Search Results

Search found 15439 results on 618 pages for 'wls configuration'.

Page 530/618 | < Previous Page | 526 527 528 529 530 531 532 533 534 535 536 537  | Next Page >

  • Can't get automated release working with Hudson + Git + Maven Release Plugin

    - by Christopher Maier
    As the title says, I'm trying to get an automated release job working on Hudson. It's a Maven project, and all the code is in Git. Manually, I do the release on my personal machine like so: git checkout master mvn -B release:prepare release:perform This works perfectly. The Maven release plugin properly pushes the release tag to the origin repository as well as the next commit that bumps the version to the next SNAPSHOT. However, when I run this same Maven job through Hudson (either by creating my own "release" job or by using the M2 Release Plugin) it doesn't work so well. The release tag gets pushed out to the origin repository, and the release gets pushed out to our Nexus repository, but the subsequent commit that bumps the version to the next SNAPSHOT doesn't go out. Furthermore, the "master" branch in the origin repository doesn't get changed at all. I've looked in Hudson's workspace for the job, however, and the version has been updated. After looking at the output from the Hudson job, it appears that the Git plugin does not actually checkout "master", but rather it's SHA1 id. That is, if the "master" branch label points to commit "f6af76f541f1a1719e9835cdb46a183095af6861", Hudson does git checkout -f f6af76f541f1a1719e9835cdb46a183095af6861 instead of git checkout -f master As a result, the changes that the Maven release plugin is making are not actually on any branch (certainly not on "master") and these changes don't make it to the origin repository. It runs on the right code, but bookkeeping-wise, the changes seem to get lost because no branch label points to them. Has anybody gotten the Hudson + Git + Maven Release Plugin combo to work properly? Is there some additional configuration somewhere I can set to make this happen? Or is this a bug in the Hudson Git plugin? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • filterSecurityInterceptor and metadatasource implementation spring-security

    - by Mike
    Hi! I created a class that implements the FilterInvocationSecurityMetadataSource interface. I implemented it like this: public List<ConfigAttribute> getAttributes(Object object) { FilterInvocation fi = (FilterInvocation) object; Object principal = SecurityContextHolder.getContext().getAuthentication().getPrincipal(); Long companyId = ((ExtenededUser) principal).getCompany().getId(); String url = fi.getRequestUrl(); // String httpMethod = fi.getRequest().getMethod(); List<ConfigAttribute> attributes = new ArrayList<ConfigAttribute>(); FilterSecurityService service = (FilterSecurityService) SpringBeanFinder.findBean("filterSecurityService"); Collection<Role> roles = service.getRoles(companyId); for (Role role : roles) { for (View view : role.getViews()) { if (view.getUrl().equalsIgnoreCase(url)) attributes.add(new SecurityConfig(role.getName() + "_" + role.getCompany().getName())); } } return attributes; } when I debug my application I see it reaches this class, it only reaches getAllConfigAttributes method, that is empty as I said, and return null. after that it prints this warning: Could not validate configuration attributes as the SecurityMetadataSource did not return any attributes from getAllConfigAttributes(). My aplicationContext- security is like this: <beans:bean id="filterChainProxy" class="org.springframework.security.web.FilterChainProxy"> <filter-chain-map path-type="ant"> <filter-chain filters="sif,filterSecurityInterceptor" pattern="/**" /> </filter-chain-map> </beans:bean> <beans:bean id="filterSecurityInterceptor" class="org.springframework.security.web.access.intercept.FilterSecurityInterceptor"> <beans:property name="authenticationManager" ref="authenticationManager" /> <beans:property name="accessDecisionManager" ref="accessDecisionManager" /> <beans:property name="securityMetadataSource" ref="filterSecurityMetadataSource" /> </beans:bean> <beans:bean id="filterSecurityMetadataSource" class="com.mycompany.filter.FilterSecurityMetadataSource"> </beans:bean> what could be the problem?

