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  • How to submit Nothing as a route value to ASP MVC

    - by Adam
    I have a route with several optional parameters. These are possible search terms in different fields. So, for example, if I have fields key, itemtype and text then I have in global.asax: routes.MapRoute( _ "Search", _ "Admin.aspx/Search/{Key}/{ItemType}/{Text}", _ New With {.controller = "Admin", .action = "Search" .Key = Nothing, .ItemType = Nothing, .Text = Nothing} _ ) My action takes optional parameters: Function Search(Optional ByVal Key As String = Nothing, _ Optional ByVal ItemType As Integer = 0, _ Optional ByVal Text As String = Nothing, _ Optional ByVal OtherText As String = Nothing) It then checks if the Key and Text strings have a non-null (and non-empty) value and adds search terms to the db request as needed. However, is it possible to send in a null value for, for example, Key but still send in a value for Text? If so, what does the URL look like? (Admin.aspx/Search//0/Foo doesn't work :) ) I know I can handle this using a parameter array instead, but wondered if this was possible using the sort of route described? I could of course define some other value as equivalent to null (for example, a space/%20) but is there any way to send a null value in the URL? I'm suspecting not, but thought I'd see if anyone knew of one. I'm using ASP MVC 2 for this project.

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  • Type or namespace could not be found

    - by Jason Shultz
    I'm using LINQ to SQL to connect my database to my home page. I created my datacontext (named businessModel.dbml) In it I have two tables named Category and Business. In home controller I reference the model and attempt to return to the view the table: var dataContext = new businessModelDataContext(); var business = from b in dataContext.Businesses select b; ViewData["WelcomeMessage"] = "Welcome to Jerome, Arizona!"; ViewData["MottoMessage"] = "Largest Ghost Town in America!"; return View(business); and in the view I have this: <%@ Import Namespace="WelcomeToJerome.Models" %> and <% foreach (business b in (IEnumerable)ViewData.Model) { %> <li><%= b.Title %></li> <% } %> Yet, in the view business is cursed with the red underline and say's that The type or namespace name 'business' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) What am I doing wrong? This has had me stumped all afternoon. link to all the code in pastebin: http://pastebin.com/es4RnS2q

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  • Rails: generating URLs for actions in JSON response

    - by Chris Butler
    In a view I am generating an HTML canvas of figures based on model data in an app. In the view I am preloading JSON model data in the page like this (to avoid an initial request back): <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> <% ActiveRecord::Base.include_root_in_json = false -%> var objects = <%= @objects.to_json(:include => :other_objects) %>; ... Based on mouse (or touch) interaction I want to redirect to other parts of my app that are model specific (such as view, edit, delete, etc.). Rather than hard code the URLs in my JavaScript I want to generate them from Rails (which means it always adapts the latest routes). It seems like I have one of three options: Add an empty attr to the model that the controller fills in with the appropriate URL (we don't want to use routes in the model) before the JSON is generated Generate custom JSON where I add the different URLs manually Generate the URL as a template from Rails and replace the IDs in JavaScript as appropriate I am starting to lean towards #1 for ease of implementation and maintainability. Are there any other options that I am missing? Is #1 not the best? Thanks! Chris

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  • Angular ng-style not changing with property

    - by ganaraj
    For the life of me I cant seem to figure out why the style property is not getting updated. In my larger application it seems to work fine. http://jsfiddle.net/ganarajpr/C2hRa/4/ Here is a fiddle which shows the issue I am currently facing. You will notice that the width and height are getting updated in the div when you change the input. But the style itself doesnt seem to be updating. Anyone can tell me what I am doing wrong here? I have tried all the following scenarios using $scope.$apply.. - Throws an error stating $apply already in progress.. $rootScope.$apply - same as above. Setting another variable in a service which is $watched in the other controller. - no change seen. It would be really cool if someone can get me an answer to this. Also would be really happy if you can tell me why exactly it is not getting updated.

