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• Adding new records in Access without wrecking the form

  - by Matt Parker

  I'm working on a simple Access 2003 application to keep track of things that need to be done for clients for some colleagues. Each colleague has a set of clients, and each client has a set of actions that need to be taken by a certain date. I've set up a form that consists of a combobox for client ID (indexed), a drop-down for the person who is handling that client's case, and a button for adding new clients (a standard Access-created Add Record button). The actions are listed in a subform below these three elements. The problem I've run into is that the first person I tested this on clicked the button to add a new record, then didn't fill it out and tried to select another client from the drop-down list. Access interprets this as an attempt to set the selected Client ID as the ID for the new record and rightfully throws an error for duplicate primary keys. I can think of a couple of ways around this problem, but I'd much rather hear your elegant solutions than kludge together some junk in a language I don't know. Let me know if you have any questions. Thank you.

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• NEED your opinion on .net Profile class VS session vars

  - by Ted

  To save trips to sql db in my older apps, I store *dozens of data points about the current user in an array and then store the array in a session. For example, info that might be used repeatedly during user’s session might be stored… Dim a(7) as string a(0) = “FirstName” a(1) = “LastName” a(2) = “Address” a(3) = “Address2” a(4) = “City” a(5) = “State” a(6) = “Zip” session.add(“s_a”, a) *Some apps have an array 100 in size. That is something I learned in my asp classic days. Referencing the correct index can be laborsome and I find it difficult to go back and add another data point in the array grouped with like data. For example, suppose I need to add Middle Initial to the array as a design alteration. Unless I redo the whole index mapping, I have to stick Middle Initial in the next open slot, which might be in the 50s. NOW, I am considering doing something easier to reference each time (eliminating the need to know the index of the value wanted). So I am looking to do this… session.add(“Firstname”, “FirstName”) session.add(“Lastname”, “LastName”) session.add(“Address”, “Address”) etc. BUT, before I do this, I would like some guidance. I am afraid this might be less efficient, even though easier to use. I don’t know if a new session object is created for each data point or if there is only one session object, and I am adding a name/value pair to that object? If I am adding a name/value pair to a single object, that seems like a good idea. Does anyone know? Or is there a more preferred way? Built-in Profile class? Re: Profile class I have an internal debate about scope. It seems that the .net Profile class is good for storing app-SPECIFIC user settings (i.e. style theme, object display properties, user role, etc.) The examples I give are information whose values are selected/edited by the user to customize the application experience. This information is not typically stored/edited elsewhere in the app db. But when you have data that 1) is stored already in the app db and 2) can be altered by other users (in this case: company reps may update client's status, address, etc.), then the persistence of the Profile data may be an issue. In this case, the Profile would need to be reset at the beginning and dropped like a session.abandon at the end of each user's session to prevent reloading info that had since been edited by someone. I believe this is possible, but not sure Currently, I use the session array to store both scopes, app-specific and user-specific data. If my session plan is good, I think I will create a class to set/get values from the session also. I appreciate your thoughts. I would like to know how others have handled this type of situation. Thanks.

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• Keeping video viewing statistics breakdown by video time in a database

  - by Septagram

  I need to keep a number of statistics about the videos being watched, and one of them is what parts of the video are being watched most. The design I came up with is to split the video into 256 intervals and keep the floating-point number of views for each of them. I receive the data as a number of intervals the user watched continuously. The problem is how to store them. There are two solutions I see. Row per every video segment Let's have a database table like this: CREATE TABLE `video_heatmap` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `video_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `position` tinyint(3) unsigned NOT NULL, `views` float NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), UNIQUE KEY `idx_lookup` (`video_id`,`position`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM Then, whenever we have to process a number of views, make sure there are the respective database rows and add appropriate values to the views column. I found out it's a lot faster if the existence of rows is taken care of first (SELECT COUNT(*) of rows for a given video and INSERT IGNORE if they are lacking), and then a number of update queries is used like this: UPDATE video_heatmap SET views = views + ? WHERE video_id = ? AND position >= ? AND position < ? This seems, however, a little bloated. The other solution I came up with is Row per video, update in transactions A table will look (sort of) like this: CREATE TABLE video ( id INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, heatmap BINARY (4 * 256) NOT NULL, ... ) ENGINE=InnoDB Then, upon every time a view needs to be stored, it will be done in a transaction with consistent snapshot, in a sequence like this: If the video doesn't exist in the database, it is created. A row is retrieved, heatmap, an array of floats stored in the binary form, is converted into a form more friendly for processing (in PHP). Values in the array are increased appropriately and the array is converted back. Row is changed via UPDATE query. So far the advantages can be summed up like this: First approach Stores data as floats, not as some magical binary array. Doesn't require transaction support, so doesn't require InnoDB, and we're using MyISAM for everything at the moment, so there won't be any need to mix storage engines. (only applies in my specific situation) Doesn't require a transaction WITH CONSISTENT SNAPSHOT. I don't know what are the performance penalties of those. I already implemented it and it works. (only applies in my specific situation) Second approach Is using a lot less storage space (the first approach is storing video ID 256 times and stores position for every segment of the video, not to mention primary key). Should scale better, because of InnoDB's per-row locking as opposed to MyISAM's table locking. Might generally work faster because there are a lot less requests being made. Easier to implement in code (although the other one is already implemented). So, what should I do? If it wasn't for the rest of our system using MyISAM consistently, I'd go with the second approach, but currently I'm leaning to the first one. But maybe there are some reasons to favour one approach or another?

