus(); return false; } This function worked just fine when it was included in the jsp itself. Now that I have separated it into its own file it doesnt, do I need to include the properties bundle in this file. The value="\"#{urls.url_privacyStatement}\";" is referring to a bundle called "urls" which has a key called "url_privacyStatement" Also in Line 1 var url = <h:outputText escape="false" value="\"#{urls.url_privacyStatement}\";" /> the <h:outputText escape="false" ... /> will it cause any issues? Thanks.

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  • In JSF - What is the correct way to do this? Two dropdown lists with dependency.

    - by Ben
    Hi, I'm making two dropdown lists in JSF which are dependent. Specifically, one list has all the languages and the second list contains values that are displayed in the currently selected language. I've implemented this by having the second list use information from a Hash and rebuilding that Hash in the setter of the currently selected language. JSF Code Bit: <rich:dropDownMenu value="#{bean.currentlySelectedLanguage}" id="languageSelector"> ... (binding to languages hash) ... <rich:dropDownMenu value="#{bean.currentlySelectedScript}" id="ScriptPullDown"> ... (binding to scripts hash) ... Backing Bean Code Bit: setCurrentlySelectedLanguage(String lang){ this.currentlySelectedLanguage = lang; rebuildScriptNames(lang); } I'm wondering if that's a good way of doing this or if theres a better method that I am not aware of. Thank you! EDIT - Adding info.. I used a a4j:support that with event="onchange" and ReRender="ScriptPullDown" to rerender the script pull down. I could probably add an action expression to run a method when the value changes. But is there a benefit to doing this over using code in the setter function?

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  • Hiding Opetions of a Selection with JQuery

    - by Syed Abdul Rahman
    Okay, let's start with an example. <select id = "selection1">     <option value = "1" id = "1">Number 1</option>     <option value = "2" id = "2">Number 2</option>     <option value = "3" id = "3">Number 3</option> </select> Now from here, we have a dropdown with 3 options. What I want to do now is to hide an option. Adding style = "display:none" will not help. The option would not appear in the dropdownlist, but using the arrow keys, you can still select it. Essentially, it does exactly what the code says. It isn't displayed, and it stops there. A JQuery function of $("1").hide() will not work. Plus, I don't only want to hide the option, I want to completely remove it. Any possibility on doing so? Do I have to use parent/sibling/child elements? If so, I'm still not sure how. Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.

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  • property names are different from original Object in the silverlight

    - by kwon
    Following is part of service layer which is provided by WCF service : [Serializable] public class WaitInfo { private string roomName; private string pName; private string tagNo; public string RoomName { get { return roomName; } set { this.roomName = value; } } public string PName { get { return pName; } set { this.pName = value; } } public string TagNo { get { return tagNo; } set { this.tagNo = value; } } } public class Service1 : IService1 { public List<WaitInfo> GetWaitingList() { MyDBDataContext db = new MyDBDataContext(); var query = from w in db.WAIT_INFOs select new WaitInfo { TagNo = w.PATIENT_INFO.TAG_NO, RoomName= w.ROOM_INFO.ROOM_NAME, PName= w.PATIENT_INFO.P_NAME }; List<WaitInfo> result = query.ToList(); return result; } And following is codebehind part of UI layer which is provided by Silverlight public MainPage() { InitializeComponent(); Service1Client s = new Service1Client(); s.GetWaitingListCompleted += new EventHandler<GetWaitingListByCompletedEventArgs>( s_GetWaitingListCompleted); s.GetWaitingListAsync(); } void s_GetWaitingListCompleted(object sender, RadControlsSilverlightApplication1.ServiceReference2.GetWaitingListByCompletedEventArgs e) { GridDataGrid.ItemsSource = e.Result; } And following is xaml code in Silverlight page <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot"> <data:DataGrid x:Name="GridDataGrid"></data:DataGrid> </Grid> Is is very simple code, however what I am thinking weird is property name of object at "e.Result" in the code behind page. In the service layer, although properties' names are surely "RoomName, PName, TagNo", in the silverlight properties' names are "roomName, pName, tagNo" which are private variable name of the WaitingList Object. Did I something wrong? Thanks in advance.