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  • How to display a generic error page in Asp.Net MVC 2

    - by Picflight
    I have the following in my base controller: protected override void OnException(ExceptionContext filterContext) { if (filterContext == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("filterContext"); } // If custom errors are disabled, we need to let the normal ASP.NET exception handler // execute so that the user can see useful debugging information. if (filterContext.ExceptionHandled || !filterContext.HttpContext.IsCustomErrorEnabled) { return; } Exception exception = filterContext.Exception; // If this is not an HTTP 500 (for example, if somebody throws an HTTP 404 from an action method), // ignore it. if (new HttpException(null, exception).GetHttpCode() != 500) { return; } // TODO: What is the namespace for ExceptionType? //if (!ExceptionType.IsInstanceOfType(exception)) //{ // return; //} // Send Email MailException(exception); // TODO: What does this line do? base.OnException(filterContext); filterContext.Result = new ViewResult { ViewName = "Error" }; filterContext.ExceptionHandled = true; filterContext.HttpContext.Response.Clear(); filterContext.HttpContext.Response.StatusCode = 500; } In my Shared folder, I have an Error.aspx View. Web.config <customErrors mode="On" /> I am still seeing the yellow screen when an exception occurs. What am I doing incorrectly?

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  • jquery post and get request different on local intranet and live server

    - by nccsbim071
    Hi, I have been developing an asp.net mvc application where i need to make large amounts of jquery post and get request to call controller methods and get back json result. Everything is working fine. The problem is i had to write different jquery post and get request url on local intranet(deployed by making virtual directory) and live server. the current jquery request url is given as below: $.post("/ProjectsChat/GetMessages", { roomId: 24 },.......... now this format of url for jquery request works fine for live server but not for local intranet. Since on local intranet i have made a virtual directory. It only works when i append the name of the virtual directory like this "$.post("MyProjectVirutalDirName/ProjectsChat..................." I am sure most of you must have come across same problem. now i have made a full project, there are large number of jquery requests made, i want to test the application by deploying on local intranet and fix the bugs. Changing all the jquery requests for local intranet doesn't seem feasible solution to me, i am really in a big problem, i can't deploy the same project on live server just like that and test it there, client will kill me. I need some expert advice. Please help Thanks

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  • PHP Object References in Frameworks

    - by bigstylee
    Before I dive into the disscusion part a quick question; Is there a method to determine if a variable is a reference to another variable/object? For example $foo = 'Hello World'; $bar = &$foo; echo (is_reference($bar) ? 'Is reference' : 'Is orginal'; I have been using PHP5 for a few years now (personal use only) and I would say I am moderately reversed on the topic of Object Orientated implementation. However the concept of Model View Controller Framework is fairly new to me. I have looked a number of tutorials and looked at some of the open source frameworks (mainly CodeIgnitor) to get a better understanding how everything fits together. I am starting to appreciate the real benefits of using this type of structure. I am used to implementing object referencing in the following technique. class Foo{ public $var = 'Hello World!'; } class Bar{ public function __construct(){ global $Foo; echo $Foo->var; } } $Foo = new Foo; $Bar = new Bar; I was surprised to see that CodeIgnitor and Yii pass referencs of objects and can be accessed via the following method: $this->load->view('argument') The immediate advantage I can see is a lot less code and more user friendly. But I do wonder if it is more efficient as these frameworks are presumably optimised? Or simply to make the code more user friendly? This was an interesting article Do not use PHP references.

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  • Alloy MVC Framework Titanium Network (Model)

    - by flyingDuck
    I'm trying to authenticate using the Model in Alloy. I have been trying to figure this problem out since yesterday. If anybody could help me, I'd really appreciate it. So, I have a view login.xml, then a controller login.js. The login.js contains the following function: var user = Alloy.Models.user; //my user.js model function login(e) { if($.username.value !== '' && $.password.value !== ''){ if(user.login($.username.value, $.password.value)){ Alloy.createController('home').getView().open(); $.login.close(); } }else{ alert('Username and/or Password required!'); } } Then in my user.js model, it's like this: extendModel : function(Model) { _.extend(Model.prototype, { login: function(username, password) { var first_name, last_name, email; var _this = this; var url = 'http://myurl.com/test.php'; var auth = Ti.Network.createHTTPClient({ onerror: function(e){ alert(e.error); }, onload: function(){ var json = this.responseText; var response = JSON.parse(json); if(response.logged == true){ first_name = response.f_name; last_name = response.l_name; email = response.email; _this.set({ loggedIn: 1, username: email, realname: first_name + ' ' + last_name, email: email, }); _this.save(); }else{ alert(response.message); } }, }); auth.open('POST', url); var params = { usernames: username, passwords: password, }; auth.send(params); alert(_this.get('email')); //alert email }, }); When I click on login in login.xml it calls the function login in index.js. So, now my problem is that, when I click the button for the first time, I get an empty alert from alert(_this.get('email')), but then when I click the button the second time, everything works fine, it alerts the email. I have no idea what's going on. Thank you for the help.

