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  • Specifying ASP.NET MVC attributes for auto-generated data models

    - by Lyubomyr Shaydariv
    Hello to everyone. I'm very new to ASP.NET MVC (as well as ASP.NET in general), and going to gain some knowledge for this technology, so I'm sorry I can ask some trivial questions. I have installed ASP.NET MVC 3 RC1 and I'm trying to do the following. Let's consider that I have a model that's completely auto-generated from a table using the "LINQ to SQL Classes" template in VS2010. The template generates 3 files (two .cs files and one .layout file respectively), and the generated partial class is expected to be used as an MVC model. Let's also consider, a single DB column, that's mapped into the model, may look like this: [global::System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Storage = "_Name", DbType = "VarChar(128)")] public string Name { get { return this._Name; } set { if ( (this._Name != value) ) { // ... generated stuff goes here } } } The ASP.NET MVC engine also provides a beautiful declarative way to specify some additional stuff, like RequiredAttribute, DisplayNameAttribute and other nice attributes. But since the mapped model is a purely auto-genereated model, I've realized that I should not change the model manually, and specify the fields like: [Required] [DisplayName("Project name")] [StringLength(128)] [global::System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Storage = "_Name", DbType = "VarChar(128)")] public string Name { ... though this approach works perfectly... until I change the model in the DBML-designer removing the ASP.NET MVC attributes automatically. So, how do I specify ASP.NET MVC attributes for the DBML models and their fields safely? Thanks in advance, and Merry Christmas.

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  • C# Entity FrameWork MySQL Slow Queries Count()

    - by Matthew M.
    Hello, I'm having a serious issue with MySQL and Entity Framework 4.0. I have dropped a Table onto the EF Designer surface, and everything seems OK. However, when I perform a query in the following fashion: using(entityContext dc = new entityContext()) { int numRows = dc.myTable.Count(); } The query that is generated looks something like this: SELECT `GroupBy1`.`A1` AS `C1` FROM (SELECT Count(1) AS `A1` FROM (SELECT `pricing table`.`a`, `pricing table`.`b`, `pricing table`.`c`, `pricing table`.`d`, `pricing table`.`e`, `pricing table`.`f`, `pricing table`.`g`, `pricing table`.`h`, `pricing table`.`i` FROM `pricing table` AS `pricing table`) AS `Extent1`) AS `GroupBy1` As should be evident, this is an excruciatingly unoptimized query. It is selecting every single row! This is not optimal, nor is it even possible for me to use MySQL + EF at this point. I have tried both the MySQL 6.3.1 [that was fun to install] and DevArt's dotConnect for MySQL and both produce the same results. This table has 1.5 million records.. and takes 6-11s to execute! What am I doing wrong ? Is there any way to optimize this [and other queries] to produce sane code like: SELECT COUNT(*) FROM table ? Generating the same query using SQLServer takes virtually no time and produces sane code. Help! Thanks! Matthew

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  • Monotouch.dialog and story board apps?

    - by Robin Diederen
    I'm trying to use mt.d; I've "drawn" an app using the storyboard feature of Xcode. My app consists of a tabbar which displays one of three viewcontrollers. Two out of three are simple viewcontrollers (single screens) and one is a splitviewcontroller. The splitview is tricky; using the stock xcode components I've drawn a master / table and a detail view. The table works as expected, but now I want to use mt.d to fill the detailview (later I need it to depend on the selection of the master, but not for now). I've subclassed the splitviewcontroller; in the viewdidload event I've created a mt.d dialogviewcontroller. Now I'm trying to push the dialogviewcontroller to the detailview, using the splitviewcontroller.viewcontrollers array. Doesn't seem to work; when running the app it still some an empty screen for the detail view (as drawn in xcode). Any clues for doing what I want? Thanx!

