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• Sending wordpress title-value across PHP-pages

  - by VoodooBurger

  I recently made this wordpress blog, where you can sign up a team for an event, when clicking a link under the event post. This link takes you to a sign-up form on another php-page. The link is added in the loop of the events-template like this: <?php query_posts('cat=8');?> <?php if (have_posts()) : while (have_posts()) : the_post(); ?> <div class="post" id="post-<?php the_ID(); ?>"> <h2><a href="<?php the_permalink() ?>"><?php the_title(); ?></a></h2> <div id="tilmeldknap"><?php wp_list_pages("title_li=&depth=1&include=63"); ?></div> <?php include (TEMPLATEPATH . '/inc/meta.php' ); ?>... So every upcoming event will have the same sign-up button. All I need now is to somehow send the specific event-post-title along to the sign-page, so that the following form-submit action will contain that title aswell. But since I'm not very good at php it seems like a mystery, altho I bet it's very simple! I'm guessing it's something like: $event=$_POST['single_post_title()'] But how to get the value to the next php-page I have no idea... please help, anyone :) An eksample can be seen throught this link: http://gadebold.dk/events/ The link sais: 'Tilmeld Hold'

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• Using $.get with jquery validation

  - by Jimmy McCarthy

  I'm trying to use the Jquery builtin validator on my page. The issue is that I have certain fields that only are required if the JobID (entered into another field) does not already exist in our database. I have a simple service which simply takes JobID and returns True or False based on whether the JobID exists, but I can't seem to get this information where I want it. Some sample code: $("#dep_form").validate({ rules: { JobID: { required: true, digits: true, minlength: 3 }, OrgName: { required: function(element) { //This field is required if the JobID is new. return $("#jobinfo").html().length==15; } } }, messages: { JobID: { required: "Enter a Job Number.", digits: "Only numbers are allowed in Job ID's.", minlength: "Job Number must be at least 3 digits" }, OrgName: { required: "Select a Practice from the dropdown list." } }, errorClass: "ui-state-error-input", errorLabelContainer: "#errorbox", errorElement: 'li', errorContainer: "#validation_errors", onfocusout: false, onkeyup: false, focusinvalid: false }; Currently, I'm using a lazy method to validate (shown above). However, I now have access to a service using the URL: var lookupurl = "/deposits/jobidvalidate/?q=" + $("#id_JobID").val() + "&t=" + new Date().getTime(); which is a page which will contain just the word True or False based on whether that given JobID exists. I've tried half a dozen different ways of setting variables and calling functions within functions and still cannot get a way to simply return the value of that page (which I've been trying to access with $.get() ) to my validator, so that required is set to true when the Job does not exist and false if the job already exists. Any suggestions? Thanks.

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• jQuery eval of ajax inline script not throwing errors

  - by Josh

  http://stackoverflow.com/questions/606794/debugging-ajax-code-with-firebug This question is quite similar, though old and without real answers. I'm currently putting together an app that has scripts that get loaded in with an ajax request. An example: var main = _main.get(); main.load( someurl ); Where someurl is a page that contains an inline script element: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready( function(){ var activities = new activities(); activities.init(); }); </script> jQuery will do a line by line eval of js that lives in inline script tags. The problem is, I get no errors or any information whatsoever in firebug when something goes awry. Does anyone have a good solution for this? Or a better practice for loading pages which contain javascript functionality? Edit: A little progress... so at the top of the page that is being loaded in via ajax, I have another script that was being included like this: <script type="text/javascript" src="javascript/pages/activities.js"></script> When I moved the inline $(document).ready() code in the page to the end of this included file, instead, syntax errors were now properly getting thrown. As an aside, I threw a console.log() into the inline script tag, and it was being logged just fine. I also tried removing the $(document).ready() altogether, and also switching it out for a $(window).load() event. No difference. May have something to do with the inline scripts dependency on the included activities.js, I guess. :: shakes head :: javascript can be a nightmare.