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• How can I run some common code from both (a) scheduled via Windows Task & (b) manually from within W

  - by Greg

  Hi, QUESTION - How can I run some common code from both (a) scheduled via Windows Task & (b) manually from within WinForms app? BACKGROUND: This follows on from the http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2489999/how-can-i-schedule-tasks-in-a-winforms-app thread REQUIREMENTS C# .NETv3.5 project using VS2008 There is an existing function which I want to run both (a) manually from within the WinForms application, and (b) scheduled via Windows Task. APPROACHES So what I'm trying to understand is what options are there to make this work eg Is it possible for a windows task to trigger a function to run within a running/existing WinForms application? (doesn't sound solid I guess) Split code out into two projects and duplicate for both console application that the task manager would run AND code that the winforms app would run Create a common library and re-use this for both the above-mentioned projects in the bullet above Create a service with an interface that both the task manager can access plus the winforms app can manage Actually each of these approaches sounds quite messy/complex - would be really nice to drop back to have the code only once within the one project in VS2008, the only reason I ask about this is I need to have a scheduling function and the suggestion has been to use http://taskscheduler.codeplex.com/ as the means to do this, which takes the scheduling out of my VS2008 project... thanks

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• How to translate the fields of a database model?

  - by Tõnis M

  I have some tables/models in a web app that will have multilingual content. For example a university, with it's description in a default language(english) and the user wants he can see the same information in another language( if the object has it's fields translated). If there were only a few languages then I would just add fields like name_en and name_de and so on, but the number of languages isn't fixed, so that' would create a mess. I could also just create a new object with the translated data but then foreign keys wouldn't work, and only some of the fields can be translated so that would create duplicate data. Storing the translations in a file and using gettext or something similar is also not an option since the objects fields can be translated by the website user, not only developers/admins. What would be the best way to design/architect such a database? Searching from the translated data should also be not too complex - as it should not require creating complex joins which would make the queries slower I'm using PostgreSQL and Ruby of Rails but I'm not looking for a technical solution but for a general idea how to design it.

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• iOS - is it possible to cache CGContextDrawImage?

  - by woot586

  I used the timing profile tool to identify that 95% of the time is spent calling the function CGContextDrawImage. In my app there are a lot of duplicate images repeatably being chopped from a sprite map and drawn to the screen. I was wondering if it was possible to cache the output of CGContextDrawImage in an NSMutableDictionay, then if the same sprite is requested again it can be just pull it from the cache rather than doing all the work of clipping and rendering it again. This is what i’ve got but I have not been to successful: Definitions if(cache == NULL) cache = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc]init]; //Identifier based on the name of the sprite and location within the sprite. NSString* identifier = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@-%d",filename,frame]; Adding to cache CGRect clippedRect = CGRectMake(0, 0, clipRect.size.width, clipRect.size.height); CGContextClipToRect( context, clippedRect); //create a rect equivalent to the full size of the image //offset the rect by the X and Y we want to start the crop //from in order to cut off anything before them CGRect drawRect = CGRectMake(clipRect.origin.x * -1, clipRect.origin.y * -1, atlas.size.width, atlas.size.height); //draw the image to our clipped context using our offset rect CGContextDrawImage(context, drawRect, atlas.CGImage); [cache setValue:UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext() forKey:identifier]; UIGraphicsEndImageContext(); Rendering a cached sprite There is probably a better way to render CGImage which is my ultimate caching goal but at the moment I’m just looking to successfully render the cached image out however this has not been successful. UIImage* cachedImage = [cache objectForKey:identifier]; if(cachedImage){ NSLog(@"Cached %@",identifier); CGRect imageRect = CGRectMake(0, 0, cachedImage.size.width, cachedImage.size.height); if (NULL != UIGraphicsBeginImageContextWithOptions) UIGraphicsBeginImageContextWithOptions(imageRect.size, NO, 0); else UIGraphicsBeginImageContext(imageRect.size); //Use draw for now just to see if the image renders out ok CGContextDrawImage(context, imageRect, cachedImage.CGImage); UIGraphicsEndImageContext(); }