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  • [grails] setting cookies when render type is "contentType: text/json"

    - by Robin Jamieson
    Is it possible to set cookies on response when the return render type is set as json? I can set cookies on the response object when returning with a standard render type and later on, I'm able to get it back on the subsequent request. However, if I were to set the cookies while rendering the return values as json, I can't seem to get back the cookie on the next request object. What's happening here? These two actions work as expected with 'basicForm' performing a regular form post to the action, 'withRegularSubmit', when the user clicks submit. // first action set the cookie and second action yields the originally set cookie def regularAction = { // using cookie plugin response.setCookie("username-regular", "regularCookieUser123",604800); return render(view: "basicForm"); } // called by form post def withRegularSubmit = { def myCookie = request.getCookie("username-regular"); // returns the value 'regularCookieUser123' return render(view: "resultView"); } When I switch to setting the cookie just before returning from the response with json, I don't get the cookie back with the post. The request starts by getting an html document that contains a form and when doc load event is fired, the following request is invoked via javascript with jQuery like this: var someUrl = "http://localhost/jsonAction"; $.get(someUrl, function(jsonData) { // do some work with javascript} The controller work: // this action is called initially and returns an html doc with a form. def loadJsonForm = { return render(view: "jsonForm"); } // called via javascript when the document load event is fired def jsonAction = { response.setCookie("username-json", "jsonCookieUser456",604800); // using cookie plugin return render(contentType:'text/json') { 'pair'('myKey': "someValue") }; } // called by form post def withJsonSubmit = { def myCookie = request.getCookie("username-json"); // got null value, expecting: jsonCookieUser456 return render(view: "resultView"); } The data is returned to the server as a result of the user pressing the 'submit' button and not through a script. Prior to the submit of both 'withRegularSubmit' and 'withJsonSubmit', I see the cookies stored in the browser (Firefox) so I know they reached the client.

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  • Rails - Why is HAML showing the full hash?

    - by Mr. Demetrius Michael
    View: !!! %html %head %title= full_title(yield(:title)) =stylesheet_link_tag "application", media: "all" =javascript_include_tag "application" =csrf_meta_tags =render 'layouts/shim' %body =render 'layouts/header' .container =flash.each do |key, value| %div{class: "alert alert-#{key}"} #{value} Controller def create @user = User.new(params[:user]) if @user.save flash[:success] = "This is Correct" redirect_to @user else flash[:wrong] = "no" render 'new' end end Regardless of the flash (:success or :wrong or otherwise) it always compiles the entire hash as html (below) Output: <!DOCTYPE html> .... <div class='container'> <div class='alert alert-wrong'>no</div> {:wrong=&gt;&quot;no&quot;} </div> </body> </html> I have no idea why {:wrong=&gt;&quot;no&quot;} is being displayed. I've been staring at this terminal for hours. What's interesting is that the hash is being outputted with the container id, but not in the alert class. It feels like an indentation problem, but I went through several permutations with no success.

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  • Rails uploaded file blank

    - by Ceilingfish
    Hi chaps, I'm trying to upload a file to the server using a HTTP multipart form in rails, and for some reason it's turning up blank at the other end. I can see it being received in the rails log thusly: Processing Admin::HeadlinesController#update (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-03-08 12:26:13) [PUT] Parameters: {"commit"=>"Save changes", "action"=>"update", "_method"=>"put", "authenticity_token"=>"mK70XRk5gOPUwXOcNboT/4K8PD9RBM7GqCOlEUKZwcA=", "headline"=>{"position"=>"1", "location"=>"primary", "attachment_id"=>"13", "headline_content"=>"questionnaires", "article_id"=>"3", "image"=>#<File:/tmp/RackMultipart20100308-63211-1vym9nj-0>}, "id"=>"140", "controller"=>"admin/headlines"} But if I have a look in /tmp/RackMultipart20100308-63211-1vym9nj-0 the file is blank. Am I right in thinking that this should be the file that I uploaded? I'm running Phusion Passenger 2.2.7 on Apache 2.2.13, with ruby 1.8.7 and rails 2.3.5, on OSX 10.6.2

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  • In my cakephp project the save function is not working?

