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• How to update GUI thread/class from worker thread/class?

  - by user315182

  First question here so hello everyone. The requirement I'm working on is a small test application that communicates with an external device over a serial port. The communication can take a long time, and the device can return all sorts of errors. The device is nicely abstracted in its own class that the GUI thread starts to run in its own thread and has the usual open/close/read data/write data basic functions. The GUI is also pretty simple - choose COM port, open, close, show data read or errors from device, allow modification and write back etc. The question is simply how to update the GUI from the device class? There are several distinct types of data the device deals with so I need a relatively generic bridge between the GUI form/thread class and the working device class/thread. In the GUI to device direction everything works fine with [Begin]Invoke calls for open/close/read/write etc. on various GUI generated events. I've read the thread here (How to update GUI from another thread in C#?) where the assumption is made that the GUI and worker thread are in the same class. Google searches throw up how to create a delegate or how to create the classic background worker but that's not at all what I need, although they may be part of the solution. So, is there a simple but generic structure that can be used? My level of C# is moderate and I've been programming all my working life, given a clue I'll figure it out (and post back)... Thanks in advance for any help.

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• What's the idiomatic way of inheriting data access functionality as well as object properties?

  - by Knut Arne Vedaa

  Suppose the following (slightly pseudo-code for brevity): class Basic { String foo; } class SomeExtension extends Basic { String bar; } class OtherExtension extends Basic { String baz; } class BasicService { Basic getBasic() { } } class SomeExtensionService extends BasicService { SomeExtension getSomeExtension() { } } class OtherExtensionService extends BasicService { OtherExtension getOtherExtension() { } } What would be the most idiomatic, elegant way to implement the get-() service methods with the most possible code reuse? Obviously you could do it like this: class BasicService { Basic getBasic() { Basic basic = new Basic(); basic.setFoo("some kind of foo"); return basic; } } class SomeExtensionService { SomeExtension getSomeExtension() { SomeExtension someExtension = new SomeExtension; Basic basic = getBasic(); someExtension.setFoo(basic.getFoo()); someExtension.setBar("some kind of bar"); return someExtension; } } But this would be ugly if Basic has a lot of properties, and also you only need one object, as SomeExtension already inherits Basic. However, BasicService can obviously not return a SomeExtension object. You could also have the get methods not create the object themselves, but create it at the outermost level and pass it to the method for filling in the properties, but I find that too imperative. (Please let me know if the question is confusingly formulated.)

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• Exporting de-aggregated data

  - by Ben

  I'm currently working on a data export feature for a survey application. We are using SQL2k8. We store data in a normalized format: QuestionId, RespondentId, Answer. We have a couple other tables that define what the question text is for the QuestionId and demographics for the RespondentId... Currently I'm using some dynamic SQL to generate a pivot that joins the question table to the answer table and creates an export, its working... The problem is that it seems slow and we don't have that much data (less than 50k respondents). Right now I'm thinking "why am I 'paying' to de-aggregate the data for each query? Why don't I cache that?" The data being exported is based on dynamic criteria. It could be "give me respondents that completed on x date (or range)" or "people that like blue", etc. Because of that, I think I have to cache at the respondent level, find out what respondents are being exported and then select their combined cached de-aggregated data. To me the quick and dirty fix is a totally flat table, RespondentId, Question1, Question2, etc. The problem is, we have multiple clients and that doesn't scale AND I don't want to have to maintain the flattened table as the survey changes. So I'm thinking about putting an XML column on the respondent table and caching the results of a SELECT * FROM Data FOR XML AUTO WHERE RespondentId = x. With that in place, I would then be able to get my export with filtering and XML calls into the XML column. What are you doing to export aggregated data in a flattened format (CSV, Excel, etc)? Does this approach seem ok? I worry about the cost of XML functions on larger result sets (think SELECT RespondentId, XmlCol.value('//data/question_1', 'nvarchar(50)') AS [Why is there air?], XmlCol.RinseAndRepeat)... Is there a better technology/approach for this? Thanks!