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• database table design

  - by e.b.white

  I design the tables as below for the system which looks like a package delivering system For example, after user received the package, postman should record in system, and the state(history table) is "delivered",and operator is this postman, the current state(state table) is of course "delivered" history table: +---------------+--------------------------+ | Field | Desc | +---------------+--------------------------+ | id | PRIMARY KEY | +---------------+--------------------------+ | package_id | package_tacking_id | +---------------+--------------------------+ | state | package_state | +---------------+--------------------------+ | operators | operators | +---------------+--------------------------+ | create_time| create_time | +---------------+--------------------------+ state table: +---------------+--------------------------+ | Field | Desc | +---------------+--------------------------+ | id | PRIMARY KEY | +---------------+--------------------------+ | package_id | package_tacking_id | +---------------+--------------------------+ | state | latest_package_state | +---------------+--------------------------+ Above is just the basic information to record, some other information( like invoice, destination,...) should be recored as well. But there are different service types like s1 and s2, for s1 it is not needed to record invoice but s1 need, and maybe s1 need some other information to record (like the tel of end user). After all, at delivering way stations there are additional information to record, and for different service type the information type is different. My question is: 1. For different service type, shall I need to declare different tables(option A) or just one big table which can record all information for all types(option B)? 2. If option A, since the basic information above is MUST, how can prevent from declaring there duplicate fields in different tables?

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• Alternate colors on click with jQuery

  - by Jace Cotton

  I'm sure there is a simple solution to this, and I'm sure this is a duplicate question, though I have been unable to solve my solution particularly because I don't really know how to phrase it in order to search for other questions/solutions, so I'm coming here hoping for some help. Basically, I have spans with classes that assigns a background-color property, and inside those spans are words. I have three of these spans, and each time a user clicks on a span I want the class to change (thus changing the background color and inner text). HTML: <span class="alternate"> <span class="blue showing">Lorem</span> <span class="green">Ipsum</span> <span class="red">Dolor</span> </span> CSS: .alternate span { display : none } .alternate .showing { display : inline } .blue { background : blue } .green { background : green } .red { background : red } jQuery: $(".alternate span").each(function() { $(this).on("click", function() { $(this).removeClass("showing"); $(this).next().addClass("showing"); }); }); This solution works great using $.next until I get to the third click, whereafter .showing is removed, and is not added since there are no more $.next options. How do I, after getting to the last-child, add .showing to the first-child and then start over? I have tried various options including if($(".alternate span:last-child").hasClass("showing")) { etc. etc. }, and I attempted to use an array and for loop though I failed to make it work. Newb question, I know, but I can't seem to solve this so as a last resort I'm coming here.

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• ASP ListView - Eval() as formatted number, Bind() as unformatted?

  - by chucknelson

  I have an ASP ListView, and have a very simple requirement to display numbers as formatted w/ a comma (12,123), while they need to bind to the database without formatting (12123). I am using a standard setup - ListView with a datasource attached, using Bind(). I converted from some older code, so I'm not using ASP.NET controls, just form inputs...but I don't think it matters for this: <asp:SqlDataSource ID="MySqlDataSource" runat="server" ConnectionString='<%$ ConnectionStrings:ConnectionString1 %>' SelectCommand="SELECT NUMSTR FROM MY_TABLE WHERE ID = @ID" UpdateCommand= "UPDATE MY_TABLE SET NUMSTR = @NUMSTR WHERE ID = @ID"> </asp:SqlDataSource> <asp:ListView ID="MyListView" runat="server" DataSourceID="MySqlDataSource"> <LayoutTemplate> <div id="itemplaceholder" runat="server"></div> </LayoutTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <input type="text" name="NUMSTR" ID="NUMSTR" runat="server" value='<%#Bind("NUMSTR")%>' /> <asp:Button ID="UpdateButton" runat="server" Text="Update" Commandname="Update" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:ListView> In the example above, NUMSTR is a number, but stored as a string in a SqlServer 2008 database. I'm also using the ItemTemplate as read and edit templates, to save on duplicate HTML. In the example, I only get the unformatted number. If I convert the field to an integer (via the SELECT) and use a format string like Bind("NUMSTR", "{0:###,###}"), it writes the formatted number to the database, and then fails when it tries to read it again (can't convert with the comma in there). Is there any elegant/simple solution to this? It's so easy to get the two-way binding going, and I would think there has to be a way to easily format things as well... Oh, and I'm trying to avoid the standard ItemTemplate and EditItemTemplate approach, just for sheer amount of markup required for that. Thanks!