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  • java distributed cache for low latency, high availability

    - by Shahbaz
    I've never used distributed caches/DHTs like memcached, jboss cache, ehcache, etc. I'm wondering which, if any, is appropriate for my use. First, I'm not doing web applications (as most of these project seem to be geared towards web apps). I write servers (Order Management Systems actually) for financial trading firms. The servers themselves are not too complicated. They need to receive information (market data, orders, executions, etc.) rout them to their destination while possibly transforming some of these messages. I am looking at these products to solve the following problems: * Safe repository of the state of the server. I'd rather build the logic of my application as a bunch of transformers (similar to Apache Camel) and store the state in a 'safe' place * This repository should be distributed: in case one of these data stores crashes, one or two more should be up and I should be able to switch to them seamlessly * This repository should be fast. Single digits milliseconds count here, in other words, systems which consume/process this data are automated systems, not humans clicking on links. This system needs to have high-throughput and low latency. By sending my data outside the process, I am necessarily slowing performance, but I am trying to balance absolute raw speed and absolute protection of data. * This repository should be safe. Similar to the point about several on-line backups, this system needs to write data to disk (potentially more than one disk). I'd really like to stop writing my own 'transaction servers.' Am I correct to be looking into projects such as jboss cache, ehcache, etc.? Thanks

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  • Joining on a common table, how do you get a FULL OUTER JOIN to expand on another table?

    - by stimpy77
    I've scoured StackOverflow and Google for an answer to this problem. I'm trying to create a Microsot SQL Server 2008 view. Not a stored procedure. Not a function. Just a query (i.e. a view). I have three tables. The first table defines a common key, let's say "CompanyID". The other two tables have a sometimes-common field, let's say "EmployeeName". I want a single table result that, when my WHERE clause says "WHERE CompanyID = 12" looks like this: CompanyID | TableA | TableB 12 | John Doe | John Doe 12 | Betty Sue | NULL 12 | NULL | Billy Bob I've tried a FULL OUTER JOIN that looks like this: SELECT Company.CompanyID, TableA.EmployeeName, TableB.EmployeeName FROM Company FULL OUTER JOIN TableA ON Company.CompanyID = TableA.CompanyID FULL OUTER JOIN TableB ON Company.CompanyID = TableB.CompanyID AND (TableA.EmployeeName IS NULL OR TableB.EmployeeName IS NULL OR TableB.EmployeeName = TableA.EmployeeName) I'm only getting the NULL from one matched table, I'm not getting the expansion for the other table. In the above sample, I'm basically only getting the first and third rows and not the second. Can someone help me create this query and show me how this is done correctly? BTW I already have a stored procedure that looks very clean and populates an in-memory table, but that isn't what I want. Thanks.

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  • Parent Control Mouse Enter/Leave Events With Child Controls

    - by Paul Williams
    I have a C# .NET 2.0 WinForms app. My app has a control that is a container for two child controls: a label, and some kind of edit control. You can think of it like this, where the outer box is the parent control: +---------------------------------+ | [Label Control] [Edit Control] | +---------------------------------+ I am trying to do something when the mouse enters or leaves the parent control, but I don't care if the mouse moves into one of its children. I want a single flag to represent "the mouse is somewhere inside the parent or children" and "the mouse has moved outside of the parent control bounds". I've tried handling MouseEnter and MouseLeave on the parent and both child controls, but this means the action begins and ends multiple times as the mouse moves across the control. In other words, I get this: Parent.OnMouseEnter (start doing something) Parent.OnMouseLeave (stop) Child.OnMouseEnter (start doing something) Child.OnMouseLeave (stop) Parent.OnMouseEnter (start doing something) Parent.OnMouseLeave (stop) The intermediate OnMouseLeave events cause some undesired effects as whatever I'm doing gets started and then stopped. I want to avoid that. I don't want to capture the mouse as the parent gets the mouse over, because the child controls need their mouse events, and I want menu and other shortcut keys to work. Is there a way to do this inside the .NET framework? Or do I need to use a Windows mouse hook?

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  • Selecting a Java framework for large application w/ only ONE user

