Search Results

Search found 15081 results on 604 pages for 'passing by reference'.

Page 525/604 | < Previous Page | 521 522 523 524 525 526 527 528 529 530 531 532  | Next Page >

  • Meaning of NEXT in Linked List creation in perl

    - by seleniumnewbie
    So I am trying to learn Linked Lists using Perl. I am reading "Mastering Algorithms with Perl" by Job Orwant. In the book he explains how to create a linked list I understand most of it, but I just simply fail to understand the command/index/key NEXT in the second last line of the code snippet. $list=undef; $tail=\$list; foreach (1..5){ my $node = [undef, $_ * $_]; $$tail = $node; $tail = \${$node->[NEXT]}; # The NEXT on this line? } What is he trying to do there? Isn $node a scalar, which stores the address of the unnamed array. Also even if we are de-referencing $node, should we not refer to the individual elements by an index number example (0,1). If we do use "NEXT" as a key, is $node a reference to a hash? I am very confused. Something in plain English will be highly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • C++ universal data type

    - by Gokul
    I have a universal data type, which is passed by value, but does not maintain the type information. We store only pointers and basic data types(like int, float etc) inside this. Now for the first time, we need to store std::string inside this. So we decided to convert it into std::string* and store it. Then comes the problem of destruction. We don't like to copy the std::string every time. So i am thinking of an approach like this. Say the data type looks like this class Atom { public : enum flags { IS_STRING, IS_EMPTY, HAS_GOT_COPIED, MARKER }; private: void* m_value; std::bitset<MARKER> m_flags; public: ..... Atom( Atom& atm ) { atm.m_flags.set( HAS_GOT_COPIED ); ..... } ..... ~Atom() { if( m_flags.test(IS_STRING) && !m_flags.test(HAS_GOT_COPIED) ) { std::string* val = static_cast<std::string*>(m_value); delete val; } } }; Is this a good approach to find out whether there is no more reference to std::string*? Any comments.. Thanks, Gokul.

    Read the article

  • Page Entirely Blank Despite Having Source Code! (TinyMCE, FireFox)

    - by Chris Cooper
    Alright guys, here's a tough one... In reference to this page. The page will seemingly randomly not display the output of server when using Firefox (version 3.5). I have not seen this problem occur in Safari or IE. The best way to have the problem occur is just reload the page about 10 times and it ought to have happened by then, and once it does - it'll continue on subsequent refreshes until you change the page. The problem is literally the browser not displaying the output (code). Viewing the source shows all the appropriate code yet the browser displays a blank white page. The web developer and firebug plugins don't show any errors that would indicate the problem. I have tested this on a separate system and OS and it occurs in Firefox on that system as well. The problem did not occur until after TinyMCE (A Rich Text Editor JavaScript library for textareas) was added to the project. TinyMCE works however, where it should. I know this is a confusing problem, but I am completely lost as to what could be causing this significant issue. Thanks in advance. EDIT: If it's any help... I've noticed that if I cause a css file error by changing a stylesheet source to something non-existant (xxx.css), the page will continuously display without a problem (besides whatever related css not showing due to the src change). I've also noticed that causing any simple javascript error with some bad code will cause the page to load properly continuously (besides of course javascript not running on the page). EDIT#2: Moving all <script> tags down at the tail of the <body> 'fixes' (well, hides) this error and the page shows normally. A band-aid.

    Read the article

  • Sys. engineer has decided to dynamically transform all XSLs into DLLs on website build process. DLL

    - by John Sullivan
    Hello, OS: Win XP. Here is my situation. I have a browser based application. It is "wrapped" in a Visual Basic application. Our "Systems Engineer Senior" has decided to spawn DLL files from all of our XSL pages (many of which have duplicate names) upon building a new instance of the website and have the active server pages (ASPX) use the DLL instead. This has created a "known issue" in which ~200 DLL naming conflicts occur and, thus, half of our application is broken. I think a solution to this problem is that, thankfully, we're generating the names of the DLLs and linking them up with our application dynamically. Therefore we can do something kludgy like generate a hash and append it to the end of the DLL file name when we build our website, then always reference the DLL that had some kind of random string / hash appended to its name. Aside from outright renaming the DLLs, is there another way to have multiple DLLs with the same name register for one application? I think the answer is "No, only between different applications using a special technique." Please confirm. Another question I have on my mind is whether this whole idea is a good practice -- converting our XSL pages (which we use in mass -- every time a response from our web app occurs) into DLL functions that call a "function" to do what the XSL page did via an active server page (ASPX), when we were before just sending an XML response to an XSL page via aspx.