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• Spring security - same page to deliver different content based on user role

  - by Ramesh

  Hello, i tried to search for any previous post related to my issue but couldnt find any. I have a scenario where in page handles 3 different scenarios and one of them not working. This page returns different content depending on if the user is authenticated or anonymous. localhost:8080/myApp/muUrl?test=authenticatedContent - used for Scenario 1 & 2 localhost:8080/myApp/muUrl?test=anonymousContent - used for Scenario 3 Scenario: 1) Authenticated user accesing the page url - the user gets displayed correct information. Works fine 2) Anonymous user accesing page URL with parameters that requires authentication - If anonymous, there is second level of check on the content they are accessing. for example, based on the GET parameters, there is custom logic to determine if the user has to be authenticated. In which case the page gets redirected to login page (WORKS fine). 3) Anonymous user accessing page URL with parameters that doesnt need authentication - in this case i get the SAvedRequest and redirect to the URL which is taking me to an infinite loop. Am i missing something very obvious or is there a way in AuthenticationProcessFilterEntryPoint to say "DON'T redirect to LOGIN page but process it" ? thanks.

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• How do I serialise a graph in Java without getting StackOverflowException?

  - by Tim Cooper

  I have a graph structure in java, ("graph" as in "edges and nodes") and I'm attempting to serialise it. However, I get "StackOverflowException", despite significantly increasing the JVM stack size. I did some googling, and apparently this is a well known limitation of java serialisation: that it doesn't work for deeply nested object graphs such as long linked lists - it uses a stack record for each link in the chain, and it doesn't do anything clever such as a breadth-first traversal, and therefore you very quickly get a stack overflow. The recommended solution is to customise the serialisation code by overriding readObject() and writeObject(), however this seems a little complex to me. (It may or may not be relevant, but I'm storing a bunch of fields on each edge in the graph so I have a class JuNode which contains a member ArrayList<JuEdge> links;, i.e. there are 2 classes involved, rather than plain object references from one node to another. It shouldn't matter for the purposes of the question). My question is threefold: (a) why don't the implementors of Java rectify this limitation or are they already working on it? (I can't believe I'm the first person to ever want to serialise a graph in java) (b) is there a better way? Is there some drop-in alternative to the default serialisation classes that does it in a cleverer way? (c) if my best option is to get my hands dirty with low-level code, does someone have an example of graph serialisation java source-code that can use to learn how to do it?

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• Dealing with SQLException with spring,hibernate & Postgres

  - by mad

  Hi im working on a project using HibernateDaoSUpport from my Daos from Spring & spring-ws & hibernate & postgres who will be used in a national application (means a lot of users) Actually, every exception from hibernate is automatically transformed into some specific Spring dataAccesException. I have a table with a keyword on the dabatase & a unique constraint on the keywords : no duplicate keywords is allowed. I have found twows ways to deal with with that in the Insert Dao: 1- Check for the duplicate manually (with a select) prior to doing your insert. I means that the spring transaction will have a SERIALIZABLE isolation level. The obvious drawback is that we have now 2 queries for a simple insert.Advantage: independent of the database 2-let the insert gone & catch the SqlException & convert it to a userfriendly message & errorcode to the final consumer of our webservices. Solution 2: Spring has developped a way to translate specific exeptions into customized exceptions. see http://www.oracle.com/technology/pub/articles/marx_spring.html In my case i would have a ConstraintViolationException. Ideally i would like to write a custom SQLExceptionTranslator to map the duplicate word constraint in the database with a DuplicateWordException. But i can have many unique constraints on the same table. So i have to get the message of the SQLEXceptions in order to find the name of the constraint declared in the create table "uq_duplicate-constraint" for example. Now i have a strong dependency with the database. Thanks in advance for your answers & excuse me for my poor english (it is not my mother tongue)

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• How to avoid hard-coded credentials in Sharepoint webpart?