    - by Bijan
    I am building a large application that will be hosted on an AWS server. I'm trying to select a web framework for assisting me with code organization, template design, and generally presentation aspects. Here are some points of consideration: Require security/login/user authentication. I may add the ability in the future to allow more than just an administrator to access the web app, but it is not a public facing website. AJAX support would be helpful. There are a couple widgets that I don't want to recreate. One is a tree object, where the user can expand/contract items in the list, can create new branches, add/edit objects. This would be better off in some dynamic view rather than all done in ugly html. Generally, this is just to provide the application with a face for control, management, and monitoring. Having an easier time adding buttons, CSS, AJAX widgets are great additions though, but not the primary purpose. I'm considering: Wicket Spring Seam GWT Stripe and the list goes on, as I'm sure you all know. I originally planned on using GWT, but then started to feel that GWT didn't cover my primary needs. I could be wrong about this, but there seems to be a lot of support for GWT AND Wicket/Spring. All of this 'getting lost in java frameworks' got me thinking outside the java realm for a framework that would suit my needs that was a clear option, like: JRuby/Rails Jython/Django Groovy/Grails Guice (just throwing this in there... I don't clearly understand the main purposes of all these frameworks. It doesn't seem like DInjection is something I need for a single purpose application) Thanks as always. This community makes Googling for esoteric programming information an order of magnitude better.

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  • Adapting existing HTML/Javascript model to Titanium's latest release (v 0.9)

    - by Alan Neal
    In pre-0.9 versions of Titanium, one could simply specify an .html file (local or remote) in the tiapp.xml file and interact with it in the same manner as one would on a website. As of version 0.9, that is no the longer case. One creates their entire app dynamically. Unfortunately, this broke my previous implementation and, other than an updated Kitchen Sink, much of the new model and API calls are not covered in the documentation (e.g., createLabel). So, my question is this... What are the simplest steps for re-creating the previous effect (knowingly forgoing some of the advantages of the Titanium's latest approach if necessary)? My previous implementation was exactly as it functions on the website. The website has a single index.html file with no content other than links to JavaScript and style files. The document body's onload event called the first JavaScript function (located in the main script) and, from that point forth, the entire content was dynamically created. How can I set up the latest version of Titanium so that I am poised to do the exact same thing? BTW: Whereas I previously had the choice to keep the files local or remote, I don't believe that remote access (e.g., simply using the webView widget to point to the website) is viable. That's because pages displayed via the webView do not have access to most of the API. Since the iPhone and Safari browsers do not support the file input type, the only means for uploading files (something my app requires) is calling Titanium's function. Thanks in advance.

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  • Lucene complex structure search

    - by archer
    Basically I do have pretty simple database that I'd like to index with Lucene. Domains are: // Person domain class Person { Set<Pair> keys; } // Pair domain class Pair { KeyItem keyItem; String value; } // KeyItem domain, name is unique field within the DB (!!) class KeyItem{ String name; } I've tens of millions of profiles and hundreds of millions of Pairs, however, since most of KeyItem's "name" fields duplicates, there are only few dozens KeyItem instances. Came up to that structure to save on KeyItem instances. Basically any Profile with any fields could be saved into that structure. Lets say we've profile with properties - name: Andrew Morton - eduction: University of New South Wales, - country: Australia, - occupation: Linux programmer. To store it, we'll have single Profile instance, 4 KeyItem instances: name, education,country and occupation, and 4 Pair instances with values: "Andrew Morton", "University of New South Wales", "Australia" and "Linux Programmer". All other profile will reference (all or some) same instances of KeyItem: name, education, country and occupation. My question is, how to index all of that so I can search for Profile for some particular values of KeyItem::name and Pair::value. Ideally I'd like that kind of query to work: name:Andrew* AND occupation:Linux* Should I create custom Indexer and Searcher? Or I could use standard ones and just map KeyItem and Pair as Lucene components somehow?

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  • Simple Select Statement on MySQL Database Hanging

    - by AlishahNovin
    I have a very simple sql select statement on a very large table, that is non-normalized. (Not my design at all, I'm just trying to optimize while simultaneously trying to convince the owners of a redesign) Basically, the statement is like this: SELECT FirstName, LastName, FullName, State FROM Activity Where (FirstName=@name OR LastName=@name OR FullName=@name) AND State=@state; Now, FirstName, LastName, FullName and State are all indexed as BTrees, but without prefix - the whole column is indexed. State column is a 2 letter state code. What I'm finding is this: When @name = 'John Smith', and @state = '%' the search is really fast and yields results immediately. When @name = 'John Smith', and @state = 'FL' the search takes 5 minutes (and usually this means the web service times out...) When I remove the FirstName and LastName comparisons, and only use the FullName and State, both cases above work very quickly. When I replace FirstName, LastName, FullName, and State searches, but use LIKE for each search, it works fast for @name='John Smith%' and @state='%', but slow for @name='John Smith%' and @state='FL' When I search against 'John Sm%' and @state='FL' the search finds results immediately When I search against 'John Smi%' and @state='FL' the search takes 5 minutes. Now, just to reiterate - the table is not normalized. The John Smith appears many many times, as do many other users, because there is no reference to some form of users/people table. I'm not sure how many times a single user may appear, but the table itself has 90 Million records. Again, not my design... What I'm wondering is - though there are many many problems with this design, what is causing this specific problem. My guess is that the index trees are just too large that it just takes a very long time traversing the them. (FirstName, LastName, FullName) Anyway, I appreciate anyone's help with this. Like I said, I'm working on convincing them of a redesign, but in the meantime, if I someone could help me figure out what the exact problem is, that'd be fantastic.