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  • Why does implementing ObservableCollection crash my silverlight application?

    - by Sudeep
    Hi, I have a combobox whose ItemsSource property is bound to an ObservableCollection property and its SelectedIndex property is bound to an integer property respectively. <ComboBox Name="cmbDealt" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=DealList, Mode=TwoWay}" SelectedIndex="{Binding Mode=TwoWay, Path=DealIndex}"></ComboBox> <CheckBox IsChecked="{Binding Mode=TwoWay, Path=SomeCondition}" Content="Some Condition"></CheckBox> My data structure looks like private ObservableCollection<string> m_DealList = null; private int m_DealIndex = 0; private bool m_SomeCondition = false; public ObservableCollection<string> DealList { get { if (m_DealList == null) m_DealList = new ObservableCollection<string>(); else m_DealList.Clear(); if (m_SomeCondition) { m_DealList.Add("ABC"); m_DealList.Add("DEF"); } else { m_DealList.Add("UVW"); m_DealList.Add("XYZ"); } return m_DealList; } } public int DealIndex { get { return m_DealIndex; } set { if (value != -1) { m_DealIndex = value; } } } public bool SomeCondition { get { return m_SomeCondition; } set { m_SomeCondition = value; OnPropertyChanged("DealList"); OnPropertyChanged("DealIndex"); } } Now the application loads successfully. However, when the user changes the SelectedIndex of the ComboBox to 1 from 0 and then checks the checkbox (so as to call the "DealIndex" property changed event), the application crashes. I am not sure why this could be happening. Can someone shed some light and propose a solution? TIA... Sudeep

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  • problem on running script on different operating system

    - by Praveen kalal
    i run use a javascript code for getting browser information it run fine on microsoft windows xp but it not working on microsoft windows server 2003. my code is folowing. plz help. <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="zeroclipboard/ZeroClipboard.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> window.onload = function F() { var today = new Date(); var the_date = new Date("December 31, 2012"); var the_cookie_date = the_date.toGMTString(); var the_cookie = screen.width +"x"+ screen.height; var the_cookie = "Screen Resolution:"+the_cookie + ";\nExpires:" + the_cookie_date+";\n Browser CodeName:"+navigator.appCodeName+";\n Browser Name: " + navigator.appName+";\n Browser Version: " + navigator.appVersion+";\n Browser Version: " + navigator.appVersion+"; \n Cookies Enabled: " + navigator.cookieEnabled +";\n Platform: " + navigator.platform+";\n User-agent header: " + navigator.userAgent; / document.getElementById('box-content').value=the_cookie; } </script> </head> <body> <textarea name="box-content" id="box-content" rows="10" cols="70"> </textarea> <br /><br /> <p><input type="button" id="copy" name="copy" value="Copy to Clipboard" /></p> </body> </html> <script type="text/javascript"> //set path ZeroClipboard.setMoviePath('http://192.168.101.135:471/browserinfo/zeroclipboard/ZeroClipboard.swf'); //create client var clip = new ZeroClipboard.Client(); //event clip.addEventListener('mousedown',function() { clip.setText(document.getElementById('box-content').value); }); clip.addEventListener('complete',function(client,text) { alert('text is copied'); }); //glue it to the button clip.glue('copy'); </script>

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  • Unable to store NSNumber in core data

    - by Kamlesh
    Hi all, I am using Core Data in my application.I have an attribute named PINCode which has property Int64. Now,in my app I take the PIN code from a text field,convert it into NSNumber and try to store as an attribute value for an entity.But I am unable to do so.The exception that it shows on the console is:- Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: 'Unacceptable type of value for attribute: property = "PINCode"; desired type = NSNumber; given type = NSCFString; value = 121.' Here is the code:- (Conversion to NSNumber):- NSString *str= txtPINCode.text; NSNumber *num = [[NSNumber alloc]init]; int tempNum = [str intValue]; num = [NSNumber numberWithInt:tempNum]; (Storing in core data entity):- NSManagedObjectContext *context = [appDelegate managedObjectContext]; NSManagedObject *newContact; newContact = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"MemberTable" inManagedObjectContext:context]; [newContact setValue:num forKey:@"PINCode"]; The app crashes at this point.I am unable to find the reason of crash.I have also tried to check the conversion by the following code:- NSNumber *testNumber = [[NSNumber alloc]init]; id test = num; BOOL testMe = [test isKindOfClass:(Class)testNumber]; Can anybody help me with this?? Thanks in advance.