  - by Bryan

  I am building a Sharepoint web part that will be used by all users, but can only be modified by admins. The web part connects to a web service which needs credentials. I hard coded credentials in the web part's code. query.Credentials = new System.Net.NetworkCredential("username", "password", "domain"); query is an instance of the web service class This may not be a good approach. In regard with security, the source code of the web apart is available to people who are not allowed to see the credentials. In normal ASP.net applications, credentials can be written into web.config and encrypted. A web part doesn't have a .config file associated. There is a application-level .config file for the whole sharepoint site, but I don't want to modify it for a single webpart. I wonder if there is a webpart-specific way to solve the credential problem? Say we provide a WebBrowsable property of that web part so that privileged users can modify credentials. If this is desirable, how should I make the property displayed in a password ("*") rather than in plain text? Thanks.

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• How to create nested ViewComponents in Monorail and NVelocity?

  - by rob_g

  I have been asked to update the menu on a website we maintain. The website uses Castle Windors Monorail and NVelocity as the template. The menu is currently rendered using custom made subclasses of ViewComponent, which render li elements. At the moment there is only one (horizontal) level, so the current mechanism is fine. I have been asked to add drop down menus to some of the existing menus. As this is the first time I have seen Monorail and NVelocity, I'm a little lost. What currently exists: <ul> #component(MenuComponent with "title=Home" "hover=autoselect" "link=/") #component(MenuComponent with "title=Videos" "hover=autoselect") #component(MenuComponent with "title=VPS" "hover=autoselect" "link=/vps") #component(MenuComponent with "title=Add-Ons" "hover=autoselect" "link=/addons") #component(MenuComponent with "title=Hosting" "hover=autoselect" "link=/hosting") #component(MenuComponent with "title=Support" "hover=autoselect" "link=/support") #component(MenuComponent with "title=News" "hover=autoselect" "link=/news") #component(MenuComponent with "title=Contact Us" "hover=autoselect" "link=/contact-us") </ul> Is it possible to have nested MenuComponents (or a new SubMenuComponent) something like: <ul> #component(MenuComponent with "title=Home" "hover=autoselect" "link=/") #component(MenuComponent with "title=Videos" "hover=autoselect") #blockcomponent(MenuComponent with "title=VPS" "hover=autoselect" "link=/vps") #component(SubMenuComponent with "title="Plans" "hover=autoselect" "link=/vps/plans") #component(SubMenuComponent with "title="Operating Systems" "hover=autoselect" "link=/vps/os") #component(SubMenuComponent with "title="Supported Applications" "hover=autoselect" "link=/vps/apps") #end #component(MenuComponent with "title=Add-Ons" "hover=autoselect" "link=/addons") #component(MenuComponent with "title=Hosting" "hover=autoselect" "link=/hosting") #component(MenuComponent with "title=Support" "hover=autoselect" "link=/support") #component(MenuComponent with "title=News" "hover=autoselect" "link=/news") #component(MenuComponent with "title=Contact Us" "hover=autoselect" "link=/contact-us") </ul> I need to draw the sub menu (ul and li elements) inside the overridden Render method on MenuComponent, so using nested ViewComponent derivatives may not work. I would like a method keep the basically declarative method for creating menus, if at all possible.

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• Javascript Getting Objects to Fallback to One Another

  - by Ian

  Here's a ugly bit of Javascript it would be nice to find a workaround. Javascript has no classes, and that is a good thing. But it implements fallback between objects in a rather ugly way. The foundational construct should be to have one object that, when a property fails to be found, it falls back to another object. So if we want a to fall back to b we would want to do something like: a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; a.__fallback__ = b; then a.dock == 2; But, Javascript instead provides a new operator and prototypes. So we do the far less elegant: function A(sun) { this.sun = sun; }; A.prototype.dock = 2; a = new A(1); a.dock == 2; But aside from elegance, this is also strictly less powerful, because it means that anything created with A gets the same fallback object. What I would like to do is liberate Javascript from this artificial limitation and have the ability to give any individual object any other individual object as its fallback. That way I could keep the current behavior when it makes sense, but use object-level inheritance when that makes sense. My initial approach is to create a dummy constructor function: function setFallback(from_obj, to_obj) { from_obj.constructor = function () {}; from_obj.constructor.prototype = to_obj; } a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; setFallback(a, b); But unfortunately: a.dock == undefined; Any ideas why this doesn't work, or any solutions for an implementation of setFallback? (I'm running on V8, via node.js, in case this is platform dependent)

