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  • How do I run asynchronous code in asp.net mvc 2?

    - by SLC
    I tried this: BackgroundWorker bw = new BackgroundWorker(); bw.DoWork += (o, e) => { SendConfEmail(); }; bw.RunWorkerAsync(); but it didn't work. SendConfEmail takes a while to run. I guess it's because BackgroundWorker is designed for winforms not webforms. Any ideas how I can solve the problem?

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  • How do I access a DIV from javascript, if ASP.NET mangles its ID?

    - by Rising Star
    I have a web page that contains a "div" element. On the page, there is javascript to reference the div: document.getElementById('divId'). This was working fine until another developer redesigned the page to use an ASP master page. Now, document.getElementById('divId') returns null. It appears that ASP.net prepends some characters to the names of elements within contents forms when you use a master page. How can I know what the id of the div is when the page loads? Update Allow me to give a specific example to clarify the question: My page had a div with ID divNotice. After changing my page to use a master page, I see when I print the source to the page that renders that the div ID is ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_divNotice. My question is, how am I supposed to know what the div ID is going to be when the framework is done with it?

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  • How do I include a newline in a text message sent as email from an ASP.Net application?

    - by Tim Goodman
    I have an ASP.Net Application that sends text messages to mobile phones. It does this by sending an email. For instance, if your phone number is 555-555-5555 and your wireless carrier is Verizon, you can send an email to [email protected] and it will show up as a text message. I want to be able to include a newline in the body of the message. How do I do this? Also please note that my ASP.Net program gets the message from a database (MS SQL Server) so what I really need to know is what characters to include in the message body when I store it in my database. I already tried \n but it just showed up in the text message as \n

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  • Using a custom annotation on a Spring MVC controller method from an interceptor.

    - by Speck
    I have a custom annotation with which I've annotated a method in my Controller alongside a @ReqestMapping. The goal is to use the values set in the custom annotation from a HandlerInterceptor to perform a task. I have the interceptor (HandlerInterceptorAdaptor) mapped and it executes. If I set a breakpoint in my concrete Interceptor I can inspect the HttpServletRequest, HttpServletResponse, and handler Objects. However, I cannot see how to 1, obtain the method which the request is trying to access 2, obtain the Annotations on that method and 3, of course, obtain the values set by the annotation. Can anyone point me to good documentation for this? Please and Thank You.

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  • Table Adaptor Error when trying update

    - by JasonMc92
    Hi, I have a rather perplexing issue. I am using VB.net and SQL for my project. I have a database, to which the connection works. I also have a data table and data adaptor, both of which I know work. I am trying to update something in the database, yet it isn't working. Assume everything listed is declared correctly. What am I doing wrong? teacher_control_table.Rows(0)("DATA_TeacherLockPasscode") = txtPasscode1.Text table_adaptor2.Update(teacher_control_table) That last line throws the following exception: InvalidOperationException was unhandled. update requires a valid UpdateCommand when passed DataRow collection with modified rows.

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  • Where does the query language sit within the MVC pattern?

    - by weesilmania
    I'd assume that since the query language sits within the controller (typically) that it belongs to that component, but if I play devil's advocate I'd argue that the query language is execute within the domain of the model, and is tightly coupled to that component so it might also be a part of it. Anyone know the answer? Is there a straight answer or is it technology specific?

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  • How to provide warnings during validation in ASP.NET MVC?

    - by Alex
    Sometimes user input is not strictly invalid but can be considered problematic. For example: A user enters a long sentence in a single-line Name field. He probably should have used the Description field instead. A user enters a Name that is very similar to that of an existing entity. Perhaps he's inputting the same entity but didn't realize it already exists, or some concurrent user has just entered it. Some of these can easily be checked client-side, some require server-side checks. What's the best way, perhaps something similar to DataAnnotations validation, to provide warnings to the user in such cases? The key here is that the user has to be able to override the warning and still submit the form (or re-submit the form, depending on the implementation). The most viable solution that comes to mind is to create some attribute, similar to a CustomValidationAttribute, that may make an AJAX call and would display some warning text but doesn't affect the ModelState. The intended usage is this: [WarningOnFieldLength(MaxLength = 150)] [WarningOnPossibleDuplicate()] public string Name { get; set; } In the view: @Html.EditorFor(model => model.Name) @Html.WarningMessageFor(model => model.Name) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Name) So, any ideas?