    Read the article

  • Adding SDK-specific frameworks to Xcode

    - by Haentz
    Hi, Xcode 3.2 kind of broke the build process of my iPhone app. I need to add a new framework to my project (MediaPlayer.framework). So I go into my Target settings and try to add it to the "Linked Libraris" by hitting the [+] button. In the list the MediaPlayer.framework is missing, as well as other frameworks, such as UIKit, CoreGraphic and others. Some frameworks are still there. I can add the frameworks by adding the SDK-specific ones (going into /Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOs.platform/...yadayadayada../frameworkd/) but then of course I can only compile for the iPhone platform and not for the simulator any more. So basically I wonder how I can get Xcode back to chose the appropriate framework, depending on platform and SDK version for me? Thanks and kind regards, Hans Schneider Edit: Things I tried: Setting the Base SDK to 3.0 (was still 2.2.1), reinstalling 3.0 iPhone and Simulator SDK from the "packages" directory of the Xcode 3.2 DMG. Didn't help. The frameworks still wont show up in the list... Edit 2: Ok, I now have the frameworks back in the list, I was previously in my AdHoc configuration. In Debug I have the frameworks back. But it still wont compile for the Simualtor (lots of Symbols(s) not found errors). Looks like the linker doesn't choose the correct libraries and always uses the iPhoneOs3.0 path for the frameworks.

    Read the article

  • Deploying ASP.NET MVC to IIS6: pages are just blank

    - by BryanGrimes
    I have an MVC app that is actually on a couple other servers but I didn't do the deploy. For this deploy I have added the wildcard to aspnet_isapi.dll which has gotten rid of the 404 error. But the pages are not pulling up, rather everything is just blank. I can't seem to find any IIS configuration differences. The Global asax.cs file does have routing defined, but as I've seen on a working server, that file isn't just hanging out in the root or anything so obvious. What could I be missing here? All of the servers are running IIS6 and I have compared the setups and they look the same to me at this point. Thanks... Bryan EDIT for the comments thus far: I've looked in the event logs with no luck, and scoured various IIS logs per David Wang: blogs.msdn.com. Below is the Global.asax.cs file... public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.IgnoreRoute("error.axd"); // for Elmah // For deployment to IIS6 routes.Add(new Route ( "{controller}.mvc/{action}/{id}", new RouteValueDictionary(new { action = "Index", id = (string)null }), new MvcRouteHandler() )); routes.MapRoute( "WeeklyTimeSave", "Time/Save", new { controller = "Time", action = "Save" } ); routes.MapRoute( "WeeklyTimeAdd", "Time/Add", new { controller = "Time", action = "Add" } ); routes.MapRoute( "WeeklyTimeEdit", "Time/Edit/{id}", new { controller = "Time", action = "Edit", id = "" } ); routes.MapRoute( "FromSalesforce", "Home/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" }); routes.MapRoute( "Default2", "{controller}/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } ); routes.MapRoute( "Default", "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } ); } protected void Application_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } } Maybe this is as stupid as the asax file not being somewhere it needs to be, but heck if I know at this point.

    Read the article

  • Redirect website from http to https

    - by MaG3Stican
    I have a website stored on azure for which I got an SSL certificate. I am trying to redirect www.mywebsite.com to https://www.mywebsite.com but with no success. I am using the following code that should change the configuration of IIS where my project is deployed : <system.webServer> <rewrite> <rules> <rule name="Redirect to HTTPS"> <match url="(.*)" /> <conditions> <add input="{HTTPS}" pattern="off" ignoreCase="true" /> <add input="{URL}" pattern="/$" negate="true" /> <add input="{REQUEST_FILENAME}" matchType="IsFile" negate="true" /> </conditions> <action type="Redirect" url="https://{SERVER_NAME}/{R:1}" redirectType="SeeOther" /> </rule> </rules> </rewrite> But when I type my URL it does not redirect to https. By the way, rewrite appears unrecorgnized by Intellisense.

    Read the article

  • Can ElementTree be told to preserve the order of attributes?