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  • HTTP Error: 400 when sending msmq message over http

    - by dontera
    I am developing a solution which will utilize msmq to transmit data between two machines. Due to the seperation of said machines, we need to use HTTP transport for the messages. In my test environment I am using a Windows 7 x64 development machine, which is attempting to send messages using a homebrew app to any of several test machines I have control over. All machines are either windows server 2003 or server 2008 with msmq and msmq http support installed. For any test destination, I can use the following queue path name with success: FORMATNAME:DIRECT=TCP:[machine_name_or_ip]\private$\test_queue But for any test destination, the following always fails FORMATNAME:DIRECT=HTTP://[machine_name_or_ip]/msmq/private$/test_queue I have used all permutations of machine names/ips available. I have created mappings using the method described at this blog post. All result in the same HTTP Error: 400. The following is the code used to send messages: MessageQueue mq = new MessageQueue(queuepath); System.Messaging.Message msg = new System.Messaging.Message { Priority = MessagePriority.Normal, Formatter = new XmlMessageFormatter(), Label = "test" }; msg.Body = txtMessageBody.Text; msg.UseDeadLetterQueue = true; msg.UseJournalQueue = true; msg.AcknowledgeType = AcknowledgeTypes.FullReachQueue | AcknowledgeTypes.FullReceive; msg.AdministrationQueue = new MessageQueue(@".\private$\Ack"); if (SendTransactional) mq.Send(msg, MessageQueueTransactionType.Single); else mq.Send(msg); Additional Information: in the IIS logs on the destination machines I can see each message I send being recorded as a POST with a status code of 200. I am open to any suggestions.

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  • Test Results window in VS2008 not showing results

    - by TimK
    I have an existing solution that has been working for a long time, containing around 600 tests in a couple of test projects. I recently moved to a new PC - it's Win7-x64, and I installed a fresh copy of VS2008. When I first opened the solution on the new machine, the Test List Editor was completely empty. Trying to create a new test list caused the editor to refresh, and now it shows my test lists, but they're acting funny. I can select tests in the lists, and run them, but the results window doesn't usually update automatically to show the results of the latest test. It has done this when running a single test a couple of times, but even that is not consistent. The only way I can view the results is by manually going to the Test Runs window and connecting to individual test runs. When I do that, the results show up in the results list, but I can't check them to re-run the failed tests - the check boxes are all disabled. I guess I should describe the way it used to work, in case that was unusual - I used to select some tests from the Test Lists window, tell it to run them, and the results window would clear itself, and then display the results from the current run. I could then check any tests that I wanted to re-run, and use the run/debug button in the results window to do so. Any ideas what's going on here?

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  • Using R in Processing through rJava/JRI?

    - by tommy-o-dell
    Hi guys, Is it possible to run R in Processing through rJava/JRI? If I deployed a Processing app on the web, would the client need R on their system? I'm looking to create an interactive information dashboard that I can deploy on the web. It seems that Processing is probably my best bet for the interactive/web part of things. Unfortunately, it doesn't look like there are many math/stats functions built-in. And there aren't any libraries for plotting data either. I've been using R and gpplot2 for a few months and am thrilled (amazed) at how easily it manipulates and plots data. So I'm wondering now if can get the best of both worlds and run R through a Processing applet. From the JRI website: JRI is a Java/R Interface, which allows to run R inside Java applications as a single thread. Basically it loads R dynamic library into Java and provides a Java API to R functionality. It supports both simple calls to R functions and a full running REPL. In a sense JRI is the inverse of rJava and both can be combined (i.e. you can run R code inside JRI that calls back to the JVM via rJava). The JGR project makes the full use of both JRI and rJava to provide a full Java GUI for R. JRI uses native code, but it supports all platforms where Sun's Java (or compatible) is available, including Windows, Mac OS X, Sun and Linux (both 32-bit and 64-bit). Thanks for the advice :)