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• Is it possible to have WAMP run httpd.exe as user [myself] instead of local SYSTEM?

  - by Olivier H

  Hello! I run a django application over apache with mod_wsgi, using WAMP. A certain URL allows me to stream the content of image files, the paths of which are stored in database. The files can be located whether on local machine or under network drive (\my\network\folder). With the development server (manage.py runserver), I have no trouble at all reading and streaming the files. With WAMP, and with network drive files, I get a IOError : obviously because the httpd instance does not have read permission on said drive. In the task manager, I see that httpd.exe is run by SYSTEM. I would like to tell WAMP to run the server as [myself] as I have read and write permissions on the shared folder. (eventually, the production server should be run by a 'www-admin' user having the permissions) Mapping the network shared folder on a drive letter (Z: for instance) does not solve this at all. The User/Group directives in httpd.conf do not seem to have any kind of influence on Apache's behaviour. I've also regedited : I tried to duplicate the HKLM[...]\wampapache registry key under HK_CURRENT_USER\ and rename the original key, but then the new key does not seem to be found when I cmd this > httpd.exe -n wampapache -k start or when I run WAMP. I've run out of ideas :) Has anybody ever had the same issue?

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• MVC design pattern in complex iPad app: is one fat controller acceptable?

  - by nutsmuggler

  I am building a complex iPad application; think of it as a scrapbook. For the purpose of this question, let's consider a page with two images over it. My main view displays my doc data rendered as a single UIImage; this because I need to do some global manipulation over them. This is my DisplayView. When editing I need to instantiate an EditorView with my two images as subviews; this way I can interact with a single image, (rotate it, scale it, move it). When editing is triggered, I hide my DisplayView and show my EditorView. In a iPhone app, I'd associate each main view (that is, a view filling the screen) to a view controller. The problem is here there is just one view controller; I've considered passing the EditorView via a modal view controller, but it's not an option (there a complex layout with a mask covering everything and palettes over it; rebuilding it in the EditorView would create duplicate code). Presently the EditorView incorporates some logic (loads data from the model, invokes some subviews for fine editing, saves data back to the model); EditorView subviews also incorporate some logic (I manipulate images and pass them back to the main EditorView). I feel this logic belongs more to a controller. On the other hand, I am not sure making my only view controller so fat a good idea. What is the best, cocoa-ish implementation of such a class structure? Feel free to ask for clarifications. Cheers.

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• mod_rewrite: no access to real files and directories

  - by tshabalala

  Hello. I use mod_rewrite/.htaccess for pretty URLs. I forward all the requests to my index.php, like this: RewriteRule ^/?([a-zA-Z0-9/-]+)/?$ /index.php [NC,L] The index.php then handles the requests. I'm also using this condition/rule to eliminate trailing slashes (or rather rewrite them to the URL without a trailing slash, with a 301 redirect; I'm doing this to avoid duplicate content and because I like no trailing slashes better): RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^\.localhost$ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.+)/$ http://%{HTTP_HOST}/$1 [R=301,L] This works well, except that I now get an infinite loop when trying to access a (real) directory (the rewrite rule removes the trailing slash, the server adds it again, ...). I solved this by setting the DirectorySlash directive to Off: DirectorySlash Off I don't know how good this solution is, I don't feel too confident about it tbh. Anyway, what I'd like to do is completely ignore "real" files and directories, since I don't need them and I only use pretty URLs with "virtual" files/directories anyway. This would allow me to avoid the DirectorySlash workaround/hack too. Is this possible? Thanks!

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• Algorithm to determine if array contains n...n+m?