    - by dmckee
    I've written a fairly simple filter in python using ElementTree to munge the contexts of some xml files. And it works, more or less. But it reorders the attributes of various tags, and I'd like it to not do that. Does anyone know a switch I can throw to make it keep them in specified order? Context for this I'm working with and on a particle physics tool that has a complex, but oddly limited configuration system based on xml files. Among the many things setup that way are the paths to various static data files. These paths are hardcoded into the existing xml and there are no facilities for setting or varying them based on environment variables, and in our local installation they are necessarily in a different place. This isn't a disaster because the combined source- and build-control tool we're using allows us to shadow certain files with local copies. But even thought the data fields are static the xml isn't, so I've written a script for fixing the paths, but with the attribute rearrangement diffs between the local and master versions are harder to read than necessary. This is my first time taking ElementTree for a spin (and only my fifth or sixth python project) so maybe I'm just doing it wrong. Abstracted for simplicity the code looks like this: tree = elementtree.ElementTree.parse(inputfile) i = tree.getiterator() for e in i: e.text = filter(e.text) tree.write(outputfile) Reasonable or dumb? Related links: How can I get the order of an element attribute list using Python xml.sax? Preserve order of attributes when modifying with minidom

    Read the article

  • How to use a int2 database-field as a boolean in Java using JPA/Hibernate

    - by mg
    Hello... I write an application based on an already existing database (postgreSQL) using JPA and Hibernate. There is a int2-column (activeYN) in a table, which is used as a boolean (0 = false (inactive), not 0 = true (active)). In the Java application i want to use this attribute as a boolean. So i defined the attribute like this: @Entity public class ModelClass implements Serializable { /*..... some Code .... */ private boolean active; @Column(name="activeYN") public boolean isActive() { return this.active; } /* .... some other Code ... */ } But there ist an exception because Hibernate expects an boolean database-field and not an int2. Can i do this mapping i any way while using a boolean in java?? I have a possible solution for this, but i don't really like it: My "hacky"-solution is the following: @Entity public class ModelClass implements Serializable { /*..... some Code .... */ private short active_USED_BY_JPA; //short because i need int2 /** * @Deprecated this method is only used by JPA. Use the method isActive() */ @Column(name="activeYN") public short getActive_USED_BY_JPA() { return this.active_USED_BY_JPA; } /** * @Deprecated this method is only used by JPA. * Use the method setActive(boolean active) */ public void setActive_USED_BY_JPA(short active) { this.active_USED_BY_JPA = active; } @Transient //jpa will ignore transient marked methods public boolean isActive() { return getActive_USED_BY_JPA() != 0; } @Transient public void setActive(boolean active) { this.setActive_USED_BY_JPA = active ? -1 : 0; } /* .... some other Code ... */ } Are there any other solutions for this problem? The "hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto"-value in the hibernate configuration is set to "validate". (sorry, my english is not the best, i hope you understand it anyway)..

    Read the article

  • PHP: Get instance of static class by string value

    - by Tirithen
    I'm working on a php web api that was handed to me with a lot of code that needs to be refactored. The ones that wrote the code wanted to include a static configuration class to an api resource and then get an instance of that class something like this: <?php $obj = "User"; $confObjectSuffix = "_conf"; $confObject = $obj.$confObjectSuffix; if ($confObject::inst()->checkMethod($method)) { ..... This gives the error "Parse error: syntax error, unexpected T_PAAMAYIM_NEKUDOTAYIM in ....." since $confObject is a string and not a object. I wrote some testcode: <?php $class = "User_conf"; echo "<pre>"; print_r($$class::Inst()); echo "</pre>"; class User_conf { private static $INSTANCE = null; public static function Inst() { if(User_conf::$INSTANCE === null) { User_conf::$INSTANCE = new User_conf(); } return User_conf::$INSTANCE; } } But can't get it to work with $$ either, is there some other way around this? I don't want to rewrite more than necessary.

    Read the article

  • Simple Enterprise Library console application refuses to compile

    - by Vadim
    I just downloaded and installed Microsoft Enterprise Library 5.0. I fired up VS 2010 to play with EL 5 and created a very simple console application. However, it would not compile. I got the following error: The type or namespace name 'Data' does not exist in the namespace 'Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary' (are you missing an assembly reference?) I added Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Common, Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Data, and Microsoft.Practices.Unity references to my project. Here's the simple code that refuses to compile. using Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Common.Configuration.Unity; using Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Data; using Microsoft.Practices.Unity; namespace EntLib { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { IUnityContainer container = new UnityContainer(); container.AddNewExtension<EnterpriseLibraryCoreExtension>(); var defaultDatabase = container.Resolve<Database>(); } } } The error above complains about line #2 : using Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Data; Someone probably will point out to a stupid mistake by me, but at the moment I fail to see it. I tried to remove and add again Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Data to refences but it didn't help.