    Read the article

  • How do I delete duplicates between two excel sheets quickly vba

    - by MainTank
    I am using vba and I have two sheets one is named "Do Not Call" and has about 800,000 rows of data in column A. I want to use this data to check column I in the second sheet, named "Sheet1". If it finds a match I want it to delete the whole row in "Sheet1". I have tailored the code I have found from a similar question here: Excel formula to Cross reference 2 sheets, remove duplicates from one sheet and ran it but nothing happens. I am not getting any errors but it is not functioning. Here is the code I am currently trying and have no idea why it is not working Option Explicit Sub CleanDupes() Dim wsA As Worksheet Dim wsB As Worksheet Dim keyColA As String Dim keyColB As String Dim rngA As Range Dim rngB As Range Dim intRowCounterA As Integer Dim intRowCounterB As Integer Dim strValueA As String keyColA = "A" keyColB = "I" intRowCounterA = 1 intRowCounterB = 1 Set wsA = Worksheets("Do Not Call") Set wsB = Worksheets("Sheet1") Dim dict As Object Set dict = CreateObject("Scripting.Dictionary") Do While Not IsEmpty(wsA.Range(keyColA & intRowCounterA).Value) Set rngA = wsA.Range(keyColA & intRowCounterA) strValueA = rngA.Value If Not dict.Exists(strValueA) Then dict.Add strValueA, 1 End If intRowCounterA = intRowCounterA + 1 Loop intRowCounterB = 1 Do While Not IsEmpty(wsB.Range(keyColB & intRowCounterB).Value) Set rngB = wsB.Range(keyColB & intRowCounterB) If dict.Exists(rngB.Value) Then wsB.Rows(intRowCounterB).delete intRowCounterB = intRowCounterB - 1 End If intRowCounterB = intRowCounterB + 1 Loop End Sub I apologize if the above code is not in a code tag. This is my first time posting code online and I have no idea if I did it correctly.

    Read the article

  • Web service failing when installed in seperate project from the website...

    - by Adam
    I am totally new to web services and cannot get mine to work. My setup is on VS 2008 using IIS. I have one solution file with 3 projects in it: website, code, and services. If I put my webservice into my website and call it locally then it will work fine (it's just a hello world web service). I want to put the service into a different location for use from multiple sites. I don't know what I'm doing wrong - i've read so much conflicting info regarding disco files, access files, silverlight, flash, java, etc. I just looking for quick simple steps to create a web service that I can access from javascript and deploy to a seperate website. End goal is to have functionality in webservices so that website will call via JS and run much smoother in the loading time and async calls. Do I need to create a disco file? Do I need to configure security? -- I know this is prob best, i'm just looking to get it working at all. Do I need to allow cross browser access on IIS or on my hosted server? Are there any quick reference websites that you can recommend? Should I be using WCF as new technology? - I saw this on MSDN but seems to be more for windows apps then web apps. I'm not getting any specific error codes. I have installed the firefox debugging tools (firebug) and I can see what the headers are but I don't know how to interpret them and there is no response being passed back. Any help is appreciated!!!

    Read the article

  • How to structure code with 2 methods, one after another, which throw the same two exceptions?

    - by dotnetdev
    Hi, I have two methods, one called straight after another, which both throw the exact same 2 exceptions (IF an erroneous condition occurs, not stating that I'm getting exceptions). For this, should I write seperate try and catch blocks with the one statement in each try block and catch both exceptions (Both of which I can handle as I checked MSDN class library reference and there is something I can do, eg, re-open SqlConnection or run a query and not a stored proc which does not exist). So code like this: try { obj.Open(); } catch (SqlException) { // Take action here. } catch (InvalidOperationException) { // Take action here. } And likewise for the other method I call straight after. This seems like a very messy way of coding. The other way is to code with the exception variable (that is ommited as I am using AOP to log the exception details, using a class-level attribute). Doing this, this could aid me in finding out which method caused an exception and then taking action accordingly. Is this the best approach or is there another best practise altogether? I also assume that, as only these two methods are thrown, I do not need to catch Exception as that would be for an exception I cannot handle (causes way out of my control). Thanks