  - by Kyle Cronin

  I saw this question on Reddit, and there were no positive solutions presented, and I thought it would be a perfect question to ask here. This was in a thread about interview questions: Write a method that takes an int array of size m, and returns (True/False) if the array consists of the numbers n...n+m-1, all numbers in that range and only numbers in that range. The array is not guaranteed to be sorted. (For instance, {2,3,4} would return true. {1,3,1} would return false, {1,2,4} would return false. The problem I had with this one is that my interviewer kept asking me to optimize (faster O(n), less memory, etc), to the point where he claimed you could do it in one pass of the array using a constant amount of memory. Never figured that one out. Along with your solutions please indicate if they assume that the array contains unique items. Also indicate if your solution assumes the sequence starts at 1. (I've modified the question slightly to allow cases where it goes 2, 3, 4...) edit: I am now of the opinion that there does not exist a linear in time and constant in space algorithm that handles duplicates. Can anyone verify this? The duplicate problem boils down to testing to see if the array contains duplicates in O(n) time, O(1) space. If this can be done you can simply test first and if there are no duplicates run the algorithms posted. So can you test for dupes in O(n) time O(1) space?

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• Separate "Year" to several worksheets according to one column....

  - by HACHI

  hello! This task is driving me mad... please help! Instead of manually type in the data, i have used VBA to find the year range, put into one column and delete all duplicate ones. But since excel could give more than 20 years, it would be tedious to do all the filtering manually. AND, now i need excel to separate the rows that contain the specific year range in any one the three columns and put them into a new sheet. e.g. The years that excel could find in the three columns(F:H) are ( 2001,2003,2006,2010, 2012,2020.....2033).. and they are pasted in column "S" in sheet 1. How could i tell excel create new sheets for the years ( sheets 2001, sheets 2003, sheet2006....),search through column (F:H) in sheet 1 to see if ANY of those columns contain that year, and paste them into the new sheet. To be more specific, in the newly created "Sheet 2001", the entire row where column(F:H) contains "2001" should be pasted. and in the newly created "Sheet 2033", the entire row where column(F:H) contains "2033" should be pasted.. Enclosed please find the reference. http://www.speedyshare.com/files/23851477/Book32.xls I have got sheet "2002" and "2003" here as results but for the real one i will need more years' sheets (as many as how many excel could extract in the previous stage; as shown in column L ) ...... I think this task should be quite usual (extracting by date), but i couldn't google the result....Pleas help!!I am very clueless about how to do LOOPING.. so please advice and give in more details! Thanks

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• codeigniter cron job with http access

  - by user1313850

  Sorry if this is a duplicate question...I've searched around and found similar advice but nothing that helps my exact problem. And please excuse the noob questions, CRON is a new thing for me. I have a codeigniter script that scrapes the html DOM of another site and stores some of that in a database. I'd like to run this script at a regular interval. This has lead me to looking into cron jobs. The page I have is at myserver.com/index.php/update I realize I can run a cron job with curl and run this page. If I want to be a bit more secure I can put a string at the end like: myserver.com/index.php/update/asdfh2784fufds And check for that in my CI controller. This seems like it would be mostly secure, but doesn't seem like the "right" way to do things. I've looked into running CI from the command line, and can execute basic pages like: php index.php mycontroller But when I try to do: php index.php update It doesn't work. I suspect this is because it needs to use HTTP to scrape the DOM of the outside page. So, my question: How do I securely run a codeigniter script with a cron job that needs HTTP access?

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• Haskell: monadic takeWhile?

