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  • Php JSON Response Array

    - by Nick Kl
    I have this php code. As you can see i query a mysql database through a function showallevents. I return a the $result to the $event variable. I try to return all rows of the data that i take with the msql_fetch_assoc. I don't get response even when i encode the $response variable. It returns null to all fields. Can anyone help me on what i am doing wrong. I had a valid code but it was returning only 1 row of data so i tried to make an associative array but seems i am failing. if ($tag == 'showallevents') { // Request type is show all events // show all events $event = $db->showallevents(); if ($event != false) { $data = array(); while($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($event)) { $data[] = array( $response["success"] = 1, $response["uid"] = $event["uid"], $response["event"]["date"] = $event["date"], $response["event"]["hours"] = $event["hours"], $response["event"]["store_name"] = $event["store_name"], $response["event"]["event_information"] = $event["event_information"], $response["event"]["event_type"] = $event["event_type"], $response["event"]["Phone"] = $event["Phone"], $response["event"]["address"] = $event["address"], $response["event"]["created_at"] = $event["created_at"], $response["event"]["updated_at"] = $event["updated_at"]); } echo json_encode($data); } else { // event not found // echo json with error = 1 $response["error"] = 1; $response["error_msg"] = "Events not found"; echo json_encode($response); } } else { echo "Access Denied"; } } ?>

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  • How can you ask a sensitive work question anonymously but still inform readers of your credibility a

    - by Rob
    I would like to request opinions about my career/situation at work with a software development project. I would like to ask anonymously or created a new stackoverflow.com account because I think I may be identified by co-workers at my employer since I have referred them to (non-sensititive) technical questions I have asked here. So they might know my account and be able to follow my activity. If I create a new account it will have no reputation and some readers may ignore it, for example, because they might think that the user only wishes to take ideas from here and not contribute, i.e. not a committed stackoverflow poster. What are your thoughts? (I do feel that it is appropriate to ask such pogramming career/situational questions here as many others have and there are some good questions -and answers and it seems that the stackoverflow community accepts such questions even thought the site's strict guidelines are for specific answers and not discussion, and non-subjective questions. And thank goodness that is the case - not all problems faced by programmers are about the craft but also the human factors around it - where else would folks go?)

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  • joomla and allow_url_fopen [closed]

    - by liz
    so i have been reading of the pros and cons of allowing: allow_url_fopen. but i am still confused. after a recent hacking incident (which i believe had nothing to do with allow_url_fopen) my host turned allow_url_fopen off. so the thing i dont get is, in joomla 2.5.x there is an updating feature.you can search for new versions and be notified if things are out of date. there is a big security hole if joomla or its extensions get out of date. But the catch it needs allow_url_fopen turned on. so why did joomla build a security risk into a feature to improve security??is it okay to turn allow_url_fopen on and have the updating feature? to clarify: my question is. i have Joomla installed. I have CURl installed. when i run the discover updates through NATIVE joomla i get a request for fopen. shouldn't i not need to enable a security risk? i am running version 2.5.8 of joomla.

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  • Group and sort blog posts by date in Rails

    - by Senthil
    I've searched all over web and have not found the answer. I'm trying to have a very standard archive option for my blog based on date. A request to url blog.com/archive/2009 shows all posts in 2009, blog.com/archive/2009/11 shows all posts in November 2009 etc. I found two different of code but not very helpful to me. def display_by_date year = params[:year] month = params[:month] day = params[:day] day = '0'+day if day && day.size == 1 @day = day if (year && month && day) render(:template => "blog/#{year}/#{month}/#{date}") elsif year render(:template => "blog/#{year}/list") end end def archive year = params[:year] month = params[:month] day = params[:day] day = '0'+day if day && day.size == 1 if (year && month && day) @posts_by_month = Blog.find(:all, :conditions => ["year is?", year]) else @posts_by_month = Blog.find(:all).group_by { |post| post.created_at.strftime("%B") } end end Any help is appreciated.

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  • Codeigniter achor producing dodgy link in email inbox.. what could the problem be?