    Read the article

  • i not find how in powershell pass through http autentification then use a webservices (lotus/domino)

    - by user1716616
    We have here a domino/lotus webservices i want use with powershell. probleme is in front of webservices lotus admin ask a http autentification. how i can use this webservice?? here what i tryed first scrap the first page and get cookie. $url = "http://xxxxxxx/names.nsf?Login" $CookieContainer = New-Object System.Net.CookieContainer $postData = "Username=web.services&Password=jesuisunestar" $buffer = [text.encoding]::ascii.getbytes($postData) [net.httpWebRequest] $req = [net.webRequest]::create($url) $req.method = "POST" $req.Accept = "text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8" $req.Headers.Add("Accept-Language: en-US") $req.Headers.Add("Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate") $req.Headers.Add("Accept-Charset: ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7") $req.AllowAutoRedirect = $false $req.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded" $req.ContentLength = $buffer.length $req.TimeOut = 50000 $req.KeepAlive = $true $req.Headers.Add("Keep-Alive: 300"); $req.CookieContainer = $CookieContainer $reqst = $req.getRequestStream() $reqst.write($buffer, 0, $buffer.length) $reqst.flush() $reqst.close() [net.httpWebResponse] $res = $req.getResponse() $resst = $res.getResponseStream() $sr = new-object IO.StreamReader($resst) $result = $sr.ReadToEnd() this seem work but now no idea how i can use cookie with a webservicesproxy??? ps: i success have this to work with c# + visualstudio (just the class reference is autobuilt and i don't understand half of this but it allow me to use .CookieContenaire on the generated webservice )

    Read the article

  • What am I doing wrong with SVN merging?

    - by randomusername
    When SVN with merge tracking works, it's really nice, I love it. But it keeps getting twisted up. We are using TortoiseSVN. We continuously get the following message: Error: Reintegrate can only be used if revisions 1234 through 2345 were previously merged from /Trunk to the reintegrate source, but this is not the case For reference, this is the method we are using: Create a Branch Develop in the branch Occasionally Merge a range of revisions from the Trunk to the Branch When branch is stable, Reintegrate a branch from the branch to the trunk Delete the branch I Merge a range of revisions from the trunk to the branch (leaving the range blank, so it should be all revisions) just prior to the reintegrate operation, so the branch should be properly synced with the trunk. Right now, the Trunk has multiple SVN merge tracking properties associated with it. Should it? Or should a Reintegrate not add any merge tracking info? Is there something wrong with our process? This is making SVN unusable - 1 out of every 3 reintegrates forces me to dive in and hack at the merge tracking info.

    Read the article

  • Doctrine YAML not generating correctly? Or is this markup wrong?

    - by ropstah
    I'm trying to get a many-to-many relationship between Users and Settings. The models seem to be generated correctly, however the following query fails: "User_Setting" with an alias of "us" in your query does not reference the parent component it is related to. $q = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $q->select('{s.*}, {us.*}') ->from('User u CROSS JOIN Setting s LEFT JOIN User_Setting us ON us.usr_auto_key = u.usr_auto_key AND us.set_auto_key = s.set_auto_key') ->addComponent('s', 'Setting s INDEXBY s.set_auto_key') ->addComponent('us', 'User_Setting us') ->where(u.usr_auto_key = ?',$this->usr_auto_key); $this->settings = $q->execute(); Does anyone spot a problem? This is my YAML: User: connection: default tableName: User columns: usr_auto_key: type: integer(4) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: true autoincrement: true notnull: true email: type: string(100) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: false default: '' notnull: true autoincrement: false password: type: string(32) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: false default: '' notnull: true autoincrement: false relations: Setting: class: Setting foreignAlias: User refClass: User_Setting local: usr_auto_key foreign: set_auto_key Setting: connection: default tableName: Setting columns: set_auto_key: type: integer(4) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: true autoincrement: true notnull: true name: type: string(50) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: false notnull: true autoincrement: false User_Setting: connection: default tableName: User_Setting columns: usr_auto_key: type: integer(4) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: true autoincrement: false notnull: true set_auto_key: type: integer(4) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: true autoincrement: false notnull: true value: type: string(255) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: false notnull: true autoincrement: false relations: Setting: foreignAlias: User_Setting local: set_auto_key foreign: set_auto_key User: foreignAlias: User_Setting local: usr_auto_key foreign: usr_auto_key

    Read the article

  • Detecting what the target object is when NullReferenceException is thrown.