    - by Faheem
    My controller action is: function add() { if (!empty($this-data)) { $this-Customer-create(); if ($this-Customer-save($this-data)) { $this-Session-setFlash('A new Customer has been added'); $this-redirect(array('action'='index')); } else { $this-Session-setFlash('The customer cannot be added this time. Try again later.'); $this-redirect(array('action'='index')); } } } My model is: class Customer extends AppModel { var $name = 'Customer'; var $validate = array( 'name' = array( 'length'= array( 'rule' = array('between', 4,50), 'message' = 'Name must be minimum 4 and maximum 50 characters long.' ), 'checkUnique'= array( 'rule' = 'isUnique', 'message' = 'This Name is already registered' ) )); and this is my view: create('Customer',array('action'='add'));? input('Customer.name'); echo $form-input('Customer.balance',array('type'='hidden','default'=0)); ? end('Submit');? every time I submit the form it splashes: The customer cannot be added this time. Try again later.

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  • Searching with a UISearchbar is slow and blocking the main thread.

    - by Robert
    I have a Table with over 3000 entries and searching is very slow. At the moment I am doing just like in the 'TableSearch' example code (but without scopes) - (BOOL)searchDisplayController:(UISearchDisplayController *)controller shouldReloadTableForSearchString:(NSString *)searchString { [self filterContentForSearchText: searchString]; // Return YES to cause the search result table view to be reloaded. return YES; } And the filterContentForSearchText method is as follows: - (void) filterContentForSearchText:(NSString*)searchText { // Update the filtered array based on the search text // First clear the filtered array. [filteredListContent removeAllObjects]; // Search the main list whose name matches searchText // add items that match to the filtered array. if (fetchedResultsController.fetchedObjects) { for (id object in fetchedResultsController.fetchedObjects) { NSString* searchTarget = [tableTypeDelegate getStringForSearchFilteringFromObject:object]; if ([searchTarget rangeOfString:searchText options:(NSCaseInsensitiveSearch|NSDiacriticInsensitiveSearch)].location != NSNotFound) { [filteredListContent addObject:object]; } } } } My question is twofold: How do can I make the searching process faster? How can I stop the search from blocking the main thread? i.e. stop it preventing the user from typing more characters. For the second part, I tried "performSelector:withObject:afterDelay:" and "cancelPreviousPerformRequests..." without much success. I suspect that I will need to use threading instead, but I do not have much experience with it.

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  • Problem using js jquery helper

    - by Josh R
    hi, I am using cakephp 1.3.6 and am trying to use inbuilt js helper. I have added var $helpers = array('Js' => array('Jquery')); in my controller. In my layout, I have included the jquery files and have also included echo $this->Js->writeBuffer(); before the </body> tag. I checked if the jquery libraries correctly but trying to create a simple accordian from the jqueryui.com, it works fine. But when I try <?php $this->Js->get('#element'); $this->Js->drag(array( 'container' => '#content', 'start' => 'onStart', 'drag' => 'onDrag', 'stop' => 'onStop', 'snapGrid' => array(10, 10), 'wrapCallbacks' => false )); ?> <div="element">something</div> It does not work. I appreciate any help. Thanks.

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  • Use interface between model and view in ASP.NET MVC

    - by Icerman
    Hi, I am using asp.net MVC 2 to develop a site. IUser is used to be the interface between model and view for better separation of concern. However, things turn to a little messy here. In the controller that handles user sign on: I have the following: IUserBll userBll = new UserBll(); IUser newUser = new User(); newUser.Username = answers[0].ToString(); newUser.Email = answers[1].ToString(); userBll.AddUser(newUser); The User class is defined in web project as a concrete class implementing IUser. There is a similar class in DAL implementing the same interface and used to persist data. However, when the userBll.AddUser is called, the newUser of type User can't be casted to the DAL User class even though both Users class implementing the interface (InvalidCastException). Using conversion operators maybe an option, but it will make the dependency between DAL and web which is against the initial goal of using interface. Any suggestions?