  - by Mark Rushakoff

  I have some functions written in C that I call from Haskell. These functions return IO (CInt). Sometimes I want to run all of the functions regardless of what any of them return, and this is easy. For sake of example code, this is the general idea of what's happening currently: Prelude> let f x = print x >> return x Prelude> mapM_ f [0..5] 0 1 2 3 4 5 Prelude> I get my desired side effects, and I don't care about the results. But now I need to stop execution immediately after the first item that doesn't return my desired result. Let's say a return value of 4 or higher requires execution to stop - then what I want to do is this: Prelude> takeWhile (<4) $ mapM f [0..5] Which gives me this error: <interactive:1:22: Couldn't match expected type `[b]' against inferred type `IO a' In the first argument of `mapM', namely `f' In the second argument of `($)', namely `mapM f ([0 .. 5])' In the expression: takeWhile (< 4) $ mapM f ([0 .. 5]) And that makes sense to me - the result is still contained in the IO monad, and I can't just compare two values contained in the IO monad. I know this is precisely the purpose of monads -- chaining results together and discarding operations when a certain condition is met -- but is there an easy way to "wrap up" the IO monad in this case to stop executing the chain upon a condition of my choosing, without writing an instance of MonadPlus? Can I just "unlift" the values from f, for the purposes of the takeWhile? Is this a solution where functors fit? Functors haven't "clicked" with me yet, but I sort of have the impression that this might be a good situation to use them. Update: @sth has the closest answer to what I want - in fact, that's almost exactly what I was going for, but I'd still like to see whether there is a standard solution that isn't explicitly recursive -- this is Haskell, after all! Looking back on how I worded my question, now I can see that I wasn't clear enough about my desired behavior. The f function I used above for an example was merely an example. The real functions are written in C and used exclusively for their side effects. I can't use @Tom's suggestion of mapM_ f (takeWhile (&lt;4) [0..5]) because I have no idea whether any input will really result in success or failure until executed. I don't actually care about the returned list, either -- I just want to call the C functions until either the list is exhausted or the first C function returns a failure code. In C-style pseudocode, my behavior would be: do { result = function_with_side_effects(input_list[index++]); } while (result == success && index < max_index); So again, @sth's answer performs the exact behavior that I want, except that the results may (should?) be discarded. A dropWhileM_ function would be equivalent for my purposes. Why isn't there a function like that or takeWhileM_ in Control.Monad? I see that there was a similar discussion on a mailing list, but it appears that nothing has come of that.

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• Indexing table with duplicates MySQL/SQL Server with millions of records

  - by Tesnep

  I need help in indexing in MySQL. I have a table in MySQL with following rows: ID Store_ID Feature_ID Order_ID Viewed_Date Deal_ID IsTrial The ID is auto generated. Store_ID goes from 1 - 8. Feature_ID from 1 - let's say 100. Viewed Date is Date and time on which the data is inserted. IsTrial is either 0 or 1. You can ignore Order_ID and Deal_ID from this discussion. There are millions of data in the table and we have a reporting backend that needs to view the number of views in a certain period or overall where trial is 0 for a particular store id and for a particular feature. The query takes the form of: select count(viewed_date) from theTable where viewed_date between '2009-12-01' and '2010-12-31' and store_id = '2' and feature_id = '12' and Istrial = 0 In SQL Server you can have a filtered index to use for Istrial. Is there anything similar to this in MySQL? Also, Store_ID and Feature_ID have a lot of duplicate data. I created an index using Store_ID and Feature_ID. Although this seems to have decreased the search period, I need better improvement than this. Right now I have more than 4 million rows. To search for a particular query like the one above, it looks at 3.5 million rows in order to give me the count of 500k rows. PS. I forgot to add view_date filter in the query. Now I have done this.

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• How can I write a function template for all types with a particular type trait?

  - by TC

  Consider the following example: struct Scanner { template <typename T> T get(); }; template <> string Scanner::get() { return string("string"); } template <> int Scanner::get() { return 10; } int main() { Scanner scanner; string s = scanner.get<string>(); int i = scanner.get<int>(); } The Scanner class is used to extract tokens from some source. The above code works fine, but fails when I try to get other integral types like a char or an unsigned int. The code to read these types is exactly the same as the code to read an int. I could just duplicate the code for all other integral types I'd like to read, but I'd rather define one function template for all integral types. I've tried the following: struct Scanner { template <typename T> typename enable_if<boost::is_integral<T>, T>::type get(); }; Which works like a charm, but I am unsure how to get Scanner::get<string>() to function again. So, how can I write code so that I can do scanner.get<string>() and scanner.get<any integral type>() and have a single definition to read all integral types? Update: bonus question: What if I want to accept more than one range of classes based on some traits? For example: how should I approach this problem if I want to have three get functions that accept (i) integral types (ii) floating point types (iii) strings, respectively.

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• Tracking a fragment of a file in two places with git

  - by mabraham

  Hi, I have code such as void myfunc() { introduction(); while(condition()) { complex(); loop(); interior(); code(); } cleanup(); } which I wish to duplicate into two versions, viz: void myfuncA() { introduction(); minorchangeA(); while(condition()) { complex(); loop(); interior(); code(); } cleanup(); } void myfuncB() { introduction(); minorchangeB(); while(condition()) { complex(); modifiedB(); loop(); interior(); code(); } cleanup(); extracleanupB(); } git claims to track content rather than files, so do I need to tell it that there are chunks here that are common to both myfuncA and myfuncB so that when merging with upstream changes to myfunc that those changes should propagate to both myfuncA and myfuncB? If so, how? The code could be written so that myfuncAB did the correct thing at each point by testing for condition A or B, but that could seriously hinder readability or performance.