    - by StingyJack
    I'm sure we all have received the wonderfully vague "Object reference not set to instance of an Object" exception at some time or another. Identifying the object that is the problem is often a tedious task of setting breakpoints and inspecting all members in each statement. Does anyone have any tricks to easily and efficiently identify the object that causes the exception, either via programmatical means or otherwise? --edit It seems I was vague like the exception =). The point is to _not have to debug the app to find the errant object. The compiler/runtime does know that the object has been allocated, and that the object has not yet been instantiated. Is there a way to extract / identify those details in a caught exception @ W. Craig Trader Your explanation that it is a result of a design problem is probably the best answer I could get. I am fairly compulsive with defensive coding and have managed to get rid of most of these errors after fixing my habits over time. The remaining ones just tweak me to no end, and lead me to posting this question to the community. Thanks for everyone's suggestions.

    Read the article

  • NHibernate Entity code conversion from #C to VB.Net

    - by CoderRoller
    Hello and thanks for your help in advance. I am starting on the NHibernate world and i am experimenting with the NHibernate CookBook recipes, i am trying to set a base entity class for my entities and this is the C# code for this. I would like to know whats the VB.NET version so i can implement it in my sample project. This is the C# code: public abstract class Entity<TId> { public virtual TId Id { get; protected set; } public override bool Equals(object obj) { return Equals(obj as Entity<TId>); } private static bool IsTransient(Entity<TId> obj) { return obj != null && Equals(obj.Id, default(TId)); } private Type GetUnproxiedType() { return GetType(); } public virtual bool Equals(Entity<TId> other) { if (other == null) return false; if (ReferenceEquals(this, other)) return true; if (!IsTransient(this) && !IsTransient(other) && Equals(Id, other.Id)) { var otherType = other.GetUnproxiedType(); var thisType = GetUnproxiedType(); return thisType.IsAssignableFrom(otherType) || otherType.IsAssignableFrom(thisType); } return false; } public override int GetHashCode() { if (Equals(Id, default(TId))) return base.GetHashCode(); return Id.GetHashCode(); } } I tried using an online converter but puts a Nothing reference in place of default(TId) that doesn't seem right to me that's why I request for help: Private Shared Function IsTransient(obj As Entity(Of TId)) As Boolean Return obj IsNot Nothing AndAlso Equals(obj.Id, Nothing) End Function I Would appreciate the insight you may give me on the subject.

    Read the article

  • Can a member struct be zero-init from the constructor initializer list without calling memset?

    - by selbie
    Let's say I have the following structure declaration (simple struct with no constructor). struct Foo { int x; int y; int z; char szData[DATA_SIZE]; }; Now let's say this struct is a member of a C++ class as follows: class CFoobar { Foo _foo; public: CFoobar(); }; If I declare CFoobar's constructor as follows: CFoobar::CFoobar() { printf("_foo = {%d, %d, %d}\n", _foo.x, _foo.y,_foo.z); for (int x = 0; x < 100; x++) printf("%d\n", _foo.szData[x]); } As you would expect, when CFoobar's constructor runs, garbage data gets printed out Obviously, the easy fix is to memset or ZeroMemory &_foo. It's what I've always done... However, I did notice that if add _foo to the constructor's initialization list with no parameters as follows: CFoobar::CFoobar() : _foo() { That this appears to zero-out the member variables of _foo. At least that was the case with g++ on linux. Now here's my question: Is this standard C++, or is this compiler specific behavior? If it's standard behavior, can someone quote me a reference from an official source? Any "gotchas" in regards to implicit zero-init behavior with more complicated structs and classes?