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  • Applying fine-grained security to an existing application

    - by Mark
    I've inherited a reasonably large and complex ASP.NET MVC3 web application using EF Code First on SQL Server. It uses ASP.NET Membership roles with database authentication. The controller actions are secured with attributes derived from AuthorizeAttribute that map roles to actions. There are extension methods for the finer points, such as showing a particular widget to particular roles. This is works great and I have a good understanding of the current security model. I've been asked to provide finer grained security at the data level. For example a 'Customer' user can only see data (throughout the database) associated with themselves and not other Customers. The problem is that 'Customer' is only 1 of 5 different types with their own specific restrictions (each of the 9 roles is one of these 5 types). The best thing I can think of is to go through all the data repositories and extend each and every LINQ statements/query with a filter for every user type. Even if I had time for that it doesn't seem like the most elegant way. Any suggestions? I really don't know where to start with this so anything could be helpful. Many thanks.

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  • From where to send mails in a MVC framework, so that there is no duplication of code?

    - by Sabya
    It's a MVC question. Here is the situation: I am writing an application where I have "groups". You can invite other persons to your groups by typing their email and clicking "invite". There are two ways this functionality can be called: a) web interface and b) API After the mail sending is over I want to report to the user which mails were sent successfully (i.e., if the SMTP send succeeded. Currently, I am not interested in reporting mail bounces). So, I am thinking how should I design so that there is no code duplication. That is, API and web-interface should share the bulk of the code. To do this, I can create the method "invite" inside the model "group". So, the API and and the Web-interface can just call: group-invite($emailList); This method can send the emails. But the, problem is, then I have to access the mail templates, create the views for the mails, and then send the mails. Which should actually be in the "View" part or at least in the "Controller" part. What is the most elegant design in this situation? Note: I am really thinking to write this in the Model. My only doubt is: previously I thought sending mails also as "presentation". Since it is may be considered as a different form of generating output.

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  • Redirecting users after destroy

    - by mathee
    I have 3 models: Questions, Answers, and Profiles (I know, it should be called "Users"). When you view a question Q, I query the database for the answers to Q. (They are linked by id.) In the view, the current user has the option to delete his answer by clicking on the destroy link displayed next to his answer: %table %tr %td Answers: - @answers.each do |a| %tr %td - @provider = Profile.find(a.provider) %i #{h @provider.username} said: %br #{h a.description} %td = link_to 'View full answer', a %td - if a.provider == @profile.id #{link_to 'Delete my answer', a, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :method => :delete} The problem is that when the user clicks on the destroy link, it redirects to the /answers/index. I want it to redirect to /questions/Q. What's the best way to do this? I know that there's a redirect_to method, but I don't know how to implement it when I want to redirect to an action for a different controller. It also needs to remember the question from which the answer is being deleted. I tried passing something like :question_id in link_to as: #{link_to 'Delete my answer', a, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :question_id => @question.id, :method => :delete} In AnswersController#destroy: def destroy @answer = Answer.find(params[:id]) @answer.destroy respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to(answers_url) } format.xml { head :ok } end @question = Question.find(params[:question_id]) redirect_to question_path(@question) end The :question_id information is not passed to the destroy method, so I get this error: Couldn't find Question without an ID To confirm, I added a puts call before Question.find, and it returned nil.