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• Help me re-center a ModalPopup within an iframe when the iframe's parent window scrolls

  - by Cory Larson

  I have a web page with an iframe in it (I don't like it, but that's the way it has to be). It's not a cross-domain iframe so there's nothing to worry about there. I have written a jQuery extension that does the centering of a ModalPopup (which is called from an overridden AjaxControlToolkit.ModalPopupBehavior._layout method) based on the width and height of the iframe's parent, so that it looks centered even though the iframe is not in the center of the page. It's a lot of tricky stuff, especially since the web page I added the iframe to runs in quirks mode. Now, I've also overridden AjaxControlToolkit.ModalPopupBehavior._attachPopup, so that when the parent window resizes or scrolls, the ModalPopup inside of the iframe recenter's itself relative to the new size of the parent window. However, the same code that attaches the popup to the parent window's resize event does NOT work for the parent window's scroll event. See the code below, and the comments: AjaxControlToolkit.ModalPopupBehavior.prototype._attachPopup = function() { /// <summary> /// Attach the event handlers for the popup to the PARENT window /// </summary> if (this._DropShadow && !this._dropShadowBehavior) { this._dropShadowBehavior = $create(AjaxControlToolkit.DropShadowBehavior, {}, null, null, this._popupElement); } if (this._dragHandleElement && !this._dragBehavior) { this._dragBehavior = $create(AjaxControlToolkit.FloatingBehavior, {"handle" : this._dragHandleElement}, null, null, this._foregroundElement); } $addHandler(parent.window, 'resize', this._resizeHandler); // <== This WORKS $addHandler(parent.window, 'scroll', this._scrollHandler); // <== This DOES NOT work this._windowHandlersAttached = true; } Can anybody explain to me why the resize event works while the scroll event doesn't? Any suggestions or alternatives out there to help me out? I am working with jQuery, so if I can use something besides the $addHandler method from MS that'd be fine. Be aware that I also have to override the _detachPopup function to remove the handler, so I need to take that into account. Thanks!

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• Am I correctly extracting JPEG binary data from this mysqldump?

  - by Glenn

  I have a very old .sql backup of a vbulletin site that I ran around 8 years ago. I am trying to see the file attachments that are stored in the DB. The script below extracts them all and is verified to be JPEG by hex dumping and checking the SOI (start of image) and EOI (end of image) bytes (FFD8 and FFD9, respectively) according to the JPEG wiki page. But when I try to open them with evince, I get this message "Error interpreting JPEG image file (JPEG datastream contains no image)" What could be going on here? Some background info: sqldump is around 8 years old vbulletin 2.x was the software that stored the info most likely php 4 was used most likely mysql 4.0, possibly even 3.x the column datatype these attachments are stored in is mediumtext My Python 3.1 script: #!/usr/bin/env python3.1 import re trim_l = re.compile(b"""^INSERT INTO attachment VALUES\('\d+', '\d+', '\d+', '(.+)""") trim_r = re.compile(b"""(.+)', '\d+', '\d+'\);$""") extractor = re.compile(b"""^(.*(?:\.jpe?g|\.gif|\.bmp))', '(.+)$""") with open('attachments.sql', 'rb') as fh: for line in fh: data = trim_l.findall(line)[0] data = trim_r.findall(data)[0] data = extractor.findall(data) if data: name, data = data[0] try: filename = 'files/%s' % str(name, 'UTF-8') ah = open(filename, 'wb') ah.write(data) except UnicodeDecodeError: continue finally: ah.close() fh.close() update The JPEG wiki page says FF bytes are section markers, with the next byte indicating the section type. I see some that are not listed in the wiki page (specifically, I see a lot of 5C bytes, so FF5C). But the list is of "common markers" so I'm trying to find a more complete list. Any guidance here would also be appreciated.

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• What is happening in this T-SQL code?