    - by Psychonetics
    My application is emailing out fine but the email I receive displays incorrectly. Rather than have text and a simple "click here to activate" link it doesn't. it shows this instead: Hi user1, please click the following link to activate your account <a href="http://mysite.com/activation/fzyZuyxVAzZS2koVg5UFjfVjlcLNcrzp">ssss</a> Here is the code from my model that sends email to user when they request activation email. $this->load->library('email'); $this->email->from('[email protected]', 'my site'); $this->email->to($result[0]->email); $this->email->subject('my site - Activate your account'); $this->email->message('Hi ' . $result[0]->first_name . ', please click the following link to activate your account ' . anchor('http://mysite.com/activation/' . $new_activation_code, 'click here to activate')); $this->email->send(); Also the mail always ends up in my spam folder.

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  • Cookie blocked/not saved in IFRAME in Internet Explorer

    - by Piskvor
    I have two websites, let's say they're example.com and anotherexample.net. On anotherexample.net/page.html, I have an IFRAME SRC="http://example.com/someform.asp". That IFRAME displays a form for the user to fill out and submit to http://example.com/process.asp. When I open the form ("someform.asp") in its own browser window, all works well. However, when I load someform.asp as an IFRAME in IE 6 or IE 7, the cookies for example.com are not saved. In Firefox this problem doesn't appear. For testing purposes, I've created a similar setup on http://newmoon.wz.cz/test/page.php . example.com uses cookie-based sessions (and there's nothing I can do about that), so without cookies, process.asp won't execute. How do I force IE to save those cookies? Results of sniffing the HTTP traffic: on GET /someform.asp response, there's a valid per-session Set-Cookie header (e.g. Set-Cookie: ASPKSJIUIUGF=JKHJUHVGFYTTYFY), but on POST /process.asp request, there is no Cookie header at all. Edit3: some AJAX+serverside scripting is apparently capable to sidestep the problem, but that looks very much like a bug, plus it opens a whole new set of security holes. I don't want my applications to use a combination of bug+security hole just because it's easy. Edit: the P3P policy was the root cause, full explanation below.

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  • Java Executor: Small tasks or big ones?

    - by Arash Shahkar
    Consider one big task which could be broken into hundreds of small, independently-runnable tasks. To be more specific, each small task is to send a light network request and decide upon the answer received from the server. These small tasks are not expected to take longer than a second, and involve a few servers in total. I have in mind two approaches to implement this using the Executor framework, and I want to know which one's better and why. Create a few, say 5 to 10 tasks each involving doing a bunch of send and receives. Create a single task (Callable or Runnable) for each send & receive and schedule all of them (hundreds) to be run by the executor. I'm sorry if my question shows that I'm lazy to test these and see for myself what's better (at least performance-wise). My question, while looking after an answer to this specific case, has a more general aspect. In situations like these when you want to use an executor to do all the scheduling and other stuff, is it better to create lots of small tasks or to group those into a less number of bigger tasks?

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  • Use PermGen space or roll-my-own intern method?

    - by Adamski
    I am writing a Codec to process messages sent over TCP using a bespoke wire protocol. During the decode process I create a number of Strings, BigDecimals and dates. The client-server access patterns mean that it is common for the client to issue a request and then decode thousands of response messages, which results in a large number of duplicate Strings, BigDecimals, etc. Therefore I have created an InternPool<T> class allowing me to intern each class of object. Internally, the pool uses a WeakHashMap<T, WeakReferemce<T>>. For example: InternPool<BigDecimal> pool = new InternPool<BigDecimal>(); ... // Read BigDecimal from in buffer and then intern. BigDecimal quantity = pool.intern(readBigDecimal(in)); My question: I am using InternPool for BigDecimal but should I consider also using it for String instead of String's intern() method, which I believe uses PermGen space? What is the advantage of using PermGen space?

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  • JSF2.0: variable list of custom component

    - by rattaman
    Hello Is there any way of using JSF2.0 in connection with variable lists of components? For example, lets say I have list o people that I would like to edit. They are presented on the page as list of components PersonEditor, which allow changing person data. Each editor is associated with single Person element. In order for this to work I need to perform following steps: On initial request: Get list of people For each person create PersonEditor and associate it with Person object. Fill editor's data. On user action: When user changes values and presses Save, data is processed by backing bean. I can either fill editor with data from list of people or bind it to the backing bean, but not at the same time, so I am stuck. I tried people.xhtml <ui:render value="#{bean.people}" var="person"> <example:personEditor person="#{person}"/> </ui:render> where personEditor.xhtml: a) proper association with person object, but no connection to backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{cc.attr.person.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> b) no association with person object, but there is connection to backing bean - there is no way to pass that person to the backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{editorBean.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> If I had each editor on separate page, I could pass the person id as url parameter (either using f:param or f:attribute) and initialize it accordingly. Is there any solution to this problem?