    Read the article

  • Using MSBuild 4 command line to publish ASP.NET web application

    - by meandmycode
    In previous msbuild we used the target '_CopyWebApplication' in order to build and convert the source of a project into a published site, this worked OK, but wasn't ideal. In .NET 4, the publishing process is somewhat more sophisticated and additionally seems a bit of a black box to understand. Whilst packages look great, I cannot fully understand how they can be harnessed by a build server, the build server would not get any manifest information, and equally, something (msbuild?) is CREATING this manifest information FROM the project file. In our build server, I ideally want to say, here is my csproj file, deploy it by the package configuration 'x'. I'm trying to understand the workflow I need to make this happen. Right now when I use _CopyWebApplication, the result is different to doing a publish from visual studio 2010, primarily that web.config transforms aren't processed, and obviously msdeploy isn't involved at all. Can somebody point me in the right direction, I believe I need to get msbuild to do the equiv of 'Build Deployment Package', and then use msdeploy to deploy this from our build server to our CI testing environments. I know this is a very vague post, but I hope somebody can give me some hints, I'll be continuing research also, so if I make any progress, I'll post my findings here. Thanks in advance, Stephen.

    Read the article

  • Publishing artifacts with sources on archiva

    - by Palimondo
    At work I'm dipping my toes in managing project dependencies with maven. We use Apache Archiva (1.2.1) as a local repository and proxy. I'm adding artifact for open source project, that is not published on any public repository. I've learned that to publish the sources I should use the Classifier field on Upload artifact page. The sources are then listed alongside the jar and pom when I browse the repository. But when I update my maven dependencies I get only the jar and pom from the repository. I noticed that sources are also missing when the archiva proxies for me the downloads from other public repositories. I didn't find any configuration options in Archiva's admin pages to serve the sources... What am I missing? Update: I was missing the fact that artifact sources have to be downloaded manually. I.e. the maven client has to request them, which is controlled by command line option -DdownloadSources=true. Maven Integration for Eclipse has a preference setting to always download them as described in Resolving artifact sources. Archiva then serves the sources for local artifacts or proxies the request to remote repositories and caches the sources for future requests.

    Read the article

  • Why delete-orphan needs "cascade all" to run in JPA/Hibernate ?

    - by Jerome C.
    Hello, I try to map a one-to-many relation with cascade "remove" (jpa) and "delete-orphan", because I don't want children to be saved or persist when the parent is saved or persist (security reasons due to client to server (GWT, Gilead)) But this configuration doesn't work. When I try with cascade "all", it runs. Why the delete-orphan option needs a cascade "all" to run ? here is the code (without id or other fields for simplicity, the class Thread defines a simple many-to-one property without cascade): when using the removeThread function in a transactional function, it does not run but if I edit cascade.Remove into cascade.All, it runs. @Entity public class Forum { private List<ForumThread> threads; /** * @return the topics */ @OneToMany(mappedBy = "parent", cascade = CascadeType.REMOVE, fetch = FetchType.LAZY) @Cascade(org.hibernate.annotations.CascadeType.DELETE_ORPHAN) public List<ForumThread> getThreads() { return threads; } /** * @param topics the topics to set */ public void setThreads(List<ForumThread> threads) { this.threads = threads; } public void addThread(ForumThread thread) { getThreads().add(thread); thread.setParent(this); } public void removeThread(ForumThread thread) { getThreads().remove(thread); } } thanks.