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  • how to pass an integeter array from a asp.net mvc controller action back to javascript using jquery

    - by oo
    Here is my jQuery code: $.get('/Home/GetList', function(data) { debugger; $('#myMultiSelect').val(data); }); Here is my controller code: public ActionResult GetList(int id) { int[] bodyParts = _repository.GetList(id); //how do i return this as an array back to javascript ?? } if I have the GetList function return an array of integers, how do I return this to the jQuery function?

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  • ASP.NET MVC - Where do you put your .js files if you dont want to store them in /Scripts?

    - by Jimbo
    I have a number of .js files that I would like to be stored in the same directories as their views (they're specific to a view - its simply to keep the javascript separate from the view's HTML) However, adding them to the /Views/ControllerName/ directory wont work because when a request is made to the webserver for the .js file: <script type="text/javascript" src="/Views/ControllerName/myscript.js"></script> It would essentially be directed at the 'Views' controller which obviously doesnt exist. Thanks

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  • Does Spring MVC form submit data bind children objects automagically?

    - by predhme
    I have a data model that is something like this: public class Report { // report owner private User user; ... typical getter setter ... } public class User { ... omitted for clarity } What happens is when a report is created, the current user is set to the report user object. When the report is edited, the spring controller handling the POST request is receiving a report where the user object is null. Here is what my controller looks like: @Controller @RequestMapping("/report") public class ReportController { @RequestMapping(value = "/edit/{id}", method = RequestMethod.GET) public String editReport(@PathVariable Long id, Model model) { Report r = backend.getReport(id); // fully loads object model.addAttribute("report", report); return "report/edit"; } @RequestMapping(value = "/edit/{id}", method = RequestMethod.POST) public String process(@ModelAttribute("report") Report r) { backend.save(r); return "redirect:/report/show" + r.getId(); } } I ran things throw the debugger and it looks like in the editReport method the model object is storing the fully loaded report object (I can see the user inside the report). On the form jsp I can do the following: ${report.user.username} and the correct result is rendered. However, when I look at the debugger in the process method, the passed in Report r has a null user. I don't need to do any special data binding to ensure that information is retained do I?

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  • Spring MVC: Where to place validation and how to validation entity references.

    - by arrages
    Let's say I have the following command bean for creating a user: public class CreateUserCommand { private String userName; private String email; private Integer occupationId; pirvate Integer countryId; } occupationId and countryId are drop down selected values on the form. They map to an entity in the database (Occupation, Country). This command object is going to be fed to a service facade like so: userServiceFacade.createUser(CreateUserCommand command); This facade will construct a user entity to be sent to the actual service. So I suppose that in the facade layer I will have to make several dao calls to map all the lookup properties of the User entity. Based on this what is the best strategy to validate that occupationId and countryId map to real entities? Where is the best place to perform this validation? There is the spring validator but I am not sure this is the best place for this, for one I am wary of this method as validation is tied to the web tier, but also that means I would need to make the dao calls in the validator for validation but I would need to call the dao's in the facade layer again when the command - entity translation occurs. Is there anything I can do better? Thanks.

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  • In .NET MVC, is there an easy way to check if I'm on the home page?

    - by Hairgami_Master
    I need to take a particular action if a user logs in from the home page. In my LogOnModel, I have a hidden field: @Html.Hidden("returnUrl", Request.Url.AbsoluteUri) In my Controller, I need to check if that value is the Home page or not. In the example below, I'm checking to see if the user is on a particular page ("Account/ResetPassword"). Is there a way to check to see if they're on the home page without resorting to regular expressions? [HttpPost] public ActionResult LogOnInt(LogOnModel model) { if (model.returnUrl.Contains("/Account/ResetPassword")) { return Json(new { redirectToUrl = @Url.Action("Index","Home")}); } Any ideas? A million thanks!