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  • Linq2Sql: query - subquery optimisation

    - by Budda
    I have the following query: IList<InfrStadium> stadiums = (from sector in DbContext.sectors where sector.Type=typeValue select new InfrStadium(sector.TeamId) ).ToList(); and InfrStadium class constructor: private InfrStadium(int teamId) { IList<Sector> teamSectors = (from sector in DbContext.sectors where sector.TeamId==teamId select sector) .ToList<>(); ... work with data } Current implementation perform 1+n queries, where n - number of records fetched the 1st time. I want to optimize that. And another one I would love to do using 'group' operator in way like this: IList<InfrStadium> stadiums = (from sector in DbContext.sectors group sector by sector.TeamId into team_sectors select new InfrStadium(team_sectors.Key, team_sectors) ).ToList(); with appropriate constructor: private InfrStadium(int iTeamId, IEnumerable<InfrStadiumSector> eSectors) { IList<Sector> teamSectors = eSectors.ToList(); ... work with data } But attempt to launch query causes the following error: Expression of type 'System.Int32' cannot be used for constructor parameter of type 'System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable`1[InfrStadiumSector]' Question 1: Could you please explain, what is wrong here, I don't understand why 'team_sectors' is applied as 'System.Int32'? I've tried to change query a little (replace IEnumerable with IQueryeable): IList<InfrStadium> stadiums = (from sector in DbContext.sectors group sector by sector.TeamId into team_sectors select new InfrStadium(team_sectors.Key, team_sectors.AsQueryable()) ).ToList(); with appropriate constructor: private InfrStadium(int iTeamId, IQueryeable<InfrStadiumSector> eSectors) { IList<Sector> teamSectors = eSectors.ToList(); ... work with data } In this case I've received another but similar error: Expression of type 'System.Int32' cannot be used for parameter of type 'System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable1[InfrStadiumSector]' of method 'System.Linq.IQueryable1[InfrStadiumSector] AsQueryableInfrStadiumSector' Question 2: Actually, the same question: can't understand at all what is going on here... P.S. I have another to optimize query idea (describe here: Linq2Sql: query optimisation) but I would love to find a solution with 1 request to DB).

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  • Why Firebug pretends that my stylesheet is calling my xmlrpc ?

    - by Rebol Tutorial
    Firebug shows a request which causes a huge delay to http://reboltutorial.com/wp-content/themes/minaflow/none Details below but I don't understand why it says it comes from xmlrpc and the stylesheet: Date Sun, 04 Apr 2010 16:10:02 GMT Server Apache X-Powered-By PHP/5.2.13 X-Pingback http://reboltutorial.com/xmlrpc.php Expires Wed, 11 Jan 1984 05:00:00 GMT Cache-Control no-cache, must-revalidate, max-age=0 Pragma no-cache Set-Cookie wordpress_test_cookie=WP+Cookie+check; path=/; domain=.reboltutorial.com Last-Modified Sun, 04 Apr 2010 16:10:03 GMT Vary Accept-Encoding Content-Encoding gzip Keep-Alive timeout=2, max=94 Connection Keep-Alive Transfer-Encoding chunked Content-Type text/html; charset=UTF-8 Requêtemise en page impression GET /wp-content/themes/minaflow/none HTTP/1.1 Host: reboltutorial.com User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; fr; rv:1.9.2) Gecko/20100115 Firefox/3.6 Accept: image/png,image/*;q=0.8,*/*;q=0.5 Accept-Language: fr,fr-fr;q=0.8,en-us;q=0.5,en;q=0.3 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 115 Connection: keep-alive Referer: http://reboltutorial.com/wp-content/themes/minaflow/style.css Cookie: _csoot=1267966575980; _csuid=4b6f27395991a2ff; wp-settings-1=editor%3Dhtml%26align%3Dleft%26m0%3Do%26m1%3Do%26m2%3Do%26m3%3Dc%26m4%3Do%26m5%3Dc%26m6%3Do%26m7%3Do%26m8%3Dc%26m9%3Dc%26m10%3Dc%26m11%3Do%26m12%3Dc%26m13%3Dc%26m14%3Dc%26m15%3Dc; wp-settings-time-1=1270384700; subscribe_checkbox_=unchecked; PHPSESSID=o70hjpjf7uj2hb4doe4k0o5co5; wordpress_test_cookie=WP+Cookie+check; xumgeqhxmhohxipF=Erjixxeeskfgnlba; SJECT=CKON; wordpress_=admin%7C1271592539%7C392c555d9051c6fa184074d8441cc472; wordpress_logged_in_=admin%7C1271592539%7C0e7a92bda53cc2f5afc32962237a1037; rcBDvgtspmuEsyzp=rmqjtFbCfheGCjBw; prli_click_15=creatingstandard; prli_visitor=m7928r