    Read the article

  • StructureMap problems with bidirectional/circular dependencies

    - by leozilla
    I am currently integrating StructureMap within our business layer but have problems because of bidirectional dependencies. The layer contains multiple manager where each manager can call methods on each other, there are no restrictions or rules for communication. This also includes possible circular dependencies like in the example below. I know the design itself is questionable but currently we just want StructureMap to work and will focus on further refactoring in the future. Every manager implements the IManager interface internal interface IManager { bool IsStarted { get; } void Start(); void Stop(); } And does also have his own specific interface. internal interface IManagerA : IManager { void ALogic(); } internal interface IManagerB : IManager { void BLogic(); } Here are to dummy manager implementations. internal class ManagerA : IManagerA { public IManagerB ManagerB { get; set; } public void ALogic() { } public bool IsStarted { get; private set; } public void Start() { } public void Stop() { } } internal class ManagerB : IManagerB { public IManagerA ManagerA { get; set; } public void BLogic() { } public bool IsStarted { get; private set; } public void Start() { } public void Stop() { } } Here is the StructureMap configuration i use atm. I am still not sure how i should register the managers so currently i use a manual registration. Maybee someone could help me with this too. For<IManagerA>().Singleton().Use<ManagerA>(); For<IManagerB>().Singleton().Use<ManagerB>(); SetAllProperties(convention => { // configure the property injection for all managers convention.Matching(prop => typeof(IManager).IsAssignableFrom(prop.PropertyType)); }); After all i cannot create IManagerA because StructureMap complians about the circular dependency between ManagerA and ManagerB. Is there an easy and clean solution to solve this problem but keep to current design? br David

    Read the article

  • Can a large transaction log cause cpu hikes to occur

    - by Simon Rigby
    Hello all, I have a client with a very large database on Sql Server 2005. The total space allocated to the db is 15Gb with roughly 5Gb to the db and 10 Gb to the transaction log. Just recently a web application that is connecting to that db is timing out. I have traced the actions on the web page and examined the queries that execute whilst these web operation are performed. There is nothing untoward in the execution plan. The query itself used multiple joins but completes very quickly. However, the db server's CPU hikes to 100% for a few seconds. The issue occurs when several simultaneous users are working on the system (when I say multiple .. read about 5). Under this timeouts start to occur. I suppose my question is, can a large transaction log cause issues with CPU performance? There is about 12Gb of free space on the disk currently. The configuration is a little out of my hands but the db and log are both on the same physical disk. I appreciate that the log file is massive and needs attending to, but I'm just looking for a heads up as to whether this may cause CPU spikes (ie trying to find the correlation). The timeouts are a recent thing and this app has been responsive for a few years (ie its a recent manifestation). Many Thanks,

    Read the article

  • Insert records using ExecuteNonQuery, showing exception that invalid column name

    - by tina
    Hi all, I am using SQL Server 2008. I want to insert records into a table using ExecuteNonQuery, for that I have written: customUtility.ExecuteNonQuery("insert into furniture_ProductAccessories(Product_id, Accessories_id, SkuNo, Description1, Price, Discount) values(" + prodid + "," + strAcc + "," + txtSKUNo.Text + "," + txtAccDesc.Text + "," + txtAccPrices.Text + "," + txtAccDiscount.Text + ")"); & following is ExecuteNonQuery function: public static bool ExecuteNonQuery(string SQL) { bool retVal = false; using (SqlConnection con = new SqlConnection(System.Web.Configuration.WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["dbConnect"].ToString())) { con.Open(); SqlTransaction trans = con.BeginTransaction(); SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand(SQL, con, trans); try { command.ExecuteNonQuery(); trans.Commit(); retVal = true; } catch(Exception ex) { //HttpContext.Current.Response.Write(SQL + "<br>" + ex.Message); //HttpContext.Current.Response.End(); } finally { // Always call Close when done reading. con.Close(); } return retVal; } } but it showing exception that invalid column name to Description1 and even it's value which coming from txtAccDesc.Text. I have tried by removing Description1 column, other records are getting inserted successfully. Could you please help me? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Deliver large volume of automatic notification emails without being throttled

    - by jack
    I think most website has certain needs to deliver emails to its users, e.g. account activation emails, private messsage notification, comment notification, etc. Take my site as example, among 5,000 registered users, about 1,500 signed up using gmail.com box, 1,000 using yahoo.com and another 1,000 using hotmail.com. Every now and then I receive complaints from users that they never receive account activation email, sometime it goes to junk folder sometimes it just not show in any folder. Maybe it's kind of being "throttled" when exceeded maximum number of messages sent from same ip address to gmail.com/yahoo.com/hotmail.com during certain period of time? I'm using Postfix and there seems no problem with configuration since 90% of emails can be delivered to gmail.com/yahoo.com/hotmail.com boxes successfully. I noticed twitter is delivering millions of such automatic notifications to its users but I never missed a message from them. How do they archive this? Is there a permanent white list on gmail.com, yahoo.com or hotmail.com? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Auto-resolving a hostname in WCF Metadata Publishing