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  • Multiple UIWebViewNavigationTypeBackForward not only false but make inferring the actual url impossi

    - by SG1
    I have a UIWebView and a UITextField for the url. Naturally, I want the textField to always show the current document url. This works fine for urls directly input in the field, but I also have some buttons attached to the view for reload, back, and forward. So I've added all the UIWebViewDelegate methods to my controller, so it can listen to whenever the webView navigates and change the url in the textField as needed. Here's how I'm using the shouldStartLoadWithRequest: method: - (BOOL)webView:(UIWebView *)webView shouldStartLoadWithRequest:(NSURLRequest *)request navigationType:(UIWebViewNavigationType)navigationType { NSLog(@"navigated via %d", navigationType); //loads the user cares about if ( navigationType == UIWebViewNavigationTypeLinkClicked || navigationType == UIWebViewNavigationTypeBackForward ) { //URL setting [self setUrlQuietly:request.URL]; } return YES; } Now, my problem here is that an actual click will generate a single navigation of type "LinkClicked" followed by a dozen type "Other" (redirects and ad loads I assume), which gets handled correctly by the code, but a back/forward action will generate all its requests as back/forward requests. In other words, a click calls setUrlQuietly: once, but a back/forward calls it multiple times. I am trying to use this method to determine if the user actually initiated the action (and I'd like to catch page redirects too). But if the method has no way of distinguishing between an actual "back" and a "load initiated as a result of a back", how can I make this assessment? Without this, I am completely stumped as to how I can only show the actual url and not intermediate urls. Thank you!

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  • Is WordPress MVC compliant?

    - by kovshenin
    Some people consider WordPress a blogging platform, some think of it as a CMS, some refer to WordPress as a development framework. Whichever it is, the question still remains. Is WordPress MVC compliant? I've read the forums and somebody asked about MVC about three years ago. There were some positive answers, and some negative ones. While nobody knows exactly what MVC is and everybody thinks of it in their own way, there's still a general concept that's present in all the discussions. I have little experience with MVC frameworks and there doesn't seem to be anything about the framework itself. Most of the MVC is done by the programmer, am I right? Now, going back to WordPress, could we consider the core rewrite engine (WP_Rewrite) the controller? Queries & plugin logic as the model? And themes as the view? Or am I getting it all wrong? Thanks ;)

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  • jquery load returns empty, possible MVC 2 problem?

    - by Max Fraser
    I have a site that need to get some data from a different sit that is using asp.net MVC/ The data to get loaded is from these pages: http://charity.hondaclassic.com/home/totaldonations http://charity.hondaclassic.com/Home/CharityList This should be a no brainer but for some reason I get an empty response, here is my JS: <script> jQuery.noConflict(); jQuery(document).ready(function($){ $('.totalDonations').load('http://charity.hondaclassic.com/home/totaldonations'); $('#charityList').load('http://charity.hondaclassic.com/home/CharityList'); }); </script> in firebug I see the request is made and come back with a response of 200 OK but the response is empty, if you browse to these pages they work fine! What the heck? Here are the controller actions from the MVC site: public ActionResult TotalDonations() { var total = "$" + repo.All<Customer>().Sum(x => x.AmountPaid).ToString(); return Content(total); } public ActionResult CharityList() { var charities = repo.All<Company>(); return View(charities); } Someone please out what stupid little thing I am missing - this should have taken me 5 minutes and it's been hours!

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  • How to call a function from another class file

    - by Guy Parker
    I am very familiar with writing VB based applications but am new to Xcode (and Objective C). I have gone through numerous tutorials on the web and understand the basics and how to interact with Interface Builder etc. However, I am really struggling with some basic concepts of the C language and would be grateful for any help you can offer. Heres my problem… I have a simple iphone app which has a view controller (FirstViewController) and a subview (SecondViewController) with associated header and class files. In the FirstViewController.m have a function defined @implementation FirstViewController (void) writeToServer:(const uint8_t ) buf { [oStream write:buf maxLength:strlen((char)buf)]; } It doesn't really matter what the function is. I want to use this function in my SecondViewController, so in SecondViewController.m I import FirstViewController.h import "SecondViewController.h" import "FirstViewController.h" @implementation SecondViewController -(IBAction) SetButton: (id) sender { NSString *s = [@"Fill:" stringByAppendingString: FillLevelValue.text]; NSString *strToSend = [s stringByAppendingString: @":"]; const uint8_t *str = (uint8_t *) [strToSend cStringUsingEncoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding]; FillLevelValue.text = strToSend; [FirstViewController writeToServer:str]; } This last line is where my problem is. XCode tells me that FirstViewController may not respond to writeToServer. And when I try to run the application it crashes when this function is called. I guess I don't fully understand how to share functions and more importantly, the relationship between classes. In an ideal world I would create a global class to place my functions in and call them as required. Any advice gratefully received.