    Read the article

  • Need help optimizing this Django aggregate query

    - by Chris Lawlor
    I have the following model class Plugin(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=50) # more fields which represents a plugin that can be downloaded from my site. To track downloads, I have class Download(models.Model): plugin = models.ForiegnKey(Plugin) timestamp = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True) So to build a view showing plugins sorted by downloads, I have the following query: # pbd is plugins by download - commented here to prevent scrolling pbd = Plugin.objects.annotate(dl_total=Count('download')).order_by('-dl_total') Which works, but is very slow. With only 1,000 plugins, the avg. response is 3.6 - 3.9 seconds (devserver with local PostgreSQL db), where a similar view with a much simpler query (sorting by plugin release date) takes 160 ms or so. I'm looking for suggestions on how to optimize this query. I'd really prefer that the query return Plugin objects (as opposed to using values) since I'm sharing the same template for the other views (Plugins by rating, Plugins by release date, etc.), so the template is expecting Plugin objects - plus I'm not sure how I would get things like the absolute_url without a reference to the plugin object. Or, is my whole approach doomed to failure? Is there a better way to track downloads? I ultimately want to provide users some nice download statistics for the plugins they've uploaded - like downloads per day/week/month. Will I have to calculate and cache Downloads at some point? EDIT: In my test dataset, there are somewhere between 10-20 Download instances per Plugin - in production I expect this number would be much higher for many of the plugins.

    Read the article

  • C: writing the following code into functions

    - by donok
    Dear respected programmers. Please could you help me (again) on how to put the following code into functions for my program. I have read on-line and understand how functions work but when I do it myself it all goes pear shaped/wrong(I am such a noob). Please could you help with how to for example to write the code below into functions.(like opening the input file). My attempt: void outputFile(int argc, char **argv) { /* Check that the output file doesnt exist */ if (stat(argv[argc-1], &inode) != -1) { printf("Warning: The file %s already exists. Not going to overwrite\n", argv[argc-1]); return -1; } /*Opening ouput files*/ file_desc_out = open(argv[i],O_CREAT | O_WRONLY | O_EXCL , S_IRUSR|S_IWUSR); if(file_desc_out == -1) { printf("Error: %s cannot be opened. \n",argv[i]); //insted of argv[2] have pointer i. return -1; } } Any help on how I would now reference to this in my program is appreciated thank you. I tried: ouputfile(but I cant figure out what goes here and why either).

    Read the article

  • Is False == 0 and True == 1 in Python an implementation detail or guaranteed by the language?

    - by EOL
    Is it guaranteed that False == 0 and True == 1, in Python? For instance, is it in any way guaranteed that the following code will always produce the same results, whatever the version of Python (existing and in the foreseeable future)? 0 == False # True 1 == True # True ['zero', 'one'][False] # is 'zero' Any reference to the official documentation would be much appreciated! Other comments would be appreciated too… :) Edit: As noted in many answers, bool inherits from int. The question can therefore be recast as: "Is this an implementation detail that might change in the future, or does the documentation officially say that programmers can rely on booleans inheriting from integers?". This question is relevant for writing robust code that won't fail because of implementation details! Edit 2: The original question is still open, I believe (even though I accepted what I thought was the closest answer): even though Python 3 officially recognizes booleans as integers, I have not yet seen any official integer values for False and True… It therefore looks to me like it is best to stay clear from the assumption that False==0 and True==1.

    Read the article

  • Finding out inside which iframe a script is executing

    - by juandopazo
    I have a page with several iframes. One of this iframes has a page from a different domain. Inside this iframe there's another iframe with a page from the parent domain. my page from mydomain.com -> an iframe -> iframe "#foo" from another-domain.com> -> iframe "#bar" from mydomain.com -> another iframe I need to get a reference to the "#foo" node inside the main page. The security model should allow me to do that because "#bar" has the same domain as the main page. So what I'm doing is iterating through the window.top array and comparing each element to the window object which is currently the "#bar" window object. My test code looks like: for (var i = 0; i < top.length; i++) { for (var j = 0; j < top[i].length; j++) { if (top[i][j] == window) { alert("The iframe number " + i + " contains me"); } } } This works fine in all browsers, but Internet Explorer 6 throws a security error when accesing top[i][j]. Any ideas on how to solve this on IE6? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • fluent nhibernate - storing and retrieving three classes in/from one table

    - by Will I Am
    Noob question. I have this situation where I have these objects: class Address { string Street; string City; ... } class User { string UserID; Address BillingAddress; Address MailingAddress; ... } What is the proper way of storing this data using (fluent) nHibernate? I could use a separate Address table and create a reference, but they are 1:1 relationships so I don't really want to incur the overhead of a join. Ideally I would store this as a single flat record. So, my question is, what is the proper way of storing an instance of class 'User' in such a way that it stores its contents and also the two addresses as a single record? My knowledge is failing me on how I can store this information in such a way that the two Address records get different column names (e.g. BillingAddress_Street and MailingAddress_Street, for example), and also how to read a record back into a User instance.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to aggregate over differing where clauses?