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• What do I do about a Java program that spawned two instaces of itself?

  - by user288915

  I have a java JAR file that is triggered by a SQL server job. It's been running successfully for months. The process pulls in a structured flat file to a staging database then pushes that data into an XML file. However yesterday the process was triggered twice at the same time. I can tell from a log file that gets created, it looks like the process ran twice simultaneously. This caused a lot of issues and the XML file that it kicked out was malformed and contained duplicate nodes etc. My question is, is this a known issue with Java JVM's spawning multiple instances of itself? Or should I be looking at sql server as the culprit? I'm looking into 'socket locking' or file locking to prevent multiple instances in the future. This is the first instance of this issue that I've ever heard of. More info: The job is scheduled to run every minute. The job triggers a .bat file that contains the java.exe - jar filename.jar The java program runs, scans a directory for a file and then executes a loop to process if the file if it finds one. After it processes the file it runs another loop that kicks out XML messages. I can provide code samples if that would help. Thank you, Kevin

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• .htaccess - alias all www-only requests to subdirectory

  - by CodeMoose

  Trying to install the wonderful Concrete5 CMS to use as my main site engine - the problem is it has about 15 different files and directories, and they clutter up my root. I'd really like to move it to a /_concrete/ subdirectory, and still maintain it in the domain root. htaccess has never been my strong suit - after a lot of research and learning, and a lot of error 500s, my frustration is overriding my pride and I'm posting here. Here's exactly what I'm trying to accomplish: Any requests that come through www.domain.com are forwarded to www.domain.com/_concrete/, except in the case of an existing file. The end-user URL shouldn't change - they will still see the site as www.domain.com, even though they're being served www.domain.com/_concrete/. Multiple subdomains exist on this site as sub-folders within the root - thus, only requests coming through www.domain.com should be redirected. Here's the closest I got with my htaccess, which produces an error 500: RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^(www\.)?domain\.com [NC] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !^_concrete RewriteRule ^(.*)$ _concrete/$1 [L,QSA] This is the result of 4 hours of sweat and blood (mostly blood), so I have to be close. I'm hoping one of your fine minds can point out a stupid mistake and put this thing to rest swiftly. Thanks for your time! Addendum: I previously posted .htaccess - alias domain root to subfolder a while ago, which got me started. Please don't fall into the trap of thinking it's a duplicate.

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• Handling primary key duplicates in a data warehouse load

  - by Meff

  I'm currently building an ETL system to load a data warehouse from a transactional system. The grain of my fact table is the transaction level. In order to ensure I don't load duplicate rows I've put a primary key on the fact table, which is the transaction ID. I've encountered a problem with transactions being reversed - In the transactional database this is done via a status, which I pick up and I can work out if the transaction is being done, or rolled back so I can load a reversal row in the warehouse. However, the reversal row will have the same transaction ID and so I get a primary key violation. I've solved this for now by negating the primary key, so transaction ID 1 would be a payment, and transaction ID -1 (In the warehouse only) would be the reversal. I have considered an alternative of generating a BIT column, where 0 is normal and 1 is reversal, then making the PK the transaction ID and the BIT column. My question is, is this a good practice, and has anyone else encountered anything like this? For reference, this is a payment processing system, so values will not be modified, so there will only ever be transactions and reversals.

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• C#: Determine Type for (De-)Serialization

  - by dbemerlin

  Hi, i have a little problem implementing some serialization/deserialization logic. I have several classes that each take a different type of Request object, all implementing a common interface and inheriting from a default implementation: This is how i think it should be: Requests interface IRequest { public String Action {get;set;} } class DefaultRequest : IRequest { public String Action {get;set;} } class LoginRequest : DefaultRequest { public String User {get;set;} public String Pass {get;set;} } Handlers interface IHandler<T> { public Type GetRequestType(); public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel model, T request); } class DefaultHandler<T> : IHandler<T> // Used as fallback if the handler cannot be determined { public Type GetRequestType() { return /* ....... how to get the Type of T? ((new T()).GetType()) ? .......... */ } public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel model, T request) { /* ... */ } } class LoginHandler : DefaultHandler<LoginRequest> { public IResponse HandleRequest(IModel mode, LoginRequest request) { } } Calling class Controller { public ProcessRequest(String action, String serializedRequest) { IHandler handler = GetHandlerForAction(action); IRequest request = serializer.Deserialize<handler.GetRequestType()>(serializedRequest); handler(this.Model, request); } } Is what i think of even possible? My current Solution is that each handler gets the serialized String and is itself responsible for deserialization. This is not a good solution as it contains duplicate code, the beginning of each HandleRequest method looks the same (FooRequest request = Deserialize(serializedRequest); + try/catch and other Error Handling on failed deserialization). Embedding type information into the serialized Data is not possible and not intended. Thanks for any Hints.