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  • Problem with UserControl with custom Dependency Property

    - by Mathias Koch
    Hi, I'm writing a user control with a dependency property for a search text called SearchText. It is a dependency property because I want to allow consumers of the control to use data binding. The user control contains a WPF TextBox where the user can enter the search text. I could use data binding to connect the SearchText dependency property of the user control with the Text dependency property of the TextBox, but this binding only fires when the text box looses input focus. What I want is SearchText to be updated after every change of Text. So I have added a TextChanged event handler to the user control where I set SearchText to the value of Text. My Problem is, the SearchText binding doesn't work, the source never gets updated. What am I doing wrong? Here's the relevant part of the user controls code-behind: public partial class UserControlSearchTextBox : UserControl { public string SearchText { get { return (string)GetValue(SearchTextProperty); } set { SetValue(SearchTextProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty SearchTextProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("SearchText", typeof(string), typeof(UserControlSearchTextBox), new UIPropertyMetadata("")); private void TextBox_TextChanged(object sender, TextChangedEventArgs e) { SearchText = ((TextBox)sender).Text; } ... } The window that contains an instance of the user control has its DataContext set to an object that has a property also called SearchText. <uc:UserControlSearchTextBox SearchText="{Binding SearchText}" /> The data context of the Window: public class DataSourceUserManual : DataSourceBase { private string _searchText; public string SearchText { get { return _searchText; } set { _searchText = value; ... OnPropertyChanged("SearchText"); } } } Unfortunately, this setter is not called when I type into the text box. Any ideas?

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  • R - removing rows and replacing values using conditions from multiple columns

    - by lecodesportif
    I want to filter out all values of var3 < 5 while keeping at least one occurrence of each value of var1. > foo <- data.frame(var1= c(1, 1, 2, 3, 3, 4, 4, 5), var2=c(9, 5, 13, 9, 12, 11, 13, 9), var3=c(6, 8, 3, 6, 4, 7, 2, 9)) > foo var1 var2 var3 1 1 9 6 2 1 5 8 3 2 13 3 4 3 9 6 5 3 12 4 6 4 11 7 7 4 13 2 8 5 9 9 subset(foo, (foo$var3>=5)) would remove row 3, 5 and 7 and I would have lost var1==2. I want to remove the row if there is another value of var1 that fulfills the condition foo$var3 = 5. See row 5. I want to keep the row, assiging NA to var2 and var3 if all occurrences of a value var1 do not fulfill the condition foo$var3 = 5. This is the result I expect: var1 var2 var3 1 1 9 6 2 1 5 8 3 2 NA NA 4 3 9 6 6 4 11 7 8 5 9 9 This is the closest I got: > foo$var3[ foo$var3 < 5 ] = NA > foo$var2[ is.na(foo$var3) ] = NA > foo var1 var2 var3 1 1 9 6 2 1 5 8 3 2 NA NA 4 3 9 6 5 3 NA NA 6 4 11 7 7 4 NA NA 8 5 9 9 So I guess I just need to know how to conditionally remove the row.