  - by Ben McCormack

  I'm just starting to learn T-SQL and could use some help in understanding what's going on in a particular block of code. I modified some code in an answer I received in a previous question, and here is the code in question: DECLARE @column_list AS varchar(max) SELECT @column_list = COALESCE(@column_list, ',') + 'SUM(Case When Sku2=' + CONVERT(varchar, Sku2) + ' Then Quantity Else 0 End) As [' + CONVERT(varchar, Sku2) + ' - ' + Convert(varchar,Description) +'],' FROM OrderDetailDeliveryReview Inner Join InvMast on SKU2 = SKU and LocationTypeID=4 GROUP BY Sku2 , Description ORDER BY Sku2 Set @column_list = Left(@column_list,Len(@column_list)-1) Select @column_list ---------------------------------------- 1 row is returned: ,SUM(Case When Sku2=157 Then Quantity Else 0 End) As [157 -..., SUM(Case ... The T-SQL code does exactly what I want, which is to make a single result based on the results of a query, which will then be used in another query. However, I can't figure out how the SELECT @column_list =... statement is putting multiple values into a single string of characters by being inside a SELECT statement. Without the assignment to @column_list, the SELECT statement would simply return multiple rows. How is it that by having the variable within the SELECT statement that the results get "flattened" down into one value? How should I read this T-SQL to properly understand what's going on?

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• Problem with ASP.NET Authentication

  - by Niels Bosma

  I'm having problem with our login procedure. Some customers complain that they can't login. I can see in our logs that their login is successful and that they are redirected from the login page to the member area. But there somehow the login isn't detected and they are bounced back to the login page. I've asked customers to check if cookies are supported (http://www.html-kit.com/tools/cookietester/) but problem remains even if this test returns true. This is how I've implemented the login procedure (simplyfied): protected void Login(string email, string password) { FormsAuthentication.SignOut(); Guid clientId = /* Validate login by checking email and password, if fails display error otherwise get client id */ FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(clientId.ToString(), true); HttpContext.Current.Response.Redirect("~/Members.aspx"); } On the member page I check for authentication by in Page_Load function: public static void IsAuthenticated() { if (!HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.IsAuthenticated) { HttpContext.Current.Response.Redirect("~/Login.aspx", true); } } Maybe I'm using FormsAuthentication completely wrong? I've asked this before but still haven't been able to figure this out, I'd appreciate any help.

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• How do you configure jax-ws to work with Spring using jax-ws commons?

  - by LES2

  In web.xml I have the following: <servlet> <description>JAX-WS endpoint - EARM</description> <display-name>jaxws-servlet</display-name> <servlet-name>jaxws-servlet</servlet-name> <servlet-class>com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.servlet.WSSpringServlet</servlet-class> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>jaxws-servlet</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/webServices/*</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> In my application context I have the following definitions: <bean id="helloService" class="com.foo.HelloServiceImpl"> <property name="regularService" ref="regularService" /> </bean> <wss:binding url="/webServices/helloService" service="#helloService" /> I get a NullPointerException when trying to access the WSDL: java.lang.NullPointerException at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.HttpAdapter.<init>(HttpAdapter.java:145) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.servlet.ServletAdapter.<init>(ServletAdapter.java:76) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.servlet.ServletAdapterList.createHttpAdapter(ServletAdapterList.java:5 0) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.servlet.ServletAdapterList.createHttpAdapter(ServletAdapterList.java:4 7) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.HttpAdapterList.createAdapter(HttpAdapterList.java:73) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.servlet.SpringBinding.create(SpringBinding.java:24) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.servlet.WSSpringServlet.init(WSSpringServlet.java:46) Strange ... appears to be a configuration error but the darn thing just dies with a NullPointerException!!!!!!!! No logging is provided. Deployed in Resin.

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• WPF ComboBox binding

  - by Budda

  Here is peace of the XAML code from my page: <ComboBox Grid.Row="2" Grid.Column="1" Name="Player2" MinWidth="50" ItemsSource="{Binding PlayersTest}" DisplayMemberPath="ShortName"> custom object is binded to the page data context: page.DataContext = new SquadViewModel(); Here is part the source code of 'SquadViewModel' class: public class SquadViewModel { public SquadViewModel() { PlayersTest = new ObservableCollection<SostavPlayerData>(); PlayersTest.Add(new SostavPlayerData { ShortName = "A. Sereda", }); PlayersTest.Add(new SostavPlayerData { ShortName = "D. Sereda", }); } public readonly ObservableCollection<SostavPlayerData> PlayersTest; public string TestText { get { return "Binding works perfectly!"; } } } As a result ComboBox should display a list of objects, but it is empty. Do you know why and how to get this list? Thank you. P.S. I've tried another XAML markup <ComboBox Grid.Row="1" Grid.Column="1" Name="Player1" MinWidth="50" ItemsSource="{Binding PlayersTest}"> <ComboBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock Text="{Binding ShortName}"/> </DataTemplate> </ComboBox.ItemTemplate> </ComboBox> It doesn't work also, but binding to simple text block: <TextBlock Grid.Row="2" Grid.Column="1" Text="{Binding TestText}"/> Works perfectly.