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  • MVC Areas - View not found

    - by user314827
    Hi, I have a project that is using MVC areas. The area has the entire project in it while the main "Views/Controllers/Models" folders outside the Areas are empty barring a dispatch controller I have setup that routes default incoming requests to the Home Controller in my area. This controller has one method as follows:- public ActionResult Index(string id) { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home", new {area = "xyz"}); } I also have a default route setup to use this controller as follows:- routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Default route "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Dispatch", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } ); Any default requests to my site are appropriately routed to the relevant area. The Area's "RegisterArea" method has a single route:- context.MapRoute( "xyz_default", "xyz/{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } My area has multiple controllers with a lot of views. Any call to a specific view in these controller methods like "return View("blah"); renders the correct view. However whenever I try and return a view along with a model object passed in as a parameter I get the following error:- Server Error in '/DeveloperPortal' Application. The view 'blah' or its master was not found. The following locations were searched: ~/Views/Profile/blah.aspx ~/Views/Profile/blah.ascx ~/Views/Shared/blah.aspx ~/Views/Shared/blah.ascx It looks like whenever a model object is passed in as a param. to the "View()" method [e.g. return View("blah",obj) ] it searches for the view in the root of the project instead of in the area specific view folder. What am I missing here ? Thanks in advance.

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  • Generating all unique combinations for "drive ya nuts" puzzle

    - by Yuval A
    A while back I wrote a simple python program to brute-force the single solution for the drive ya nuts puzzle. The puzzle consists of 7 hexagons with the numbers 1-6 on them, and all pieces must be aligned so that each number is adjacent to the same number on the next piece. The puzzle has ~1.4G non-unique possibilities: you have 7! options to sort the pieces by order (for example, center=0, top=1, continuing in clockwise order...). After you sorted the pieces, you can rotate each piece in 6 ways (each piece is a hexagon), so you get 6**7 possible rotations for a given permutation of the 7 pieces. Totalling: 7!*(6**7)=~1.4G possibilities. The following python code generates these possible solutions: def rotations(p): for i in range(len(p)): yield p[i:] + p[:i] def permutations(l): if len(l)<=1: yield l else: for perm in permutations(l[1:]): for i in range(len(perm)+1): yield perm[:i] + l[0:1] + perm[i:] def constructs(l): for p in permutations(l): for c in product(*(rotations(x) for x in p)): yield c However, note that the puzzle has only ~0.2G unique possible solutions, as you must divide the total number of possibilities by 6 since each possible solution is equivalent to 5 other solutions (simply rotate the entire puzzle by 1/6 a turn). Is there a better way to generate only the unique possibilities for this puzzle?

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  • How should I define a composite foreign key for domain constraints in the presence of surrogate keys

    - by Samuel Danielson
    I am writing a new app with Rails so I have an id column on every table. What is the best practice for enforcing domain constraints using foreign keys? I'll outline my thoughts and frustration. Here's what I would imagine as "The Rails Way". It's what I started with. Companies: id: integer, serial company_code: char, unique, not null Invoices: id: integer, serial company_id: integer, not null Products: id: integer, serial sku: char, unique, not null company_id: integer, not null LineItems: id: integer, serial invoice_id: integer, not null, references Invoices (id) product_id: integer, not null, references Products (id) The problem with this is that a product from one company might appear on an invoice for a different company. I added a (company_id: integer, not null) to LineItems, sort of like I'd do if only using natural keys and serials, then added a composite foreign key. LineItems (product_id, company_id) references Products (id, company_id) LineItems (invoice_id, company_id) references Invoices (id, company_id) This properly constrains LineItems to a single company but it seems over-engineered and wrong. company_id in LineItems is extraneous because the surrogate foreign keys are already unique in the foreign table. Postgres requires that I add a unique index for the referenced attributes so I am creating a unique index on (id, company_id) in Products and Invoices, even though id is simply unique. The following table with natural keys and a serial invoice number would not have these issues. LineItems: company_code: char, not null sku: char, not null invoice_id: integer, not null I can ignore the surrogate keys in the LineItems table but this also seems wrong. Why make the database join on char when it has an integer already there to use? Also, doing it exactly like the above would require me to add company_code, a natural foreign key, to Products and Invoices. The compromise... LineItems: company_id: integer, not null sku: integer, not null invoice_id: integer, not null does not require natural foreign keys in other tables but it is still joining on char when there is a integer available. Is there a clean way to enforce domain constraints with foreign keys like God intended, but in the presence of surrogates, without turning the schema and indexes into a complicated mess?