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  • java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.springframework.ui.ModelMap

    - by aelshereay
    I create a simple webapp using tomcat 6, spring 2.5.6 and maven. The problem is when I boot up tomcat, I am getting the following errors: SEVERE: StandardWrapper.Throwable java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: org/springframework/ui/ModelMap ... Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.springframework.ui.ModelMap The ModelMap class does exist in spring-2.5.6.jar and spring-context-2.5.6.jar, I also have some other spring jars. All of them are being deployed to tomcat correctly, when I check the application WEB-INF (deployed to tomcat) I found all those jars there! I have only one @Controller that has a @RequestMapping("/home.htm") showForm(ModelMap model) method. My applicationContext is quite simple: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:aop="http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop" xmlns:context="http://www.springframework.org/schema/context" xmlns:dwr="http://www.directwebremoting.org/schema/spring-dwr" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-2.5.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop/spring-aop-2.5.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/context http://www.springframework.org/schema/context/spring-context-2.5.xsd http://www.directwebremoting.org/schema/spring-dwr http://www.directwebremoting.org/schema/spring-dwr-3.0.xsd" default-autowire="byName"> <context:component-scan base-package="org.myapp"/> <bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping"/> <bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.AnnotationMethodHandlerAdapter"/> <bean id="viewResolver" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver"> <property name="viewClass" value="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.JstlView"></property> <property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/view/"></property> <property name="suffix" value=".jsp"></property> </bean> </beans>

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  • $.ajax not loading data data everytime from server

    - by Ted
    I have written a simple jQuery.ajax function which loads a user control from the server on click of a button. The first time I click the button, it goes to the server and gets me the user control. But each subsequent click of the same button does not goes to the server to fetch me the user control. Since my user control fetches data from db, I need to reload the user control everytime i hit the button. But if anyhow I get my user control to unload from the page, and re-click the button, it goes to the server and fetches me the user control. Here's the code: $("#btnLoad").click(function() { if ($(this).attr("value") == "Load Control") { $.ajax({ url: "AJAXHandler.ashx", data: { "lt": "loadcontrol" }, dataType: "html", success: function(data) { content.html(data); } }); $(this).attr("value", "Unload Control"); } else { $.ajax({ url: "AJAXHandler.ashx", data: { "lt": "unloadcontrol" }, dataType: "html", success: function(data) { content.html(data); } }); $(this).attr("value", "Load Control"); } }); Please let me know if there is any other way I can get my user control loaded from server everytime I click the button.

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  • Setting javascript prototype function within object class declaration

    - by Tauren
    Normally, I've seen prototype functions declared outside the class definition, like this: function Container(param) { this.member = param; } Container.prototype.stamp = function (string) { return this.member + string; } var container1 = new Container('A'); alert(container1.member); alert(container1.stamp('X')); This code produces two alerts with the values "A" and "AX". I'd like to define the prototype function INSIDE of the class definition. Is there anything wrong with doing something like this? function Container(param) { this.member = param; if (!Container.prototype.stamp) { Container.prototype.stamp = function() { return this.member + string; } } } I was trying this so that I could access a private variable in the class. But I've discovered that if my prototype function references a private var, the value of the private var is always the value that was used when the prototype function was INITIALLY created, not the value in the object instance: Container = function(param) { this.member = param; var privateVar = param; if (!Container.prototype.stamp) { Container.prototype.stamp = function(string) { return privateVar + this.member + string; } } } var container1 = new Container('A'); var container2 = new Container('B'); alert(container1.stamp('X')); alert(container2.stamp('X')); This code produces two alerts with the values "AAX" and "ABX". I was hoping the output would be "AAX" and "BBX". I'm curious why this doesn't work, and if there is some other pattern that I could use instead.

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  • Cross browser's probelm to highlight option item as bold in form element "select".

    - by Vivek
    Hello All , I am facing one weird cross browsers problem i.e. I want to highlight some of the option items as bold by using CSS class in my form element "select". This all is working fine in firefox only but not in other browsers like safari , chrome and IE .Given below is the code. <html> <head> <title>MAke Heading Bold</title> <style type="text/css"> .mycss {font-weight:bold;} </style> </head> <body> <form name="myform"> <select name="myselect"> <option value="one">one</option> <option value="two" class="mycss">two</option> <option value="three" >Three </option> </select> </form> </body> </html> Please suggest me best possible solution for this . Thanks Vivek

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  • Delete throws "deleted object would be re-saved by cascade"