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• Are there Windows API binaries for Subversion or do I have to build SVN to call the API from Windows

  - by JeffH

  I want to call a Subversion API from a Visual Studio 2003 C++ project. I know there are threads here, here, here, and here that tell how to get started with C#.NET on Windows (the consensus seems to be SharpSvn, which I've used easily and successfully on another project) but that's not what I want. I've read the chapter on using APIs in the red-bean book which says: Subversion is primarily a set of C libraries, with header (.h) files that live in the subversion/include directory of the source tree. These headers are copied into your system locations (e.g., /usr/local/include) when you build and install Subversion itself from source. These headers represent the entirety of the functions and types meant to be accessible by users of the Subversion libraries. I'd like to use CollabNet Subversion but there doesn't seem to be API binary downloads, and I'd just as soon not build the whole thing if I can avoid it. Considering another approach, I found RapidSVN's C++ API, but it doesn't appear to offer Windows API binaries either and seems to require building SVN (which I would be willing to do as a last choice if RapidSVN's API is higher-level than the stock SVN offering.) Does calling the API from C++ in Windows have to be this much more work compared to using SharpSvn under .NET, or is there something I haven't found that would help me achieve my goal?

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• Project management and bundling dependencies

  - by Joshua

  I've been looking for ways to learn about the right way to manage a software project, and I've stumbled upon the following blog post. I've learned some of the things mentioned the hard way, others make sense, and yet others are still unclear to me. To sum up, the author lists a bunch of features of a project and how much those features contribute to a project's 'suckiness' for a lack of a better term. You can find the full article here: http://spot.livejournal.com/308370.html In particular, I don't understand the author's stance on bundling dependencies with your project. These are: == Bundling == Your source only comes with other code projects that it depends on [ +20 points of FAIL ] Why is this a problem, (especially given the last point)? If your source code cannot be built without first building the bundled code bits [ +10 points of FAIL ] Doesn't this necessarily have to be the case for software built against 3rd party libs? Your code needs that other code to be compiled into its library before the linker can work? If you have modified those other bundled code bits [ +40 points of FAIL ] If this is necessary for your project, then it naturally follows that you've bundled said code with yours. If you want to customize a build of some lib,say WxWidgets, you'll have to edit that projects build scripts to bulid the library that you want. Subsequently, you'll have to publish those changes to people who wish to build your code, so why not use a high level make script with the params already written in, and distribute that? Furthermore, (especially in a windows env) if your code base is dependent on a particular version of a lib (that you also need to custom compile for your project) wouldn't it be easier to give the user the code yourself (because in this case, it is unlikely that the user will already have the correct version installed)? So how would you respond to these comments, and what points may I be failing to take into consideration? Would you agree or disagree with the author's take (or mine), and why?

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• ASP.NET MVC 2 user input to SQL 2008 Database problems