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  • Using jQuery delay() with separate elements

    - by boomturn
    I want to fake a simple animation on page load by sequentially revealing several pngs, each appearing instantly but with unique, precisely timed delay before the next one. Using the latest version of jQuery (1.4.2 at writing), which provides a delay method. My first (braindead) impulse was: $('#image1').show('fast').delay(800); $('#image2').show('fast').delay(1200); $('#image3').show('fast'); Of course all come up simultaneously. jQuery doc examples refer to a single item being chained, not handling multiple items. OK... try again using nested callbacks from show(): $('#image1').show('fast', function() { $('#image2').show('fast', function() { $('#image3').show('fast', function() { }); }); }); Looks ugly (imagine doing 10, also wonder what processor hit would be) but hey, it works sequentially! Without delay though. So... chain delay() after show() using a callback function from it (not even sure if it supports one): $('#image1').show('fast').delay(800, function() { $('#image2').show('fast').delay(1200, function() { $('#image3').show('fast'); }); }); Hm. Opposite result of what I thought might happen: the callback works, but still no delay. So... should I be using some combination of queue and delay instead of nested callbacks? jQuery doc examples for queue again only use one element for example. Guessing this would involve using a custom queue, but am uncertain how to implement this. Or maybe I'm missing a simple way? (For a simple problem!)

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  • Using the MVVM Light Toolkit to make Blendable applications

    - by Dave
    A while ago, I posted a question regarding switching between a Blend-authored GUI and a Visual Studio-authored one. I got it to work okay by adding my Blend project to my VS2008 project and then changing the Startup Application and recompiling. This would result in two applications that had completely different GUIs, yet used the exact same ViewModel and Model code. I was pretty happy with that. Now that I've learned about the Laurent Bugnion's MVVM Light Toolkit, I would really like to leverage his efforts to make this process of supporting multiple GUIs for the same backend code possible. The question is, does the toolkit facilate this, or am I stuck doing it my previous way? I've watched his video from MIX10 and have read some of the articles about it online. However, I've yet to see something that indicates that there is a clean way to allow a user to either dynamically switch GUIs on the fly by loading a different DLL. There are MVVM templates for VS2008 and Blend 3, but am I supposed to create both types of projects for my application and then reference specific files from my VS2008 solution? UPDATE I re-read some information on Laurent's site, and seemed to have forgotten that the whole point of the template was to allow the same solution to be opened in VS2008 and Blend. So anyhow, with this new perspective it looks like the templates are actually intended to use a single GUI, most likely designed entirely in Blend (with the convenience of debugging through VS2008), and then be able to use two different ViewModels -- one for design-time, and one for runtime. So it seems to me like the answer to my question is that I want to use a combination of my previous solution, along with the MVVM Light Toolkit. The former will allow me to make multiple, distinct GUIs around my core code, while the latter will make designing fancy GUIs in Blend easier with the usage of a design-time ViewModel. Can anyone comment on this?