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• Sys. engineer has decided to dynamically transform all XSLs into DLLs on website build process. DLL

  - by John Sullivan

  Hello, OS: Win XP. Here is my situation. I have a browser based application. It is "wrapped" in a Visual Basic application. Our "Systems Engineer Senior" has decided to spawn DLL files from all of our XSL pages (many of which have duplicate names) upon building a new instance of the website and have the active server pages (ASPX) use the DLL instead. This has created a "known issue" in which ~200 DLL naming conflicts occur and, thus, half of our application is broken. I think a solution to this problem is that, thankfully, we're generating the names of the DLLs and linking them up with our application dynamically. Therefore we can do something kludgy like generate a hash and append it to the end of the DLL file name when we build our website, then always reference the DLL that had some kind of random string / hash appended to its name. Aside from outright renaming the DLLs, is there another way to have multiple DLLs with the same name register for one application? I think the answer is "No, only between different applications using a special technique." Please confirm. Another question I have on my mind is whether this whole idea is a good practice -- converting our XSL pages (which we use in mass -- every time a response from our web app occurs) into DLL functions that call a "function" to do what the XSL page did via an active server page (ASPX), when we were before just sending an XML response to an XSL page via aspx.

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• posting array of text fields using jquery and ajax

  - by tabia

  i dont want to use serialize() function please help me with this. I am a beginner html <input type='button' value='Add Tier Flavor' id='Add'> <input type='button' value='Remove Tier Flavor' id='Remove'> <div id='batch'> <div id="BatchDiv1"> <h4>Batch #1 :</h4> <label>Flavor<input class="textbox" type='text' id="fl1" name="fl[]" value=""/></label></br> <label>Filling<input class="textbox" type='text' id="fi1" name="fi[]" value="" /></label></br> <label>Frosting<input class="textbox" type='text' id="fr1" name="fr[]" value=""/></label></br> </div> </div> <br> </div> this is a dynamically added fields using javascript the code is: javascript <script src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-1.10.1.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ var counter = 2; $("#Add").click(function () { if(counter>5){ alert("Only 5 Tiers allow"); return false; } var newBatchBoxDiv = $(document.createElement('div')).attr("id", 'BatchDiv' + counter); newBatchBoxDiv.html('<h4>Batch #'+ counter + ' : </h4>' + '<label> Flavor<input type="text" name="fl[]" id="fl' + counter + '" value=""></label><br>'+ '<label> Filling<input type="text" name="fi[]" id="fi' + counter + '" value=""></label><br>'+ '<label> Frosting<input type="text" name="fr[]" id="fr' + counter + '" value=""></label><br>' ); newBatchBoxDiv.appendTo("#batch"); counter++; }); $("#Remove").click(function () { if(counter==1){ alert("No more tier to remove"); return false; } counter--; $("#BatchDiv" + counter).remove(); }); }); </script> i am trying to post the values in an array to post it onto next .php page i am using this var user_cupfl = $('input[name^="fl"]').serialize(); var user_cupfi = $('input[name^="fi"]').serialize(); var user_cupfr = $('input[name^="fr"]').serialize(); serialize is not passing the values. :( on second page i am trying to mail it using $message .= "<tr><td><strong>Cake Flavors(according to batches):</strong> </td><td><pre>" .implode("\n", $user_cupfl). "</pre></td></tr>"; $message .= "<tr><td><strong>Filling type (Inside the cake):</strong> </td><td><pre>" .implode("\n", $user_cupfi). "</pre></td></tr>"; $message .= "<tr><td><strong>Frosting type (top of the cake):</strong> </td><td><pre>" .implode("\n", $user_cupfr). "</pre></td></tr>"; i m posting array like this $user_cupfl=filter_var($_POST["userCupfl"], FILTER_SANITIZE_STRING); $user_cupfi=filter_var($_POST["userCupfi"], FILTER_SANITIZE_STRING); $user_cupfr=filter_var($_POST["userCupfr"], FILTER_SANITIZE_STRING); your replies will be highly appreciated

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