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  • grabbing layer contents in a class

    - by Mike
    I have a custom UIImageView class that creates thumbnails (UIImageView) and each thumbnail has a label. The label is created by another class. The label class creates a UIImageView and a UITextView on top of it. This is the init object class' init method: - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame { if ([super initWithFrame:frame] == nil) { return nil; } CGRect myFrame = CGRectMake(0, 0, 100, 100); myLabel = [[myLabelClass alloc] initWithFrame: myFrame]; //myLabelClass is a UIImageView based class [myLabel setCenter:CGPointMake(50, 50)]; [self addSubview: myLabel]; return self; } So, I have this MAIN VIEW CONTROLLER | |___ UIImageView WITH LABEL | |____ label background (UIView) |____ UITEXTVIEW (text) Now I want to write the contents of all these 3 components to a quartz context. I need to write using drawInRect, because I need to write the full object to a precise location. I expected object.layer.contents to be the image equivalent to these 3 "layers" flattened, in other words, the object's image, the label background and the label text, as it would if I created these 3 objects in Photoshop and flatten the composition. I also expect object.myLabel.layer.contents to contains the rendered contents of the UITextView over the label background. The problem is that when I use UIImage *myImage = [UIImage imageWithCGImage:objecto.myLabel.layer.contents]; [myImage drawInRect:CGRectMake(0, 0, 100, 100)]; I get nothing. How can I obtain a "flattened" image resultant to the full object (including its subviews)? thanks

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  • Testing ActionFilterAttributes with MSpec

    - by Tomas Lycken
    I'm currently trying to grasp MSpec, mainly to learn new ways of (T/B)DD to be able to make an educated decision on which technology to use. Previously, I've mostly (read: only) used the built-in MSTest framework with Moq, so BDD is quite new for me. I'm writing an ASP.NET MVC app, and I want to implement PRG. Last time I did this, I used action filters to export and import ModelState via TempData, so that I could return a RedirectResult and the validation errors would still be there when the user got the view. I tested that scenario by verifying two things: a) That the ExportModelStateAttribute I had written was applied (among tests for my controller) b) That the attribute worked (among tests for action filter attributes) However, in BDD I've understood I should be even more concerned with behavior, and even less with implementation. This means I should probably just verify that the model state is in tempdata when the action has finished executing - not necessarily that it's done via an attribute. To further complicate things, attributes are not run when calling the action directly in the test, so I can't just call the action and see if the job's been done. How should I spec/test this in MSpec?

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  • asp.net mvc ajax helper/post additional data w/o jquery.

    - by Jopache
    I would like to use the ajax helper to create ajax requests that send additional, dynamic data with the post (for example, get the last element with class = blogCommentDateTime and send the value of that last one to the controller which will return only blog comments after it). I have successfully done so with the help of jQuery Form plugin like so: $(document).ready(function () { $("#addCommentForm").submit(function () { var lastCommentDate = $(".CommentDateHidden:last").val(); var lastCommentData = { lastCommentDateTicks: lastCommentDate }; var formSubmitParams = { data: lastCommentData, success: AddCommentResponseHandler } $("#addCommentForm").ajaxSubmit(formSubmitParams); return false; }); This form was created with html.beginform() method. I am wondering if there is an easy way to do this using the ajax.beginform() helper? When I try to use the same code but replace html.beginform() with ajax.beginform(), when i try to submit the form, I am issuing 2 posts (which is understandable, one being taken care of by the helper, the other one by me with the JS above. I can't create 2 requests, so this option is out) I tried getting rid of the return false and changing ajaxSubmit() to ajaxForm() so that it would only "prepare" the form, and this leads in only one post, but it does not include the extra parameter that I defined, so this is worthless as well. I then tried keeping the ajaxForm() but calling that whenever the submit button on the form gets clicked rather than when the form gets submitted (I guess this is almost the same thing) and that results in 2 posts also. The biggest reason I am asking this question is that I have run in to some issues with the javascript above and using mvc validation provided by the mvc framework (which i will set up another question for) and would like to know this so I can dive further in to my validation issue.

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