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  • Run Javascript on the body of a Gmail message

    - by saturn
    I want to display LaTeX math in the gmail messages that I receive, so that for example $\mathbb P^2$ would show as a nice formula. Now, there are several Javascripts available (for example, this one, or MathJax which would do the job, I just need to call them at the right time to manipulate the gmail message. I know that this is possible to do in "basic HTML" and "print" views. Is it possible to do in the standard Gmail view? I tried to insert a call to the javascript right before the "canvas_frame" iframe, but that did not work. My suspicion is that manipulating a Gmail message by any Javascript would be a major security flaw (think of all the malicious links one could insert) and that Google does everything to prevent this. And so the answer to my question is probably 'no'. Am I right in this? Of course, it would be very easy for Google to implement viewing of LaTeX and MathML math simply by using MathJax on their servers. I made the corresponding Gmail Lab request, but no answer, and no interest from Google apparently. So, again: is this possible to do without Google's cooperation, on the client side?

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  • Is is possible to determine a password input string as plaintext or hashed?

    - by Godders
    I have a RESTful API containing a URI of /UserService/Register. /UserService/Register takes an XML request such as: <UserRegistrationRequest> <Password>password</Password> <Profile> <User> <UserName>username</UserName> </User> </Profile> </UserRegistrationRequest> I have the following questions given the above scenario: Is there a way (using C# and .Net 3.5+) of enforcing/validating that clients calling Register are passing a hashed password rather than plaintext? Is leaving the choice of hashing algorithm to be used to the client a good idea? We could provide a second URI of /UserService/ComputePasswordHash which the client would call before calling /UserService/Register. This has the benefit of ensuring that each password is hashed using the same algorithm. Is there a mechanism within REST to ensure that a client has called one URI before calling another? Hope I've explained myself ok. Many thanks in advance for any help.

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  • Gathering entropy in web apps to create (more) secure random numbers

    - by H M
    after several days of research and discussion i came up with this method to gather entropy from visitors (u can see the history of my research here) when a user visits i run this code: $entropy=sha1(microtime().$pepper.$_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR'].$_SERVER['REMOTE_PORT']. $_SERVER['HTTP_USER_AGENT'].serialize($_POST).serialize($_GET).serialize($_COOKIE)); note: pepper is a per site/setup random string set by hand. then i execute the following (My)SQL query: $query="update `crypto` set `value`=sha1(concat(`value`, '$entropy')) where name='entropy'"; that means we combine the entropy of the visitor's request with the others' gathered already. that's all. then when we want to generate random numbers we combine the gathered entropy with the output: $query="select `value` from `crypto` where `name`='entropy'"; //... extract(unpack('Nrandom', pack('H*', sha1(mt_rand(0, 0x7FFFFFFF).$entropy.microtime())))); note: the last line is a part of a modified version of the crypt_rand function of the phpseclib. please tell me your opinion about the scheme and other ideas/info regarding entropy gathering/random number generation. ps: i know about randomness sources like /dev/urandom. this system is just an auxiliary system or (when we don't have (access to) these sources) a fallback scheme.

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  • When is a method eligible to be inlined by the CLR?