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• Browser security when calling HTTP assets via a SWF on a HTTPS site

  - by Mark Ursino

  We have a site that runs on HTTPS and needs to pull in various JS assets to run a video player on the page. We get a browser security warning on this page because the JS files we are externally calling are being accessed via HTTP, not HTTPS. E.g. // HTTP reference on a HTTPS site <script src="http://the-cdn.tld/player.js"></script> Simply accessing this one JS assets via HTTP and not HTTPS will cause the browser security warning which we need to get rid of. The provider of the JS file does not support an HTTPS equivalent (like Google Analytics does). We would ideally love to just do the following, but the provider does not have this: // HTTPS reference on a HTTPS site <script src="https://the-cdn.tld/player.js"></script> One option we had was to just download a copy of the JS file and serve it on the HTTPS site, however we have concerns with this as it is not recommended by the provider and will not include updates from them. Assuming we cannot do that, we were thinking a possible other option would be to use a SWF file as a proxy. We were thinking that we could have one of our flash guys create a SWF that loads in the HTTP-served JS file to the page. We were wondering that if this SWF makes the request, would that prevent the browser from showing the security warning or not? I assumed that we would still see the warning since the SWF is still making the request through the browser, but I wanted to see what the hive mind thinks.

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• Workflow UI Integration - is WF a good approach?

  - by AJ

  Somewhat similar to this question, except we haven't decided that we're going with WF yet. I'm working on designing a system that requires a series of decisions and activities on a "work object," so I naturally began to consider workflow, specifically WF. What I'm wondering is if WF is a good solution for a situation like the following (oversimplified for this question) case (please forgive bad ascii art): __________________ | Gather some info | | (web page) | |__________________| | | / \ / \ / \ / \ / cond \ \ 1 / \ / \ / \ / \ / | | ______________|_______________ | | | | | ______|______ ______|________ / do some / | Get more info | / process / | (web page) | /____________/ |_______________| | | / \ / \ / \ / cond. \ \ 2 / \ / \ / \ / | | |__________________ | | | | _____|_____ _____|_____ / some / / another / / process / / process / /__________/ /__________/ The part I'm struggling with is the get more info (web page) step and what happens subsequent, which would mean a halt in the execution of the workflow runtime. I'm aware that this is possible, but I'm not sure that WF is the best approach for this type of code, as the user interaction may be required at many different points through the entire workflow, and the workflow will drive what data entry screens are needed. We are using a WinForms/ASP.NET web forms package for UI, which is homegrown and difficult to push deployments on, so something like SharePoint integration is out of the question. Our back-end is DB2, and the workflow code (whether it's in WF or otherwise) will need to interact with that as well. I guess the bottom line is, should we look into using WF for this, or would we be better served just coding it ourselves? Can WF easily integrate data entry screens to capture information that can be used further on in the workflow?

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• Firefox: Can I use a relative path in the BASE tag?

  - by Aaron Digulla

  I have a little web project where I have many pages and an index/ToC file. The toc file is at the root of my project in toc.html. The pages are spread over a couple of subdirectories and include the toc with an iframe. The project doesn't need a web server, so I can create the HTML in a directory and browse it in my browser. The problem is that I'm running into XSS issues when JavaScript from the toc.html wants to call a function in a page (violation of the same origin policy). So I added base tags in the header with a relative URL to the directory in which toc.html. This works for Konqueror but in Firefox, I have to use absolute paths or the toc won't even display :( Here is an example: <?xml version='1.0' encoding='utf-8' ?> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <base href="../" target="_top" /> <title>Project 1</title> </head> <body> <iframe class="toc" frameborder="0" src="toc.html"> </iframe> </body> </html> This is file is in a subdirectory page. Firefox won't even load it, saying that it can't find page/toc.html. Is there a workaround? I would really like to avoid absolute paths in my export to keep it the same everywhere (locally and when I upload it on the web server later).