  - by Rob

  After my publish in VS2010 the entire website loads and pulls data from the database perfectly. I can even create new users through the site with the correct key code, given out to who needs access. I have two connection strings in my web.config file The first: <add xdt:Transform="SetAttributes" xdt:Locator="Match(name)" name="EveModelContainer" connectionString="metadata=res://*/Models.EdmModel.EveModel.csdl|res://*/Models.EdmModel.EveModel.ssdl|res://*/Models.EdmModel.EveModel.msl;provider=System.Data.SqlClient;provider connection string=&quot;Data Source=localhost;Initial Catalog=fleet;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=fleet;Password=****&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient" /> The second: <add xdt:Transform="SetAttributes" xdt:Locator="Match(name)" name="ApplicationServices" connectionString="Data Source=localhost;Initial Catalog=fleet;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=fleet;Password=****;MultipleActiveResultSets=True" /> The first one is the one that is needed to post data with the main application, EveModelContainer. Everything else is pulled using the standard ApplicationServices connection. Do you see anything wrong with my connectionstring? I'm at a complete loss here. The site works perfectly on my friends server and not on mine... Could it be a provider issue? And if I go to iis 7's manager console, and click .net users I get a pop up message saying the custom provider isn't a trusted provider do I want to allow it to run at a higher trust level. I'm at the point where I think its either my string or this trusted provider error... but I have no clue how to add to the trusted provider list... Thank you in advance!!!

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• ZeroMQ REQ/REP on ipc:// and concurrency

  - by Metiu

  I implemented a JSON-RPC server using a REQ/REP 0MQ ipc:// socket and I'm experiencing strange behavior which I suspect is due to the fact that the ipc:// underlying unix socket is not a real socket, but rather a single pipe. From the documentation, one has to enforce strict zmq_send()/zmq_recv() alternation, otherwise the out-of-order zmq_send() will return an error. However, I expected the enforcement to be per-client, not per-socket. Of course with a Unix socket there is just one pipeline from multiple clients to the server, so the server won't know who it is talking with. Two clients could zmq_send() simultaneously and the server would see this as an alternation violation. The sequence could be: ClientA: zmq_send() ClientB: zmq_send() : will it block until the other send/receive completes? will it return -1? (I suspect it will with ipc:// due to inherent low-level problems, but with TCP it could distinguish the two clients) ClientA: zmq_recv() ClientB: zmq_recv() so what about tcp:// sockets? Will it work concurrently? Should I use some other locking mechanism to work around this?

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• Ember Data Sycn - LocalStorage+REST+RealTime+Online/Offline

  - by Miguel Madero

  We have a combination of requirements in terms o data access. Pre-load some reference data. We need reference data to survive browser restarts instead of just living in memory to avoid loading it all the time. I'm currently using the LocalStorageAdapter for that. Once we have it, we would like to sync changes (polling or using Socket.IO in the background and updating the LocalStorage could do the trick) There're other models that are more transactional, where we would need to directly go to the Server and get/save them. It would be nice to use something like the RESTAdapter for that. Lastly, there're some operations that should work off-line and changes should be synced later. To make it more concrete: * We pre-load vendor and "favorite products" into Local Storage. We work offline with those. * We need to sync server changes to vendor and product information. * If they search the full catalog, that requires them to be online. * When offline, we need to allow users to add something to their cart or even submit and order. We would like to queue this action and submit it when they have an Internet Connection. So a few questions are derived from this: * Is there a way to user RESTAdapter in combination with LocalStorage? * Is there some Socket.IO support? (Happy to do this part manually) * Is there Queueing support? Ideally at the Ember-Data level. I know we will have to do a lot of this manually and pull together the different lego pieces, but I wanted to ask for some perspective from experience Ember devs.

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• Django sub-applications & module structure

  - by Rob Golding

  I am developing a Django application, which is a large system that requires multiple sub-applications to keep things neat. Therefore, I have a top level directory that is a Django app (as it has an empty models.py file), and multiple subdirectories, which are also applications in themselves. The reason I have laid my application out in this way is because the sub-applications are separated, but they would never be used on their own, outside the parent application. It therefore makes no sense to distribute them separately. When installing my application, the settings file has to include something like this: INSTALLED_APPS = ( ... 'myapp', 'myapp.subapp1', 'myapp.subapp2', ... ) ...which is obviously suboptimal. This also has the slightly nasty result of requiring that all the sub-applications are referred to by their "inner" name (i.e. subapp1, subapp2 etc.). For example, if I want to reset the database tables for subapp1, I have to type: python manage.py reset subapp1 This is annoying, especially because I have a sub-app called core - which is likely to conflict with another application's name when my application is installed in a user's project. Am I doing this completely wrongly, or is there away to force these "inner" apps to be referred to by their full name?