    - by Ani
    I've observed a lot of "stack-introspective" code in applications, which often implicitly rely on their containing methods not being inlined for their correctness. Such methods commonly involve calls to: MethodBase.GetCurrentMethod Assembly.GetCallingAssembly Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly Now, I find the information surrounding these methods to be very confusing. I've heard that the run-time will not inline a method that calls GetCurrentMethod, but I can't find any documentation to that effect. I've seen posts on StackOverflow on several occasions, such as this one, indicating the CLR does not inline cross-assembly calls, but the GetCallingAssembly documentation strongly indicates otherwise. There's also the much-maligned [MethodImpl(MethodImpOptions.NoInlining)], but I am unsure if the CLR considers this to be a "request" or a "command." Note that I am asking about inlining eligibility from the standpoint of contract, not about when current implementations of the JITter decline to consider methods because of implementation difficulties, or about when the JITter finally ends up choosing to inline an eligible method after assessing the trade-offs. I have read this and this, but they seem to be more focused on the last two points (there are passing mentions of MethodImpOptions.NoInlining and "exotic IL instructions", but these seem to be presented as heuristics rather than as obligations). When is the CLR allowed to inline?

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  • ASP.NET MVC Form repopulation

    - by ListenToRick
    I have a controller with two actions: [AcceptVerbs("GET")] public ActionResult Add() { PrepareViewDataForAddAction(); return View(); } [AcceptVerbs("POST")] public ActionResult Add([GigBinderAttribute]Gig gig, FormCollection formCollection) { if (ViewData.ModelState.IsValid) { GigManager.Save(gig); return RedirectToAction("Index", gig.ID); } PrepareViewDataForAddAction(); return View(gig); } As you can see, when the form posts its data, the Add action uses a GigBinder (An implemenation of IModelBinder) In this binder I have: if (int.TryParse(bindingContext.HttpContext.Request.Form["StartDate.Hour"], out hour)) { gig.StartDate.Hour = hour; } else { bindingContext.ModelState.AddModelError("Doors", "You need to tell us when the doors open"); } The form contains a text box with id "StartDate.Hour". As you can see above, the GigBinder tests to see that the user has typed in an integer into the textbox with id "StartDate.Hour". If not, a model error is added to the modelstate using AddModelError. Since the gigs property gigs.StartDate.Hour is strongly typed, I cannot set its value to, for example, "TEST" if the user has typed this into the forms textbox. Hence, I cant set the value of gigs.StartDate.Hour since the user has entered a string rather than an integer. Since the Add Action returns the view and passes the model (return View(gig);) if the modelstate is invalid, when the form is re-displayed with validation mssages, the value "TEST" is not displayed in the textbox. Instead, it will be the default value of gig.StartDate.Hour. How do I get round this problem? I really stuck!

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  • Zend_Auth and database SaveHandler

    - by takeshin
    I have created Zend_Auth adapter implementing Zend_Auth_Adapter_Interface (similar to Pádraic's adapter) and created simple ACL plugin. Everything works fine with default session handler. So far, so good. As a next step I have created custom Session SaveHandler to persist session data in the database. My implementation is very similar to this one from parables-demo. Seems that everything is working fine. Session data are properly saved to the database, session objects are serialized, but authentication does not work when I enable this custom SaveHandler. I have debugged the authentication and all works fine up till the next request, when the authentication data are lost. I suspected, that is has something to do with the fact, that I use $adapter->write($object) instead $adapter->write($string), but the same happens with strings. I'm bootstrapping Zend_Application_Resource_Session in the first Bootstrap method, as early as possible. Does Zend_Auth need any extra configuration to persist data in the database? Why the authentity is being lost?