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  • DB2Command ExecuteNonQuery Insert multiple rows problem

    - by DB2 Nubie
    I'm attempting to insert multiple rows into a DB2 database using C# code like this: string query = "INSERT INTO TESTDB2.RG_Table (V,E,L,N,Q,B,S,P) values" + "('lkjlkj', 'iouoiu', '2009-03-27 12:01:19', 'nnne', 'sdfdf', NULL, NULL, NULL)," + "('lkjlk2', 'iuoiu2', '2009-03-27 12:01:19', 'nnne2', 'sddf2', NULL, NULL, NULL)"; DB2Command cmd = new DB2Command(query, this.transactionConnection, this.transaction); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); If I stop building the query string after the first set of values is included it executes without an error. Attempting to load multiple values using this method results in the following error: Upload error : ERROR [42601] [IBM][DB2] SQL0104N An unexpected token "," was found following "". Expected tokens may include: "". SQLSTATE =42601 The SQL syntax matches that which I have read elsewhere, such as http://stackoverflow.com/questions/452859/inserting-multiple-rows-in-a-single-sql-query and IBM's documentation gives this example: cmd = conn.CreateCommand(); cmd.Transaction = trans; cmd.CommandText = "INSERT INTO company_a VALUES(5275, 'Sanders', 20, 'Mgr', 15, 18357.50), " + "(5265, 'Pernal', 20, 'Sales', NULL, 18171.25), " + "(5791, 'O''Brien', 38, 'Sales', 9, 18006.00)"; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); Can anyone explain what could account for this?

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  • Text editor capable of viewing invisibles?

    - by Timo
    A recent problem* left me wondering whether there is a text editor out there that lets you see every single character of the file, even if they are invisible? Specifically, I'm not looking for hex editing capabilities, I am interested in a text editor that'll show me all of the invisible characters (not just the common whitespace / line break characters). The BOM marker is just one example, others are e.g. mathematical invisibles or possibly unsupported characters. I'm not looking for a text editor that simply supports a large variety of text encoding / translations between encodings. All text editors I've come across treat the invisible characters correctly i.e. leave them invisible (or simply get removed in the translation as in the case of the BOM marker). I'm asking this mostly out of academic interests, so I'm not particular about any specific OS. I can easily test Linux and OSX solutions, but if you recommend a Windows editor, I would appreciate if you include descriptions of how the editor handles invisibles other than whitespace / line breaks. *The incident that lead me to this question: I wrote a perl script using TextWrangler and managed to change the encoding to UTF8 BOM, which inserts te BOM marker at the start of the file. Perl (or rather the operating system) promptly misses the #! and mayhem ensues. It then took me the better part of an afternoon to figure this out since most text editors do not show the BOM marker even with various "show invisibles" options turned on. Now I've learned my lesson and will use less immediately :-).

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  • Detection of page refresh / F5 key in ASP.NET MVC 2

    - by Michael
    How would one go about detecting a page refresh / F5 key push on the controller handling the postback? I need to distinguish between the user pressing one of two buttons (e.g., Next, Previous) and when the F5 / page refresh occurs. My scenario is a single wizard page that has different content shown between each invocation of the user pressing the "Next" or "Previous" buttons. The error that I am running into is when the user refreshes the page / presses the F5 key, the browser re-sends the request back to the controller, which is handled as a post-back and the FormCollection type is used to look for the "submitButton" key and obtain its value (e.g., "Next," "Send"). This part was modeled after the post by Dylan Beattie at http://stackoverflow.com/questions/442704/how-do-you-handle-multiple-submit-buttons-in-asp-net-mvc-framework. Maybe I'm trying to bend MVC 2 to where it isn't meant to go but I'd like to stay with the current design in that the underlying database drives the content and order of what is shown. This allows us to add new content into the database without modifying the code the displays the content. Thanks, Michael

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  • Safari Extension Questions

    - by Rob Wilkerson
    I'm in the process of building my first Safari extension--a very simple one--but I've run into a couple of problems. The extension boils down to a single, injected script that attempts to bypass the native feed handler and redirect to an http:// URI. My issues so far are twofold: The "whitelist" isn't working the way I'd expect. Since all feeds are shown under the "feed://" protocol, I've tried to capture that in the whitelist as "feed://*/*" (with nothing in the blacklist), but I end up in a request loop that I can't understand. If I set blacklist values of "http://*/*" and "https://*/*", everything works as expected. I can't figure out how to access my settings from my injected script. The script creates a beforeload event handler, but can't access my settings using the safari.extension.settings path indicated in the documentation. I haven't found anything in Apple's documentation to indicate that settings shouldn't be available from my script. Since extensions are such a new feature, even Google returns limited relevant results and most of those are from the official documentation. What am I missing? Thanks.