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• How to modify the style of jQuery DatePicker's disabled dates?

  - by Clay

  Given this page: http://jqueryui.com/demos/datepicker/#min-max And viewing its source: http://jqueryui.com/themeroller/css/parseTheme.css.php I can change the following line (using Chrome's inspect element feature) and see those changes reflected: .ui-state-disabled, .ui-widget-content .ui-state-disabled { opacity: .35; filter:Alpha(Opacity=35); background-image: none; } However, if I try to override my own test page with something like... .ui-state-disabled, .ui-widget-content .ui-state-disabled { opacity: .99 !important; filter:Alpha(Opacity=99) !important; background-image: none !important; color:Red !important; } ...I do not see my changes reflected in the calendar. I can make other changes in my own test page and those are reflected for other classes in the datepicker. So, I'm not having any kind of path issue to the .js or .css files. What am I missing here? UPDATE/SOLUTION Firebug to the rescue...this took care of my styling needs: .ui-datepicker-week-end{color: #c0c0c0 !important;} div#ui-datepicker-div.ui-datepicker{color: #c0c0c0;} div#ui-datepicker-div.ui-datepicker:hover{cursor: default important;} .ui-datepicker-calendar th{color: #222222 !important;}

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• How can I display multiple django modelformset forms in a grouped fieldsets?

  - by JT

  I have a problem with needing to provide multiple model backed forms on the same page. I understand how to do this with single forms, i.e. just create both the forms call them something different then use the appropriate names in the template. Now how exactly do you expand that solution to work with modelformsets? The wrinkle, of course, is that each 'form' must be rendered together in the appropriate fieldset. For example I want my template to produce something like this: <fieldset> <label for="id_base-0-desc">Home Base Description:</label> <input id="id_base-0-desc" type="text" name="base-0-desc" maxlength="100" /> <label for="id_likes-0-icecream">Want ice cream?</label> <input type="checkbox" name="likes-0-icecream" id="id_likes-0-icecream" /> </fieldset> <fieldset> <label for="id_base-1-desc">Home Base Description:</label> <input id="id_base-1-desc" type="text" name="base-1-desc" maxlength="100" /> <label for="id_likes-1-icecream">Want ice cream?</label> <input type="checkbox" name="likes-1-icecream" id="id_likes-1-icecream" /> </fieldset> I am using a loop like this to process the results (after form validation) base_models = base_formset.save(commit=False) like_models = like_formset.save(commit=False) for base_model, likes_model in map(None, base_models, likes_models): which works as I'd expect (I'm using map because the # of forms can be different). The problem is that I can't figure out a way to do the same thing with the templating engine. The system does work if I layout all the base models together then all the likes models after wards, but it doesn't meet the layout requirements. EDIT: Updated the problem statement to be more clear about what exactly I'm processing (I'm processing models not forms in the for loop)

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• How to convert the date string into string( yyyy-MM-dd). While doing so, I getting null values ?

  - by Madan Mohan

  Hi, I have the data as customerFromDate " 01 Apr 2010 " and customerToDate " 30 Apr 2010 " which is a string. I want to convert that format into yyyy-MM-dd it should be in string. but while doing so. I got null values. Please see the following code which I had tried. printf("\n customerFromDate %s",[customerStatementObj.customerFromDate UTF8String]); printf("\n customerToDate %s",[customerStatementObj.customerToDate UTF8String]); /* prints as the following customerFromDate 01 Apr 2010 customerToDate 30 Apr 2010 */ NSDateFormatter *dateFormatter = [[NSDateFormatter alloc]init]; [dateFormatter setDateFormat:@"yyyy-MM-dd"]; NSDate *fromDate=[[NSDate alloc]init]; fromDate = [dateFormatter dateFromString:customerStatementObj.customerFromDate]; printf("\n fromDate: %s",[fromDate.description UTF8String]); NSString *fromDateString=[dateFormatter stringFromDate:fromDate]; printf("\n fromDateString: %s",[fromDateString UTF8String]); [dateFormatter release]; NSDateFormatter *dateFormatter1 = [[NSDateFormatter alloc]init]; [dateFormatter1 setDateFormat:@"yyyy-MM-dd"]; NSDate *toDate=[[NSDate alloc]init]; toDate = [dateFormatter1 dateFromString:customerStatementObj.customerToDate]; printf("\n toDate: %s",[toDate.description UTF8String]); NSString *toDateString=[dateFormatter1 stringFromDate:toDate]; printf("\n toDateString: %s",[toDateString UTF8String]); [dateFormatter1 release]; Thank you, Madan Mohan.