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  • Strange problems with the Spring RestTemplate in Android application

    - by HarryCater
    I begin to use RESTful api of the Spring Framework in my android client application. But I have encountered with problems when I tried to execute HTTP request via postForObject/postForEntity methods. Here is my code: public String _URL = "https://noticemed.com/app/mobile/login"; public void BeginAuthorization(View view) { HttpHeaders requestHeaders = new HttpHeaders(); requestHeaders.setContentType(MediaType.APPLICATION_JSON); HttpEntity<String> _entity = new HttpEntity<String>(requestHeaders); RestTemplate templ = new RestTemplate(); templ.setRequestFactory(new HttpComponentsClientHttpRequestFactory()); templ.getMessageConverters().add(new MappingJacksonHttpMessageConverter()); ResponseEntity<String> _response = templ.postForEntity(_URL,_entity,String.class); //HERE APP CRASHES String _body = _response.getBody(); And here is a stack trace in logcat after app crashing. As you see there is no definite error message. So the question what am I doing wrong? How to fix this? May there is other way to do it?I really need a help. Thanks in advance!

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  • Async task ASP.net HttpContext.Current.Items is empty - How do handle this?

    - by GuruC
    We are running a very large web application in asp.net MVC .NET 4.0. Recently we had an audit done and the performance team says that there were a lot of null reference exceptions. So I started investigating it from the dumps and event viewer. My understanding was as follows: We are using Asyn Tasks in our controllers. We rely on HttpContext.Current.Items hashtable to store a lot of Application level values. Task<Articles>.Factory.StartNew(() => { System.Web.HttpContext.Current = ControllerContext.HttpContext.ApplicationInstance.Context; var service = new ArticlesService(page); return service.GetArticles(); }).ContinueWith(t => SetResult(t, "articles")); So we are copying the context object onto the new thread that is spawned from Task factory. This context.Items is used again in the thread wherever necessary. Say for ex: public class SomeClass { internal static int StreamID { get { if (HttpContext.Current != null) { return (int)HttpContext.Current.Items["StreamID"]; } else { return DEFAULT_STREAM_ID; } } } This runs fine as long as number of parallel requests are optimal. My questions are as follows: 1. When the load is more and there are too many parallel requests, I notice that HttpContext.Current.Items is empty. I am not able to figure out a reason for this and this causes all the null reference exceptions. 2. How do we make sure it is not null ? Any workaround if present ? NOTE: I read through in StackOverflow and people have questions like HttpContext.Current is null - but in my case it is not null and its empty. I was reading one more article where the author says that sometimes request object is terminated and it may cause problems since dispose is already called on objects. I am doing a copy of Context object - its just a shallow copy and not a deep copy.

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  • javascript :Object doesn't support this property or method

    - by Kaushik
    In my jsp page, I have in the tag, the following code: <script type="text/javascript" src="<%=request.getContextPath()%>/static/js/common/common.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> // Function for Suppressing the JS Error function silentErrorHandler() {return true;} window.onerror=silentErrorHandler; </script> If there is some javascript executing on the jsp page after this, then I guess silentErrorHandler() will have no effect. i.e. the error will still show on page. IS this correct? Because the error is showing and am not sure why. The second part of the question is this: The error is Webpage error details User Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 6.1; Trident/4.0; SLCC2; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; .NET CLR 3.0.30729; Media Center PC 6.0; InfoPath.2; AskTbFXTV5/5.9.1.14019) Timestamp: Fri, 7 Jan 2011 21:26:23 UTC Message: Object doesn't support this property or method Line: 613 Char: 1 Code: 0 URI: http://localhost:9080/Claris/static/js/common/common.js And finally, line 613 states document.captureEvents(Event.MOUSEUP); There is error on IE8. Runs fine on Mozilla and IE7. Any suggestions will be very helpful

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  • Where to prompt for required file location at start of Win Forms application

    - by Murph
    I have an application that uses a file to store its data. I store the location of the file in the app settings so have two tests at startup: Do I have a setting for the file and Does the file (if I have a setting) exist If I fail either test I want to prompt the user for the file location - the mechanics of the are not the problem, I can read and write the app settings, fire off dialogs and otherwise request the data. If the user refuses to choose a file (or at least a file location) I want to exit the app. My problem is where to do this i.e. at what point in the flow of code. In an ideal world you start the app, show a splash screen, load the main form and run from there... I'm looking for a general pattern that allows me to slot the test for parameters into the right place so that I can prompt the user for whatever (and allowing that I have to worry about the fact that my splash screen is currently topmost for my app). I appreciate that this is a bit vague so will update this with code as we go along.