    - by Mike C
    I am running a self-hosted WCF service. In the service configuration, I am using localhost in my BaseAddresses that I hook my endpoints to. When trying to connect to an endpoint using the WCF test client, I have no problem connecting to the endpoint and getting the metadata using the machine's name. The problem that I run into is that the client that is generated from metadata uses localhost in the endpoint URLs it wants to connect to. I'm assuming that this is because localhost is the endpoint URL published by metadata. As a result, any calls to the methods on the service will fail since localhost on the calling machine isn't running the service. What I would like to figure out is if it is possible for the service metadata to publish the proper URL to a client depending on the client who is calling it. For example, if I was requesting the service metadata from a machine on the same network as the server the endpoint should be net.tcp://MYSERVER:1234/MyEndpoint. If I was requesting it from a machine outside the network, the URL should be net.tcp://MYSERVER.mydomain.com:1234/MyEndpoint. And obviously if the client was on the same machine, THEN the URL could be net.tcp://localhost:1234/MyEndpoint. Is this just a flaw in the default IMetadataExchange contract? Is there some reason the metadata needs to publish the information in a non-contextual way? Is there another way I should be configuring my BaseAddresses in order to get the functionality I want? Thanks, Mike

    Read the article

  • Can FAXCOMEXLib and Windows Fax Service send a color fax?

    - by Craig
    We are in the process of testing different options for sending faxes from within our C# code (receiving faxes is not necessary). One of those options is to use FAXCOMEXLib. Without surprise, I've had pretty good success sending out black & white faxes with FAXCOMExLib. But we also have a requirement to support sending color faxes. So I execute the following code (just a snippet): IFaxDocument oFaxDoc = new FaxDocumentClass(); oFaxDoc.Body = @"C:\Test\color_image.jpg"; oFaxDoc.ConnectedSubmit(m_oFaxServer); The image is 24bit color, 1728x2304, 204x196 dpi. For the most part, this process works (with a couple of small quirks) and the fax shows up in my "Windows Fax and Scan" outbox (I'm on Vista). The problem is the image has been dithered to a 1bit black & white image. I assume that what I see in "Windows Fax and Scan" is what is actually transmitted. So is there a way to send a color fax using this technology? Are we missing a configuration option somewhere to make it work?

    Read the article

  • Web API Getting Http 500 error : Issue Solved See Below

    - by Joe Grasso
    Here is my MVC Controller and everything is fine: private UnitOfWork UOW; public InventoryController() { UOW = new UnitOfWork(); } // GET: /Inventory/ public ActionResult Index() { var products = UOW.ProductRepository.GetAll().ToList(); return View(products); } Same method call in API Controller gives me an Http 500 Error: private UnitOfWork _unitOfWork; public TestController() { _unitOfWork = new UnitOfWork(); } public IEnumerable<Product> Get() { var products = _unitOfWork.ProductRepository.GetAll().ToList(); return products; } Debugging shows that indeed there is data being returned in both controllers' UOW calls. I then added a customer configuration in Global: public static void CustomizeConfig(HttpConfiguration config) { config.Formatters.Remove(config.Formatters.XmlFormatter); var json = config.Formatters.JsonFormatter; json.SerializerSettings.ContractResolver = new CamelCasePropertyNamesContractResolver(); } I am still receiving an Http 500 in API Controller ONLY and at a loss as to why. Any ideas? UPDATE: It appears using lazy loading caused the problem. When I set the associated properties to NON-VIRTUAL the Test API provided the necessary JSON string. However, whereas before I had the Vendor class included, I only have VendorId. I really wanted to included the associated classes. Any ideas? I know there are alot of smart people out there. Anyone?