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  • Mirth is Not Picking Up Updated JAR File?

    - by ashes999
    I have some Mirth code (javascript) that's consuming one of my Java classes (let's call it SimpleClass). It seems that Mirth is not picking up my changes to my class. SimpleClass used to look something like this: public class Simpleclass { public SimpleClass(String one) { // do something with one } } Now it looks like: public class Simpleclass { public SimpleClass(String one, String two) { // store one and two } public void Execute() { // do something with one and two } } When I try and call SimpleClass with two strings, I get the error "Java constructor for SimpleClass with arguments string, string not found." When I try to run Execute, I get an error similar to "TypeError: method Execute not found." Perplexingly, I can still call SimpleClass("one string") to call the one-string constructor (which is now nowhere to be seen in the code). To get my code to work, I build a JAR file using ant, and deploy it to \\lib\custom. I have tried: Copying the new JAR and restarting Mirth while it's live Copying the new JAR after stopping Mirth, then starting Mirth Looking for other copies of my JAR or Mirth installations (there are none) Unzipping and reverse-engineering the JAR (it has the two-constructor code) Hashing the JAR (it matches what I'm building in ant) Restarting my computer (hey, you never know) I'm at a loss. I'm not sure why I'm not seeing the latest code. My channel has very simple Javascript: var sp = new Packages.com.hs.channel.scarborough.ScarboroughParser("one", "two"); I know it's not a configuration error of any kind, since this used to work (and does still work, albeit with the old code -- single-parameter constructor).

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  • How to explain to someone that a data structure should not draw itself, explaining separation of con

    - by leeand00
    I have another programmer who I'm trying to explain why it is that a UI component should not also be a data-structure. For instance say that you get a data-structure that contains a record-set from the "database", and you wish to display that record-set in a UI component within your application. According to this programmer (who will remain nameless, he's young and I'm teaching him...), we should subclass the data-structure into a class that will draw the UI component within our application!!!!!! And thus according to this logic, the record-set should manage the drawing of the UI. **Head Desk*** I know that asking a record-set to draw itself is wrong, because, if you wish to render the same data-structure on more than one type of component on your UI, you are going to have a real mess on your hands; you'll need to extend yet another class for each and every UI component that you render from the base-class of your record-set; I am well aware of the "cleanliness" of the of the MVC pattern (and by that what I really mean is you don't confuse your data (the Model) with your UI (the view) or the actions that take place on the data (the Controller more or less...okay not really the API should really handle that...and the Controller should just make as few calls to it as it can, telling it which view to render)) But it's certainly alot cleaner than using data-structures to render UI components! Is there any other advice I could send his way other than the example above? I understand that when you first learn OOP you go through "a stage" where you where just want to extend everything. Followed by a stage when you think that Design Patterns are the solution every single problem...which isn't entirely correct either...thanks Jeff. Is there a way that I can gently nudge this kid in the right direction? Do you have any more examples that might help explain my point to him?

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  • Reading CSV files in numpy where delimiter is ","

    - by monch1962
    Hello all, I've got a CSV file with a format that looks like this: "FieldName1", "FieldName2", "FieldName3", "FieldName4" "04/13/2010 14:45:07.008", "7.59484916392", "10", "6.552373" "04/13/2010 14:45:22.010", "6.55478493312", "9", "3.5378543" ... Note that there are double quote characters at the start and end of each line in the CSV file, and the "," string is used to delimit fields within each line. When I try to read this into numpy via: import numpy as np data = np.genfromtxt(csvfile, dtype=None, delimiter=',', names=True) all the data gets read in as string values, surrounded by double-quote characters. Not unreasonable, but not much use to me as I then have to go back and convert every column to its correct type When I use delimiter='","' instead, everything works as I'd like, except for the 1st and last fields. As the start of line and end of line characters are a single double-quote character, this isn't seen as a valid delimiter for the 1st and last fields, so they get read in as e.g. "04/13/2010 14:45:07.008 and 6.552373" - note the leading and trailing double-quote characters respectively. Because of these redundant characters, numpy assumes the 1st and last fields are both String types; I don't want that to be the case Is there a way of instructing numpy to read in files formatted in this fashion as I'd like, without having to go back and "fix" the structure of the numpy array after the initial read?

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