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• How to exclude rows where matching join is in an SQL tree

  - by Greg K

  Sorry for the poor title, I couldn't think how to concisely describe this problem. I have a set of items that should have a 1-to-1 relationship with an attribute. I have a query to return those rows where the data is wrong and this relationship has been broken (1-to-many). I'm gathering these rows to fix them and restore this 1-to-1 relationship. This is a theoretical simplification of my actual problem but I'll post example table schema here as it was requested. item table: +------------+------------+-----------+ | item_id | name | attr_id | +------------+------------+-----------+ | 1 | BMW 320d | 20 | | 1 | BMW 320d | 21 | | 2 | BMW 335i | 23 | | 2 | BMW 335i | 34 | +------------+------------+-----------+ attribute table: +---------+-----------------+------------+ | attr_id | value | parent_id | +---------+-----------------+------------+ | 20 | SE | 21 | | 21 | M Sport | 0 | | 23 | AC | 24 | | 24 | Climate control | 0 | .... | 34 | Leather seats | 0 | +---------+-----------------+------------+ A simple query to return items with more than one attribute. SELECT item_id, COUNT(DISTINCT(attr_id)) AS attributes FROM item GROUP BY item_id HAVING attributes > 1 This gets me a result set like so: +-----------+------------+ | item_id | attributes | +-----------+------------+ | 1 | 2 | | 2 | 2 | | 3 | 2 | -- etc. -- However, there's an exception. The attribute table can hold a tree structure, via parent links in the table. For certain rows, parent_id can hold the ID of another attribute. There's only one level to this tree. Example: +---------+-----------------+------------+ | attr_id | value | parent_id | +---------+-----------------+------------+ | 20 | SE | 21 | | 21 | M Sport | 0 | .... I do not want to retrieve items in my original query where, for a pair of associated attributes, they related like attributes 20 & 21. I do want to retrieve items where: the attributes have no parent for two or more attributes they are not related (e.g. attributes 23 & 34) Example result desired, just the item ID: +------------+ | item_id | +------------+ | 2 | +------------+ How can I join against attributes from items and exclude these rows? Do I use a temporary table or can I achieve this from a single query? Thanks.

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• Modify SQL result set before returning from stored procedure

  - by m0sa

  I have a simple table in my SQL Server 2008 DB: Tasks_Table -id -task_complete -task_active -column_1 -.. -column_N The table stores instructions for uncompleted tasks that have to be executed by a service. I want to be able to scale my system in future. Until now only 1 service on 1 computer read from the table. I have a stored procedure, that selects all uncompleted and inactive tasks. As the service begins to process tasks it updates the task_active flag in all the returned rows. To enable scaleing of the system I want to enable deployment of the service on more machines. Because I want to prevent a task being returned to more than 1 service I have to update the stored procedure that returns uncompleted and inactive tasks. I figured that i have to lock the table (only 1 reader at a time - I know I have to use an apropriate ISOLATION LEVEL), and updates the task_active flag in each row of the result set before returning the result set. So my question is how to modify the SELECT result set iin the stored procedure before returning it?

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• opengl + glew in Eclipse (for windows)

  - by echo

  I'm trying to get glew to work under eclipse (mingw) in windows. Seems as if it is extremely unusual not to use Visual Studio in this context. The install instructions for glew is simply "use the project file in build/vc6/"... The glew readme also writes: "If you wish to build GLEW from scratch (update the extension data from the net or add your own extension information), you need a Unix environment (including wget, perl, and GNU make). The extension data is regenerated from the top level source directory with: make extensions" In order to get glew to work in eclipse and windows I have to compile it in a unix environment? Is there no other way? Sure, it would probably be a learning experience to pull that off (if I were to succeed) but I feel that my time is best spent actually working on my project. And even if I did manage to crosscompile everything, would it work in anything but Visual Studio? Is the whole thing unfeasible and the best solution is to install Visual Studio? Google haven't been of much help, I feel like I am the only one that has ever attempted to do this (is there a good reason this?).