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  • Compare values in serialized column in Doctrine with Query Builder

    - by ReynierPM
    I'm building a FormType for a Symfony2 project but I need some Query Builder on the field since I need to compare some values with the one stored on DB and show the results. This is what I have: .... ->add('servicio', 'entity', array( 'mapped' => false, 'class' => 'ComunBundle:TipoServicio', 'property' => 'nombre', 'required' => true, 'label' => false, 'expanded' => true, 'multiple' => true, 'query_builder' => function (EntityRepository $er) { return $er->createQueryBuilder('ts') ->where('ts.tipo_usuario = (:tipo)') ->setParameter('tipo', 1); } )) .... But tipo_usuario at DB table is stored as serialized text for example: record1: value1 | a:1:{i:0;s:1:"1";} record2: value2 | a:4:{i:0;s:1:"1";i:1;s:1:"2";i:2;s:1:"3";i:3;s:1:"4";} I'll have two different forms (I don't know how to pass the Request to a form) in the first one I'll only show the first record and for the second one the first and second record for example: First form will show: checkbox: value1 Second form will show: checkbox: value1 checkbox: value2 I achieve this? Any help?

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  • MongoDB C# - Hide property from serializer

    - by ehftwelve
    This is what my user model looks like: namespace Api.Models { public class User { [BsonId(IdGenerator = typeof(StringObjectIdGenerator))] [BsonRequired] public string Id { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Username is required.")] [StringLength(20, MinimumLength=3, ErrorMessage="Username must be between 3 and 20 characters.")] [BsonRequired] public string Username { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage="Email is required.")] [EmailAddress(ErrorMessage="Valid email required.")] [BsonRequired] public string Email { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Password is required.")] [StringLength(50, MinimumLength=8, ErrorMessage="Password must be between 8 and 50 characters.")] [BsonRequired] public string Password { get; set; } [BsonRequired] public string Salt { get; set; } } } I want to write, and require, all of the properties into the MongoDB Database. What I don't want to do, is expose the Password and Salt properties when I send this through the request. Is there any sort of data attribute that I can set that will write it, but not expose it when displayed to any API user?

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  • jquery checkbox and array help

    - by sea_1987
    Hi There I need to get the names and values of checkboxes that have been checked into an array name selected, I cannot for life of me get it working, below is my attempt, if someone could clrify what I am doing wrong that would be brilliant. //Location AJAX //var dataObject = new Object(); var selected = new Array(); $('#areas input.radio').change(function(){ // will trigger when the checked status changes var checked = $(this).attr("checked"); // will return "checked" or false I think. // Do whatever request you like with the checked status if(checked == true) { /*$("input:checked").each(function() { selected.push($(this).attr('name')+"="+$(this).val(); }); alert(selected)*/ getQuery = $(this).attr('name')+"="+$(this).val()+"&location_submit=Next"; $.ajax({ type:"POST", url:"/search/location", data: getQuery, success:function(data){ alert(getQuery); console.log(data); // $('body.secEmp').html(data); } }); } else { //do something to remove the content here alert("Remove"); } });

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  • Routing redirection decision

    - by programming late night
    I have really no idea why I'm asking this as this a really completely irrelevant question for which I should have figured out an answer within milliseconds, yet I'm doing it. So in my project I have a Router class which splits up the request and selects the right page to be loaded. Fine so far. Now I have a page displayed when the user requests a page that doesn't exist, you know, 404. So theoretically, if the user entered mydomain.com/404 (I use mod_rewrite with a requests collector via index.php?req=*) the 404 error would be shown to him, but in fact there was no error - the 404 page would be displayed as a perfectly normal page. So if someone would try out requesting the 404 page via /404, he would be shown the page but he can't tell if the 404 page he requested doesn't exist and he is actually getting a, you guessed it, 404 error or if he actually found some flaw in the system that makes him able to see an error page when there is no error. I don't know how dumb this whole thing here is but I'm sure some of you have in fact ran into this problem already. Short version: If the user enters mydomain.com/404 the 404 page is shown even though there is no 404 error. I know this is a completely irrelevant question, please don't tell me, but I just spontaneously wanted to hear your thoughts on it. Strange eh? Should I redirect direct access to my 404-page to the home page? Should I do nothing? Should I just go to bed and stop asking irrelevant stuff?

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