    - by Greg
    I have following model: <class name="Person" table="Person" optimistic-lock="version"> <id name="Id" type="Int32" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <!-- plus some properties here --> </class> <class name="Event" table="Event" optimistic-lock="version"> <id name="Id" type="Int32" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <!-- plus some properties here --> </class> <class name="PersonEventRegistration" table="PersonEventRegistration" optimistic-lock="version"> <id name="Id" type="Int32" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="IsComplete" type="Boolean" not-null="true" /> <property name="RegistrationDate" type="DateTime" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="Person" class="Person" column="PersonId" foreign-key="FK_PersonEvent_PersonId" cascade="all-delete-orphan" /> <many-to-one name="Event" class="Event" column="EventId" foreign-key="FK_PersonEvent_EventId" cascade="all-delete-orphan" /> </class> There are no properties pointing to PersonEventRegistration either in Person nor in Event. When I try to delete an entry from PersonEventRegistration, I get the following error: "deleted object would be re-saved by cascade" The problem is, I don't store this object in any other collection - the delete code looks like this: public bool UnregisterFromEvent(Person person, Event entry) { var registrationEntry = this.session .CreateCriteria<PersonEventRegistration>() .Add(Restrictions.Eq("Person", person)) .Add(Restrictions.Eq("Event", entry)) .Add(Restrictions.Eq("IsComplete", false)) .UniqueResult<PersonEventRegistration>(); bool result = false; if (null != registrationEntry) { using (ITransaction tx = this.session.BeginTransaction()) { this.session.Delete(registrationEntry); tx.Commit(); result = true; } } return result; } What am I doing wrong here?

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  • Hibernate: deletes not cascading for self-referencing entities

    - by jwaddell
    I have the following (simplified) Hibernate entities: @Entity @Table(name = "package") public abstract class Package { protected Content content; @ManyToOne(cascade = {javax.persistence.CascadeType.ALL}) @JoinColumn(name = "content_id") @Fetch(value = FetchMode.JOIN) public Content getContent() { return content; } public void setContent(Content content) { this.content = content; } } @Entity @Table(name = "content") public class Content { private Set<Content> subContents = new HashSet<Content>(); @ManyToMany(fetch = FetchType.EAGER) @JoinTable(name = "subcontents", joinColumns = {@JoinColumn(name = "content_id")}, inverseJoinColumns = {@JoinColumn(name = "elt")}) @Cascade(value = {org.hibernate.annotations.CascadeType.DELETE, org.hibernate.annotations.CascadeType.REPLICATE}) @Fetch(value = FetchMode.SUBSELECT) public Set<Content> getSubContents() { return subContents; } public void setSubContents(Set<Content> subContents) { this.subContents = subContents; } } So a Package has a Content, and a Content is self-referencing in that it has many sub-Contents (which may contain sub-Contents of their own etc). The relationships are required to be ManyToOne (Package to Content) and ManyToMany (Content to sub-Contents) but for the case I am currently testing each sub-Content only relates to one Package or Content. The problem is that when I delete a Package and flush the session, I get a Hibernate error stating that I'm violating a foreign key constraint on table subcontents, with a particular content_id still referenced from table subcontents. I've tried specifically (recursively) deleting the Contents before deleting the Package but I get the same error. Is there a reason why this entity tree is not being deleted properly?

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  • C# parameters by reference and .net garbage collection

    - by Yarko
    I have been trying to figure out the intricacies of the .NET garbage collection system and I have a question related to C# reference parameters. If I understand correctly, variables defined in a method are stored on the stack and are not affected by garbage collection. So, in this example: public class Test { public Test() { } public int DoIt() { int t = 7; Increment(ref t); return t; } private int Increment(ref int p) { p++; } } the return value of DoIt() will be 8. Since the location of t is on the stack, then that memory cannot be garbage collected or compacted and the reference variable in Increment() will always point to the proper contents of t. However, suppose we have: public class Test { private int t = 7; public Test() { } public int DoIt() { Increment(ref t); return t; } private int Increment(ref int p) { p++; } } Now, t is stored on the heap as it is a value of a specific instance of my class. Isn't this possibly a problem if I pass this value as a reference parameter? If I pass t as a reference parameter, p will point to the current location of t. However, if the garbage collector moves this object during a compact, won't that mess up the reference to t in Increment()? Or does the garbage collector update even references created by passing reference parameters? Do I have to worry about this at all? The only mention of worrying about memory being compacted on MSDN (that I can find) is in relation to passing managed references to unmanaged code. Hopefully that's because I don't have to worry about any managed references in managed code. :)