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• OO model for nsxmlparser when delegate is not self

  - by richard

  Hi, I am struggling with the correct design for the delegates of nsxmlparser. In order to build my table of Foos, I need to make two types of webservice calls; one for the whole table and one for each row. It's essentially a master-query then detail-query, except the master-query-result-xml doesn't return enough information so i then need to query the detail for each row. I'm not dealing with enormous amounts of data. Anyway - previously I've just used NSXMLParser *parser = [[NSXMLParser alloc]init]; [parser setDelegate:self]; [parser parse]; and implemented all the appropriate delegate methods in whatever class i'm in. In attempt at cleanliness, I've now created two separate delegate classes and done something like: NSXMLParser *xp = [[NSXMLParser alloc]init]; MyMasterXMLParserDelegate *masterParserDelegate = [[MyMasterXMLParser]alloc]init]; [xp setDelegate:masterParserDelegate]; [xp parse]; In addition to being cleaner (in my opinion, at least), it also means each of the -parser:didStartElement implementations don't spend most of the time trying to figure out which xml they're parsing. So now the real crux of the problem. Before i split out the delegates, i had in the main class that was also implementing the delegate methods, a class-level NSMutableArray that I would just put my objects-created-from-xml in when -parser:didEndElement found the 'end' of each record. Now the delegates are in separate classes, I can't figure out how to have the -parser:didEndElement in the 'detail' delegate class "return" the created object to the calling class. At least, not in a clean OO way. I'm sure i could do it with all sorts of nasty class methods. Does the question make sense? Thanks.

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• Memory leaks while using array of double

  - by Gacek

  I have a part of code that operates on large arrays of double (containing about 6000 elements at least) and executes several hundred times (usually 800) . When I use standard loop, like that: double[] singleRow = new double[6000]; int maxI = 800; for(int i=0; i<maxI; i++) { singleRow = someObject.producesOutput(); //... // do something with singleRow // ... } The memory usage rises for about 40MB (from 40MB at the beggining of the loop, to the 80MB at the end). When I force to use the garbage collector to execute at every iteration, the memory usage stays at the level of 40MB (the rise is unsignificant). double[] singleRow = new double[6000]; int maxI = 800; for(int i=0; i<maxI; i++) { singleRow = someObject.producesOutput(); //... // do something with singleRow // ... GC.Collect() } But the execution time is 3 times longer! (it is crucial) How can I force the C# to use the same area of memory instead of allocating new ones? Note: I have the access to the code of someObject class, so if it would be needed, I can change it.

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• FFT and IFFT on 3D matrix (Matlab)

  - by SteffenDM

  I have a movie with 70 grayscale frames in MATLAB. I have put them in a 3-D matrix, so the dimensions are X, Y and time. I want to determine the frequencies in the time dimension, so I have to calculate the FFT for every point in the 3rd dimension. This is not a problem but I have to return the images to the original form with ifft. In a normal situation this would be true: X = ifft(fft(X)), but this is not the case it seems in MATLAB when you work with multidimensional data. This is the code I use: for i = 1:length y(:, :, i) = [img1{i, level}]; %# take each picture from an cell array and put it end %# and put it in 3D array y2 = ifft(fft(y, NFFT,3), NFFT, 3); %# NFFT = 128, the 3 is the dimension in which i want %# to calculate the FFT and IFFT y is 480x640x70, so there are 70 images of 640x480 pixels. If I use only fft, y2 is 480x640x128 (this is normal because we want 128 points with NFFT). If I use fft and ifft, y2 is 480x640x128 pixels. This is not normal, the 128 should be 70 again. I tried to do it in just one dimension by using 2 for loops and this works fine. The for loops take to much time, though.