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• how to verify browser IP for server-side web service

  - by Anthony

  I have a web service that needs to be able to verify the end-user's IP that called the server-script that is requesting the web service. Simple layout: Person A goes to Webpage B. Webpage B calls Web Service C to get some info on Person A. Web Service C won't give Webpage B the requested information without confirmation that the request originated from Person A's IP and not someone who has stolen Person A's session. I'm thinking that for a browser-based solution, the original site (Webpage B) can open an iframe that goes to the Web Service's authentication page. A key of some kind is passed to the browser which will some how indicate both the user's IP and Web Page B's IP, so that the Web Service can confirm that no one has nabbed anything. I have two challenges, but I'll stick to the more immediate one first: I'm not sure if my browser-based plan really makes sense. If someone steals the session cookie, how is the Web Service going to know? Would this cookie be held be Web Page B and thus be harder to steal? Is it a sound assumption that a cookie or key held by the server only and not the browser is safe? Also, would the web service, based on the iframe initial connection, be expecting the server/user-ip combo? What I mean is, does the session key provided via the iframe get stored by the web service and the Web Site B shows it has a match? Or is the session key more generic, meaning the web service is passed the key by Website B and the Web Service verifies that this is a valid session key based on what a valid session key should look like?

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• Rails 3 : create two dimensional hash and add values from a loop

  - by John

  I have two models : class Project < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :ticket attr_accessible .... end class Ticket < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :project attr_accessible done_date, description, .... end In my ProjectsController I would like to create a two dimensional hash to get in one variable for one project all tickets that are done (with done_date as key and description as value). For example i would like a hash like this : What i'm looking for : @tickets_of_project = ["done_date_1" => ["a", "b", "c"], "done_date_2" => ["d", "e"]] And what i'm currently trying (in ProjectsController) ... def show # Get current project @project = Project.find(params[:id]) # Get all dones tickets for a project, order by done_date @tickets = Ticket.where(:project_id => params[:id]).where("done_date IS NOT NULL").order(:done_date) # Create a new hash @tickets_of_project = Hash.new {} # Make a loop on all tickets, and want to complete my hash @tickets.each do |ticket| # TO DO #HOW TO PUT ticket.value IN "tickets_of_project" WITH KEY = ticket.done_date ??** end end I don't know if i'm in a right way or not (maybe use .map instead of make a where query), but how can I complete and put values in hash by checking index if already exist or not ? Thanx :)

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• webcam refreshing image in iframe not working IE

  - by Nix

  I'm trying to show images from this webcam http://regacam.usz.ch/cgi-bin/guestimage.html on an html page by putting an iframe in pointing to another page that has an image tag in it. But it isn't working in IE (I just see a little cross where the image should be), Firefox is ok. Here the page with the image in: <html> <head> <meta http-euqiv="refresh" content="5"> </head> <body> <img src="http://regacam.usz.ch/cgi-bin/faststream.jpg?stream=full&fps=0.01667&rand=295543" width="200" height="150"/> </body> <html> and the iframe: <div id="rightcontainer"> <iframe id="rightframe" src="zurich.html" name="content" frameborder="0"></iframe> </div> I tried a different webcam elsewhere and that works ok in both browsers. Is there something odd about the one in my example? I got the link in src by right-clicking and copying the image location - is that the right way to go about it?