    Read the article

  • Deleting a non-owned dynamic array through a pointer

    - by ayanzo
    Hello all, I'm relatively novice when it comes to C++ as I was weened on Java for much of my undergraduate curriculum (tis a shame). Memory management has been a hassle, but I've purchased a number books on ansi C and C++. I've poked around the related questions, but couldn't find one that matched this particular criteria. Maybe it's so obvious nobody mentions it? This question has been bugging me, but I feel as if there's a conceptual point i'm not utilizing. Suppose: char original[56]; cstr[0] = 'a'; cstr[1] = 'b'; cstr[2] = 'c'; cstr[3] = 'd'; cstr[4] = 'e'; cstr[5] = '\0'; char *shaved = shavecstr(cstr); delete[] cstrn; where char* shavecstr(char* cstr) { size_t len = strlen(cstr); char* ncstr = new char[len]; strcpy(ncstr,cstr); return ncstr; } In that the whole point is to have 'original' be a buffer that fills with characters and routinely has its copy shaved and used elsewhere. To prevent leaks, I want to free up the memory held by 'shaved' to be used again after it passes through some arguments. There is probably a good reason for why this is restricted, but there should be some way to free the memory as by this configuration, there is no way to access the original owner (pointer) of the data.

    Read the article

  • WPF - Why doesn't Microsoft supply a decent set of most-used controls ?

    - by IUsedToBeAPygmy
    I've been playing with WPF for some months now, and I quite like it. But one of the things I don't get is why MS doesn't put a little more effort in helping developers by supplying basic controls, and I need to get this off my chest :) For example, I figure most applications somewhere will need to let you edit some properties - for configuration or whatever. What would be the most used types in a proprety-grid editor ? text numbers (byte, float/double, int, etc) colors ....etc. So why isn't there even something as simple as a control to edit numbers ? Like a generic NumericUpDown control that allows you to type in numbers (no text, no pasting invalid input) or spin them up/down according to some given rules (decimal, floating point, min/maxvalue) ? Why isn't there a generic colorpicker, so people get the same user-experience in every application ? Why isn't there a standard implementation of a SearchTextBox, a BreadCrumb-control, or all these other standard control types users have gotten accustomed to the last 10 years ? (..but at least they DID have the time to implement a generic splashscreen - because everyone knows that greatly increases user-productivity....) The well-known ideal is always to give people the same user-experience over different applications. So even if some of those controls would be easy to make - it would be preferred to have one version over different applications. I see people all over the internet trying to do the same stuff over and over again. Okay, so MS started a WPF Toolkit project on Codeplex that tries to implement some controls, but only did so half-heartedly and is completely dead by now (last update of the roadmap dates back to Mar 21 2009). The result of this is that a lot of people starting a WPF-project end up spending a lot of time on trying to figure out how to create some generic controls and get really frustrated. Wasn't the mantra "Developers, developers, developers!" ..? /Rant

    Read the article

  • Error // Usage: rails new APP_PATH [options] // when running 'rails server'

    - by madphill
    Background info: I'm using GIT to get a repository of a project with Ruby files in it. The project lives in my SITES folder under home directory on my Mac. I have Ruby: 1.8.7 I have just upgraded Rails to: 3.0.3 All I am trying to accomplish is to be able to render localhost.com:3000 in my browser of the GIT project i've already downloaded so I can work on it locally. I ran the command 'rails server' and was returned the message below:: Usage: rails new APP_PATH [options] Options: [--skip-gemfile] # Don't create a Gemfile -m, [--template=TEMPLATE] # Path to an application template (can be a filesystem path or URL) -d, [--database=DATABASE] # Preconfigure for selected database (options: mysql/oracle/postgresql/sqlite3/frontbase/ibm_db) # Default: sqlite3 -O, [--skip-active-record] # Skip Active Record files -J, [--skip-prototype] # Skip Prototype files -T, [--skip-test-unit] # Skip Test::Unit files [--dev] # Setup the application with Gemfile pointing to your Rails checkout -r, [--ruby=PATH] # Path to the Ruby binary of your choice # Default: /System/Library/Frameworks/Ruby.framework/Versions/1.8/usr/bin/ruby -G, [--skip-git] # Skip Git ignores and keeps -b, [--builder=BUILDER] # Path to an application builder (can be a filesystem path or URL) [--edge] # Setup the application with Gemfile pointing to Rails repository Runtime options: -f, [--force] # Overwrite files that already exist -s, [--skip] # Skip files that already exist -p, [--pretend] # Run but do not make any changes -q, [--quiet] # Supress status output Rails options: -h, [--help] # Show this help message and quit -v, [--version] # Show Rails version number and quit Description: The 'rails new' command creates a new Rails application with a default directory structure and configuration at the path you specify. Example: rails new ~/Code/Ruby/weblog This generates a skeletal Rails installation in ~/Code/Ruby/weblog. See the README in the newly created application to get going.