    - by BenAlabaster
    Is it possible to calculate multiple aggregates based on differing where clauses? For instance: Let's say I have two tables, one for Invoice and one for InvoiceLineItems. The invoice table has a total field for the invoice total, and each of the invoice line item records in the InvoiceLineItems table contains a field that denotes whether the line item is discountable or not. I want three sum totals, one where Discountable = 0 and one where Discountable = 1 and one where Discountable is irrelevant. Such that my output would be: InvoiceNumber Total DiscountableTotal NonDiscountableTotal ------------- ----- ----------------- -------------------- 1 53.27 27.27 16.00 2 38.94 4.76 34.18 3... The only way I've found so far is by using something like: Select i.InvoiceNumber, i.Total, t0.Total As DiscountableTotal, t1.Total As NonDiscountableTotal From Invoices i Left Join ( Select InvoiceNumber, Sum(Amount), From InvoiceLineItems Where Discountable = 0 Group By InvoiceNumber ) As t0 On i.InvoiceNumber = t0.InvoiceNumber Left Join ( Select InvoiceNumber, Sum(Amount) From InvoiceLineItems Where Discountable = 1 Group By InvoiceNumber ) As t1 On i.InvoiceNumber = t1.InvoiceNumber This seems somewhat cumbersome, it would be nice if I could do something like: Select InvoiceNumber, Sum(Amount) Where Discountable = 1 As Discountable Sum(Amount) Where Discountable = 0 As NonDiscountable Group By InvoiceNumber I realize that SQL is completely invalid, but it logically portrays what I'm trying to do... TIA P.S. I need this to run on a SQL Server 2000 instance, but I am also interested (for future reference) if/how I would achieve this on SQL Server 2005/2008.

    Read the article

  • Database PK-FK design for future-effective-date entries?

    - by Scott Balmos
    Ultimately I'm going to convert this into a Hibernate/JPA design. But I wanted to start out from purely a database perspective. We have various tables containing data that is future-effective-dated. Take an employee table with the following pseudo-definition: employee id INT AUTO_INCREMENT ... data fields ... effectiveFrom DATE effectiveTo DATE employee_reviews id INT AUTO_INCREMENT employee_id INT FK employee.id Very simplistic. But let's say Employee A has id = 1, effectiveFrom = 1/1/2011, effectiveTo = 1/1/2099. That employee is going to be changing jobs in the future, which would in theory create a new row, id = 2 with effectiveFrom = 7/1/2011, effectiveTo = 1/1/2099, and id = 1's effectiveTo updated to 6/30/2011. But now, my program would have to go through any table that has a FK relationship to employee every night, and update those FK to reference the newly-effective employee entry. I have seen various postings in both pure SQL and Hibernate forums that I should have a separate employee_versions table, which is where I would have all effective-dated data stored, resulting in the updated pseudo-definition below: employee id INT AUTO_INCREMENT employee_versions id INT AUTO_INCREMENT employee_id INT FK employee.id ... data fields ... effectiveFrom DATE effectiveTo DATE employee_reviews id INT AUTO_INCREMENT employee_id INT FK employee.id Then to get any actual data, one would have to actually select from employee_versions with the proper employee_id and date range. This feels rather unnatural to have this secondary "versions" table for each versioned entity. Anyone have any opinions, suggestions from your own prior work, etc? Like I said, I'm taking this purely from a general SQL design standpoint first before layering in Hibernate on top. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to make 2 incompatible types, but with the same members, interchangeable?