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• jquery change image on mouse rollover

  - by Craig Rinde

  I have been having problems with this. I think this should be pretty simple but I cannot seem to get it to work. I want a new image to appear when rolling over my facebook button. Thanks for your help! <p align="right"> <a href="http://www.facebook.com/AerialistPress" ><img height="30px" id="facebook" class="changePad" alt="Aerialist Press Facebook Page" src="/sites/aerialist.localhost/files/images/facebook300.jpg" /></a> <a href="http://twitter.com/#!/AerialistPress" > <img height="30px" class="changePad" alt="Aerialist Press Twitter Page" src="/sites/aerialist.localhost/files/images/twitter300.jpg" /></a> <a href="http://www.pinterest.com/aerialistpress" ><img height="30px" class="changePad" alt="Aerialist Press Pinterest Page" src="/sites/aerialist.localhost/files/images/pinterest300.jpg" /></a> </p> <script> jQuery(document).ready(function(){ jQuery('#facebook').mouseover(function() { jQuery('#facebook').attr('src').replace('/sites/aerialist.localhost/files/images/facebook-roll.jpg'); }) }); </script>

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• adding multiple <asp:Hyperlink>s into a repeater

  - by Colin Pickard

  I have a repeater control, and I want to put an unknown number of <asp:Hyperlink>s into the template, for example if you start with this: <asp:Repeater runat="server" ID="PetsRepeater"> <ItemTemplate> <%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "Owner")%> <%#this.ListPets(Container.DataItem)%> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> and in code behind: public partial class test1 : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!Page.IsPostBack) { PetOwner p = new PetOwner() { Owner = "Jimmy", PetNames = new List<String>() { "Nemo", "Dory" } }; List<PetOwner> PetOwners = new List<PetOwner>() { p }; PetsRepeater.DataSource = PetOwners; PetsRepeater.DataBind(); } } protected String ListPets(Object PetOwner) { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); foreach (String Name in ((PetOwner)PetOwner).PetNames) { if (sb.Length > 0) sb.Append(", "); sb.Append(Name); } return sb.ToString(); } } class PetOwner { public String Owner; public List<String> PetNames; } Now suppose instead of having the string "Nemo, Dory" in my repeater, I want something like this: <asp:HyperLink runat=server Text="Nemo" NavigateUrl="Pet.aspx?Name=Nemo" />, <asp:HyperLink runat=server Text="Dory" NavigateUrl="Pet.aspx?Name=Dory" /> How can I do that? I tried putting a foreach inline in the aspx page, but I get the error Invalid expression term 'foreach'.

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• How can I load a Class contained in a website from a DLL referenced by that website???

  - by Morgeh

  Ok so this is alittle bit obscure and I'm not sure its the best way of doing what I'm trying to do but here goes. Basically I have a Presentation Layer Dll in my web site which handles the Model View Presenter classes. The presentation layer also handles login for my website and then calls off to a web service. Currently whenever the presentation layer calls to a model it verifies the users details and if they are invalid it calls to a loginHandler which redirects the user to the login page. However I cannot dynamically load a new istance of the Login Page in my website from within my Presentation layer. I've tried to use reflection to dynamically load the class but Since the method call is in the presentation assembly it is only looking within that assembly while the page I want to load is in the website. heres the reflection code that loads the View: public ILoginView LoadView() { string viewName = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["LoginView"].ToString(); Type type = Type.GetType(viewName, true); object newInstance = Activator.CreateInstance(type); return newInstance as ILoginView; } Anyone got any suggestions on how to search within the website assembly? Ideal I don't want to tie this implementation into the website specifically as the presentation layer is also used in a WPF application.

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• ASP.NET 2.0 and COM Port Communication

  - by theaviator

  ASP.NET 2.0 and COM Port Communication Hello Guys, I have a managed DLL which communicates with the devices attached on COM/Serial ports. The desktop Winforms application sends requests on ports and receives/stores data in memory. In Winforms app I have added a reference to DLL and I am using the methods. This works well. Now, there is a situation where I need to show this data from serial/com port on a web-page. And also users should be able to send requests to the ports using this DLL. I have made a web app in ASP.NET (2.0). Added a reference to the DLL. I am able to use this DLL, the DLL communicates on the COM upon button click on web-page and also the response is shown on web page. However I am not happy with the approach and strongly feel that this is a bad approach. Also the development server crashes after 3 -4 requests. What is the best approach in this scenario. If I use a windows service then how would my ASP.net app will communicate with the Weindows service. Or can this be easily done using WCF. I have not used WCF any time nor any of .net remoting technique. Please suggest me the best architecture in this scenario. Thank you