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• OpenMP: Get total number of running threads

  - by Konrad Rudolph

  I need to know the total number of threads that my application has spawned via OpenMP. Unfortunately, the omp_get_num_threads() function does not work here since it only yields the number of threads in the current team. However, my code runs recursively (divide and conquer, basically) and I want to spawn new threads as long as there are still idle processors, but no more. Is there a way to get around the limitations of omp_get_num_threads and get the total number of running threads? If more detail is required, consider the following pseudo-code that models my workflow quite closely: function divide_and_conquer(Job job, int total_num_threads): if job.is_leaf(): # Recurrence base case. job.process() return left, right = job.divide() current_num_threads = omp_get_num_threads() if current_num_threads < total_num_threads: # (1) #pragma omp parallel num_threads(2) #pragma omp section divide_and_conquer(left, total_num_threads) #pragma omp section divide_and_conquer(right, total_num_threads) else: divide_and_conquer(left, total_num_threads) divide_and_conquer(right, total_num_threads) job = merge(left, right) If I call this code with a total_num_threads value of 4, the conditional annotated with (1) will always evaluate to true (because each thread team will contain at most two threads) and thus the code will always spawn two new threads, no matter how many threads are already running at a higher level. I am searching for a platform-independent way of determining the total number of threads that are currently running in my application.

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• Adding array to an object breaks the array

  - by DisgruntledGoat

  I have an array like this (output from print_r): Array ( [price] => 700.00 [room_prices] => Array ( [0] => [1] => [2] => [3] => [4] => ) [bills] => Array ( [0] => Gas ) ) I'm running a custom function to convert it to an object. Only the top-level should be converted, the sub-arrays should stay as arrays. The output comes out like this: stdClass Object ( [price] => 700.00 [room_prices] => Array ( [0] => Array ) [bills] => Array ( [0] => Array ) ) Here is my conversion function. All it does is set the value of each array member to an object: function array_to_object( $arr ) { $obj = new stdClass; if ( count($arr) == 0 ) return $obj; foreach ( $arr as $k=>$v ) $obj->$k = $v; return $obj; } I can't figure this out for the life of me!

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• Using a CMS with an external database

  - by George Reith

  I am looking at building an external site with a CMS, probably Drupal or ExpressionEngine. The problem is that our company already has a membership database that is designed to work with our existing enterprise software. Migrating data from the database manually is not an option as modifications and new data must be accessible in real-time. Because the design of the external database will differ from the CMS's own I have decided the best way forward is to use two databases and force the CMS to use the external to read user information (cannot write to) and a local for everything else the CMS needs to do (read + write). Is this feasible with these Drupal or ExpressionEngine? Ideally I need to be able to use hooks as I do not wan't to modify core CMS files. Sifting through the docs I am not able to find what I would hook into for ether CMS. (Note: I know it is possible, but I want to know if it's feasible). Finally if there is a better way of handling this situation please also chime in. Perhaps there is something at the database level to reference a field or table in an external database? I'm clutching at straws someone can point me in the right direction I'm sure.

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• maximum memory which malloc can allocate!

  - by Vikas

  I was trying to figure out how much memory I can malloc to maximum extent on my machine (1 Gb RAM 160 Gb HD Windows platform). I read that maximum memory malloc can allocate is limited to physical memory.(on heap) Also when a program exceeds consumption of memory to a certain level, the computer stops working because other applications do not get enough memory that they require. So to confirm,I wrote a small program in C, int main(){ int *p; while(1){ p=(int *)malloc(4); if(!p)break; } } Hoping that there would be a time when memory allocation will fail and loop will be breaked. But my computer hanged as It was an infinite loop. I waited for about an hour and finally I had to forcely shut down my computer. Some questions: Does malloc allocate memory from HD also? What was the reason for above behaviour? Why didn't loop breaked at any point of time.? Why wasn't there any allocation failure?

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