    - by Quigrim
    Yesterday 2 of the guys on our team came to me with an uncommon problem. We are using a third-party component in one of our winforms applications. All the code has already been written against it. They then wanted to incorporate another third-party component, by the same vender, into our application. To their delight they found that the second component had the exact same public members as the first. But to their dismay, the 2 components have completely separate inheritance hierarchies, and implement no common interfaces. Makes you wonder... Well, makes me wonder. An example of the problem: public class ThirdPartyClass1 { public string Name { get { return "ThirdPartyClass1"; } } public void DoThirdPartyStuff () { Console.WriteLine ("ThirdPartyClass1 is doing its thing."); } } public class ThirdPartyClass2 { public string Name { get { return "ThirdPartyClass2"; } } public void DoThirdPartyStuff () { Console.WriteLine ("ThirdPartyClass2 is doing its thing."); } } Gladly they felt copying and pasting the code they wrote for the first component was not the correct answer. So they were thinking of assigning the component instant into an object reference and then modifying the code to do conditional casts after checking what type it was. But that is arguably even uglier than the copy and paste approach. So they then asked me if I can write some reflection code to access the properties and call the methods off the two different object types since we know what they are, and they are exactly the same. But my first thought was that there goes the elegance. I figure there has to be a better, graceful solution to this problem.

    Read the article

  • Localization of DisplayNameAttribute

    - by PowerKiKi
    Hi, I am looking for a way to localize properties names displayed in a PropertyGrid. The property's name may be "overriden" using the DisplayNameAttribute attribute. Unfortunately attributes can not have non constant expressions. So I can not use strongly typed resources such as: class Foo { [DisplayAttribute(Resources.MyPropertyNameLocalized)] // do not compile string MyProperty {get; set;} } I had a look around and found some suggestion to inherit from DisplayNameAttribute to be able to use resource. I would end up up with code like: class Foo { [MyLocalizedDisplayAttribute("MyPropertyNameLocalized")] // not strongly typed string MyProperty {get; set;} } However I lose strongly typed resource benefits which is definitely not a good thing. Then I came across DisplayNameResourceAttribute which may be what I'm looking for. But it's supposed to be in Microsoft.VisualStudio.Modeling.Design namespace and I can't find what reference I am supposed to add for this namespace. Anybody know if there's a easier way to achieve DisplayName localization in a good way ? or if there is as way to use what Microsoft seems to be using for Visual Studio ?

    Read the article

  • What's the best way to link formal specs to JIRA enchancement requests?

    - by Adam
    What's the best way to link formal specs to JIRA enhancement requests? I want to track changes to specifications using JIRA. Ideally, I'd like to refer to a functional ID reference in a JIRA ticket (e.g. MYAPPAPPROVAL LOGICMAIN SCREEN), so that program managers can retrospectively categorise defects. The reason for this, is so that QA scripts and documentation tickets can be searched/categorised meaningfully in the tracking system. There seems to be a million possible ways to do this, e.g. should I write a custom component to select functional IDs from a tree? should I write the specs in confluence, or another CMS with a TrackBack facility? should I include a link to the documentation URL? should I use some other 3rd party plugin application? should I use some Atlassian application that i'm unaware of? am I using the wrong tracking tool/process to measure spec growth? What's the best way, in your experience?

    Read the article

  • Static selection and Ruby on Rails objects

    - by Dave
    Hi all- I have a simple problem, but am having trouble wrapping my head around it. I have an video object that should have one or more "genres". This list of genres should be prepopulated and then the user should just select one or more using autocomplete or some such. Here is the question: Is it worth creating a table with genres for the static selection? Or should it just be included in the presentation layer? If there is a static table, how do we name it correctly. I envision something like this class Video < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :genres ... end class Genre < ... belongs_to :video ... end But then we get a table called genre, that basically maps all the selected genres to their parent videos. There would need to be some static table to reference the static genres. Is this the best way to do it? Sorry if this was rambl-y a little stream of conciousness. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Boost shared_ptr use_count function

    - by photo_tom
    My application problem is the following - I have a large structure foo. Because these are large and for memory management reasons, we do not wish to delete them when processing on the data is complete. We are storing them in std::vector<boost::shared_ptr<foo>>. My question is related to knowing when all processing is complete. First decision is that we do not want any of the other application code to mark a complete flag in the structure because there are multiple execution paths in the program and we cannot predict which one is the last. So in our implementation, once processing is complete, we delete all copies of boost::shared_ptr<foo>> except for the one in the vector. This will drop the reference counter in the shared_ptr to 1. Is it practical to use shared_ptr.use_count() to see if it is equal to 1 to know when all other parts of my app are done with the data. One additional reason I'm asking the question is that the boost documentation on the shared pointer shared_ptr recommends not using "use_count" for production code.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 521 522 523 524 525 526 527 528 529 530 531 532  | Next Page >