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• How to elegantly handle ReturnUrl when using UrlRewrite in ASP.NET 2.0 WebForms

  - by Brian Kim

  I have a folder with multiple .aspx pages that I want to restrict access to. I have added web.config to that folder with <deny users="?"/>. The problem is that ReturnUrl is auto-generated with physical path to the .aspx file while I'm using UrlRewrite. Is there a way to manipulate ReturnUrl without doing manual authentication check and redirection? Is there a way to set ReturnUrl from code-behind or from web.config? EDIT: The application is using ASP.NET 2.0 WebForms. I cannot use 3.5 routing. EDIT 2: It seems like 401 status code is never captured. It returns 302 for protected page and redirects to login page with ReturnUrl. It does not return 401 for protected page. Hmm... Interesting... Ref: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa480476.aspx This makes things harder... I might have to write reverse rewrite mapping rules to regex match ReturnUrl and replace it if it doesn't return 401... If it does return 401 I can either set RawUrl to Response.RedirectLocation or replace ReturnUrl with RawUrl. Anyone else have any other ideas?

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• Selenium tests not building due to NUnit error (Mono+OS X)

  - by Jem

  I'm running Selenium RC on my Mac and driving my tests using NUnit in C#. My problem is that when I try and build a simple test in Mono I get the following error. Error CS0433: The imported type `NUnit.Framework.Assert' is defined multiple times (CS0433) (TestProject) When I comment out the Assert's it runs fine. The code I'm using currently is just a dump from the openqa site using System; using System.Text; using System.Text.RegularExpressions; using System.Threading; using NUnit.Framework; using Selenium; namespace SeleniumTests { [TestFixture] public class AllTests { private ISelenium selenium; private StringBuilder verificationErrors; [SetUp] public void SetupTest () { selenium = new DefaultSelenium ("localhost", 4444, "*safari", "http://www.google.co.uk"); selenium.Start (); verificationErrors = new StringBuilder (); } [TearDown] public void TeardownTest () { try { selenium.Stop (); } catch (Exception) { // Ignore errors if unable to close the browser } Assert.AreEqual ("", verificationErrors.ToString ()); } [Test] public void GoogleHomepageTests () { // Open Google search engine. selenium.Open ("http://www.google.com/"); // Assert Title of page. Assert.AreEqual ("Google", selenium.GetTitle ()); // Provide search term as "Selenium OpenQA" selenium.Type ("q", "Selenium OpenQA"); // Read the keyed search term and assert it. Assert.AreEqual ("Selenium OpenQA", selenium.GetValue ("q")); // Click on Search button. selenium.Click ("btnG"); // Wait for page to load. selenium.WaitForPageToLoad ("5000"); // Assert that "www.openqa.org" is available in search results. Assert.IsTrue (selenium.IsTextPresent ("www.openqa.org")); // Assert that page title is - "Selenium OpenQA - Google Search" Assert.AreEqual ("Selenium OpenQA - Google Search", selenium.GetTitle ()); } } } Any ideas? Is it a OSX/Mono thing?

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• Help with php code - need to add condition to make one link https

  - by Kaskade

  Hi, I have a wordpress blog and I need to make one of the pages secure. I have been told to make the link to that page point to https://claimpage.html as opposed to http://claimpage.html. The problem is I don't actually create the menu that links the user to the individual pages. This is done automatically by the code in the background. I think I need to put in some sort of an IF statement, saying, if the title of the page is "claim now" then use https otherwise use http. I found this code in the header.php so I think my changes need to go in here but I'm not really sure what to do. <div id="navbar"> <ul class="menu"> <li class="<?php if ( is_home() ) { ?>current_page_item<?php } else { ?>page_item<?php } ?>"><a href="<?php echo get_settings('home'); ?>"><?php _e('Home'); ?></a></li> <?php wp_list_pages('sort_column=id&depth=1&title_li='); ?> <?php wp_register('<li>','</li>'); ?> </ul> </div> <!-- end of #navbar --> Any suggestions as to how I can make one page that I know the title and url or https while the others are kept using normal http? The site is hosted on a secure server so I do have an ssl certificate.

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