    Read the article

  • Struts2 Tiles in Google app engine

    - by user365941
    I am trying to build an java web application using struts2 and tiles in Google App Engine. Below is my tiles.xml file <!DOCTYPE tiles-definitions PUBLIC "-//Apache Software Foundation//DTD Tiles Configuration 2.0//EN" "http://tiles.apache.org/dtds/tiles-config_2_0.dtd"> <tiles-definitions> <definition name="baseLayout" template="BaseLayout.jsp"> <put-attribute name="title" value="" /> <put-attribute name="header" value="Header.jsp" /> <put-attribute name="body" value="" /> <put-attribute name="footer" value="Footer.jsp" /> </definition> <definition name="/welcome.tiles" extends="baseLayout"> <put-attribute name="title" value="Welcome" /> <put-attribute name="body" value="Welcome.jsp" /> </definition> </tiles-definitions> But when I run the app,I am not getting any error. it just prints "Header.jsp Welcome.jsp Footer.jsp". It does not show the actual jsp pages. Please advise on what needs to be done. Thanks in advance Regards

    Read the article

  • SSL certificate pre-fetch .NET

    - by Wil P
    I am writing a utility that would allow me to monitor the health of our websites. This consists of a series of validation tasks that I can run against a web application. One of the tests is to anticipate the expiration of a particular SSL certificate. I am looking for a way to pre-fetch the SSL certificate installed on a web site using .NET or a WINAPI so that I can validate the expiration date of the certificate associated with a particular website. One way I could do this is to cache the certificates when they are validated in the ServicePointManager.ServerCertificateValidationCallback handler and then match them up with configured web sites, but this seems a bit hackish. Another would be to configure the application with the certificate for the website, but I'd rather avoid this if I can in order to minimize configuration. What would be the easiest way for me to download an SSL certificate associated with a website using .NET so that I can inspect the information the certificate contains to validate it? EDIT: To extend on the answer below there is no need to manually create the ServicePoint prior to creating the request. It is generated on the request object as part of executing the request. private static string GetSSLExpiration(string url) { HttpWebRequest request = WebRequest.Create(url) as HttpWebRequest; using (WebResponse response = request.GetResponse()) { } if (request.ServicePoint.Certificate != null) { return request.ServicePoint.Certificate.GetExpirationDateString(); } else { return string.Empty; } }

    Read the article

  • .Net Architecture challenge: The Change-prone Frankestein Model

    - by SDReyes
    Good Morning SO! We've been scratching our heads with with this interesting scenario at the office, and we're anxious to hear your ideas and approaches: We have a database, whose schema is prone to changes -lets call it Prony-. (is used to store configuration parameters for embedded devices. so if the embedded devices guy need a new table, property or relationship for the model, he should be able to adapt the schema in a easy way -happens so often- ). Prony needs a web interface to create/edit its data. We have another database containing data that also need to be loaded to the devices, after making some transformations - lets call this one Oddy- (this data it's generated by an already existent administrative web application). Finally we have Tracy, a server that communicates our DBs and our embedded devices. She should to auto-adapt herself, to our dbs schema changes and serialize the data to the devices. Nice puzzle, don't think so? : ) Our current candidates: Rady: The fast Lets create some views in Prony that make the data transformation from Oddy. then use DynamicData (or some RAD tool) to create/update a simple web interface for Prony (so he can even consult the transformated data from coming from Prony : ). About Tracy, she will need to be recompiled to update her DB schema (Entity framework should work) and use Reflection to explore recursively the schema and serialize data. Cons: We would have to recompile Tracy and the Prony's web interface. What do you think of the candidate(s)? What would you do?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 526 527 528 529 530 531 532 533 534 535 536 537  | Next Page >