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  • Redirect to current view on error in asp.net mvc?

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    I use TempData["message"] which internally uses session.... It works for me but when i do a return RedirectToAction("Create"); my other values are not restored because i am redirecting to Create view... Any suggestion how to retain the values of textboxes in the view..... if (!regrep.registerUser(reg)) { TempData["message"] = string.Format("{0} already exists", reg.EmailId); return RedirectToAction("Create"); } else { return RedirectToAction("Index"); }

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  • 'cross-referencing' DataTable's

    - by Lee
    I have a DataGridView that is being filled with data from a table. Inside this table is a column called 'group' that has the ID of an individual group in another table. What I would like to do, is when the DataGridView is filled, instead of showing the ID contained in 'group', I'd like it to display the name of the group. Is there some type of VB.net 'magic' that can do this, or do I need to cross-reference the data myself? Here is a breakdown of what the 2 tables look like: table1 id group (this holds the value of column id in table 2) weight last_update table2 id description (this is what I would like to be displayed in the DGV.) BTW - I am using Visual Studio Express.

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  • ASPNET MVC what do you call this, a partial view? Or something else?

    - by JK
    I'm trying to google for info on a situation, but I dont know what it is called, so its hard to find results :) I have a model with say 10 fields. But only some of those are shown on a particular view, lets say 3 of them: id, name, date. What do you call this kind of view that does not display the whole model? A partial view? The problem is that because 7 fields are not sent to the view, when the Update action is called on the controller, those fields are null, and the DB gets updated with those 7 fields set to null.

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  • asp.net impersonation identity: Where does it come from?

    - by Rising Star
    Here's a simple question I've been stuck on for a while. When I set < identity impersonate=true > in my web.config so that asp.net impersonates the logged on user automatically (or the anonymous account if not using Windows Authentication), where does the identity that asp.net impersonates come from? This document: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff649264.aspx shows three places you can retrieve information about the logged on user: Httpcontext.Current.user System.Threading.Thread.Current System.Security.Principal.WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent It seems that none of these locations consistently match the identity that gets impersonated when I set < identity impersonate=true > in web.config. I would like to know where the impersonated identity comes from.

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  • .NET MVC What is the best way to disable browser caching?

    - by Chameera Dedduwage
    As far as my research goes, there are several steps in order to make sure that browser caching is disabled. These HTTP headers must be set: Cache-Control: no-cache, no-store, must-revalidate, proxy-revalidate Pragma: no-cache, no-store Expires: -1 Last-Modified: -1 I have found out that this can be done in two ways: Way One: use the web.config file <add name="Cache-Control" value="no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate, proxy-revalidate"/> <add name="Pragma" value="no-cache, no-store" /> <add name="Expires" value="-1" /> <add name="Last-Modified" value="-1" /> Way Two: use the meta tags in _Layout.cshtml <meta http-equiv="Cache-Control" content="no-cache, no-store, must-revalidate, proxy-revalidate" /> <meta http-equiv="Pragma" content="no-cache, no-store" /> <meta http-equiv="Expires" content="-1" /> <meta http-equiv="Expires" content="-1" /> My Question: which is the better approach? Or, alternatively, are they equally acceptable? How do these all relate to different platforms? Which browsers would honor what headers? In addition, please feel free to add anything I've missed, if any.

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  • How to access data binding object in aspx page in ASP.NET?

    - by weilin8
    I am trying to hide or show a certain section of my table depending on the value of a property in my binding object(s). public class Class1 { public bool Display { get; set; } } In ASP.NET MVC, I can just do the following (assuming that Class1 is the model that binds to the page.) <table> <tr>Row 1</tr> <tr>Row 2</tr> <% if(Model.Display) { %> <tr>Row 3</tr> <tr>Row 4</tr> <% } %> </table> How can I achieve the same behavior in transitional ASP.NET? That "Model" variable is not available. How do I retrieve the data binding object? Thanks.

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