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  • ruby on rails-Problem with the selection form helper

    - by winter sun
    Hello I have a form in witch users can add their working hours view them and edit them (All in one page). When adding working hours the user must select a project from a dropdown list. In case the action is adding a new hour record the dropdown field should remain empty (not selected) in case the action is edit the dropdown field should be selected with the appropriate value. In order to overcome this challenge I wrote the following code <% if params[:id].blank?%> <select name="hour[project_id]" id="hour_project_id"> <option value="nil">Select Project</option> <% @projects.each do|project|%> <option value="<%=project.id %>"><%=project.name%></option> <% end%> </select> <% else %> <%= select('hour','project_id', @projects.collect{|project|[project.name,project.id]},{:prompt => 'Select Project'})%> <% end %> So in case of save action I did the dropdown list only with html, and in case of edit action I did it with the collect method. It works fine until I tried to code the errors. The problem is that when I use the error method: validates_presence_of :project_id it didn't recognize it in the html form of the dropdown list and don’t display the error message (its working only for the dropdown with the collect method). I will deeply appreciate your instructions and help in this matter

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  • Increment non unique field during SQL insert

    - by phill
    I'm not sure how to word this cause I am a little confused at the moment, so bare with me while I attempt to explain, I have a table with the following fields: OrderLineID, OrderID, OrderLine, and a few other unimportant ones. OrderLineID is the primary key and is always unique(which isn't a problem), OrderID is a foreign key that isn't unique(also not a problem), and OrderLine is a value that is not unique in the table, but should be unique for any OrderIDs that are the same...so if that didn't make sense, perhaps a picture OrderLineID, OrderID, OrderLine 1 1 1 2 1 2 3 1 3 4 2 1 5 2 2 For all OrderIDs there is a unique OrderLine. I am trying to create an insert statement that gets the max OrderLine value for a specific OrderId so I can increment it, but it's not working so well and I could use a little help. What I have right now is below, I build the sql statement in a program and replace OrderID # with an actual value. I am pretty sure the problem is with the nested select statement, and incrementing the result, but I can't find any examples that do this since my google skills are weak apparently.... INSERT INTO tblOrderLine (OrderID, OrderLine) VALUES (<OrderID #>, (SELECT MAX(OrderLine) FROM tblOrderLine WHERE orderID = <same OrderID #>)+1) any help would be nice.

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  • How can I SETF an element in a tree by an accessor?

    - by Willi Ballenthin
    We've been using Lisp in my AI course. The assignments I've received have involved searching and generating tree-like structures. For each assignment, I've ended up writing something like: (defun initial-state () (list 0 ; score nil ; children 0 ; value 0)) ; something else and building my functions around these "states", which are really just nested lists with some loosely defined structure. To make the structure more rigid, I've tried to write accessors, such as: (defun state-score ( state ) (nth 2 state)) This works for reading the value (which should be all I need to do in a nicely functional world. However, as time crunches, and I start to madly hack, sometimes I want a mutable structure). I don't seem to be able to SETF the returned ...thing (place? value? pointer?). I get an error with something like: (setf (state-score *state*) 10) Sometimes I seem to have a little more luck writing the accessor/mutator as a macro: (defmacro state-score ( state ) `(nth 2 ,state)) However I don't know why this should be a macro, so I certainly shouldn't write it as a macro (except that sometimes it works. Programming by coincidence is bad). What is an appropriate strategy to build up such structures? More importantly, where can I learn about whats going on here (what operations affect the memory in what way)?

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