Search Results

Search found 21004 results on 841 pages for 'assembly load'.

Page 537/841 | < Previous Page | 533 534 535 536 537 538 539 540 541 542 543 544  | Next Page >

  • searching for a programming platform with hot code swap

    - by Andreas
    I'm currently brainstorming over the idea how to upgrade a program while it is running. (Not while debugging, a "production" system.) But one thing that is required for it, is to actually submit the changed source code or compiled byte code into the running process. Pseudo Code var method = typeof(MyClass).GetMethod("Method1"); var content = //get it from a database (bytecode or source code) SELECT content FROM methods WHERE id=? AND version=? method.SetContent(content); At first, I want to achieve the system to work without the complexity of object-orientation. That leads to the following requirements: change source code or byte code of function drop functions add new functions change the signature of a function With .NET (and others) I could inject a class via an IoC and could thus change the source code. But the loading would be cumbersome, because everything has to be in an Assembly or created via Emit. Maybe with Java this would be easier? The whole ClassLoader is replacable, I think. With JavaScript I could achieve many of the goals. Simply eval a new function (MyMethod_V25) and assign it to MyClass.prototype.MyMethod. I think one can also drop functions somehow with "del" Which general-purpose platform can handle such things?

    Read the article

  • ActiveX not working properly with default security settings

    - by Ummar
    I have written an ActiveX control in C# and have made it working using regasm command, and it works fine as long as the security level is set to low.. Then as a next step I have made a .cab installer (ICD - Internet component downloader), and have signed my .cab file and ActiveX .dll file with a test certificate. when I hit the html page from my browser the installation parts works fine with default security settings of IE, but at the end it seems that nothing is installed and a red cross is shown on place of ActiveX. Moreover I have explored the Download Program Files folder under Windows directory, in status column it is showing word "unknown". while it is "installed" for all other activeX. what may be the problem. Moreover if i use the regasm command to register the assembly it works fine, and I have signed the ActiveX but still I have to move the security bar to low in my browser setting? why it is so? then what is the purpose of signing? I have used RegisterServer=yes in my .inf file Please let me know, if some one has gone through this problem already?

    Read the article

  • Can protobuf-net serialize this combination of interface and generic collection?

    - by tsupe
    I am trying to serialize a ItemTransaction and protobuf-net (r282) is having a problem. ItemTransaction : IEnumerable<KeyValuePair<Type, IItemCollection>></code> and ItemCollection is like this: FooCollection : ItemCollection<Foo> ItemCollection<T> : BindingList<T>, IItemCollection IItemCollection : IList<Item> where T is a derived type of Item. ItemCollection also has a property of type IItemCollection. I am serializing like this: IItemCollection itemCol = someService.Blah(...); ... SerializeWithLengthPrefix<IItemCollection>(stream, itemCol, PrefixStyle.Base128); My eventual goal is to serialize ItemTransaction, but am snagged with IItemCollection. Item and it's derived types can be [de]serialized with no issues, see [1], but deserializing an IItemCollection fails (serializing works). ItemCollection has a ItemExpression property and when deserializing protobuf can't create an abstract class. This makes sense to me, but I'm not sure how to get through it. ItemExpression<T> : ItemExpression, IItemExpression ItemExpression : Expression ItemExpression is abstract as is Expression How do I get this to work properly? Also, I am concerned that ItemTransaction will fail since the IItemCollections are going to be differing and unknown at compile time (an ItemTransaction will have FooCollection, BarCollection, FlimCollection, FlamCollection, etc). What am I missing (Marc) ? [1] http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2276104/protobuf-net-deserializing-across-assembly-boundaries

    Read the article

  • Running multiple applications in STM32 flash

    - by Richard
    Hey! I would like to have two applications in my STM32 flash, one is basically a boot and the other the 'main' application. I have figured out how to load each of them into different areas of flash, and after taking a memory dump everything looks like it is in the right place. So when I do a reset it loads the boot, all the boot does at the moment is jump to the application. Debugging the boot, this all appears to work correctly. However the problems arrives after i've made the jump to the application, it just executes one instruction (assembly) and then jumps back to the boot. It should stay in the application indefinitely. My question is then, where should I 'jump' to in the app? It seems that there are a few potential spots, such as the interrupt vectors, the reset handler, the main function of the app. Actually I've tried all of those with no success. Hopefully that makes sense, i'll update the question if not. thanks for your help! Richard Updates: I had a play around in the debugger and manually changed the program counter to the main of the application, and well that worked a charm, so it makes me think there is something wrong with my jump, why doesn't the program counter keep going after the jump? Actually it seems to be the PSR, the 'T' gets reset on the jump, if I set that again after the jump it continues on with the app as I desire Ok found a solution, seems that you need to have the PC LSB set to 1 when you do a branch or it falls into the 'ARM' mode (32 bit instruction instead of 16 bit instructions like in the 'thumb' mode. Quite an obscure little problem, thanks for letting me share it with you!

    Read the article

  • Can I get a reference to a pending transaction from a SqlConnection object?

    - by Rune
    Hey, Suppose someone (other than me) writes the following code and compiles it into an assembly: using (SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(connString)) { conn.Open(); using (var transaction = conn.BeginTransaction()) { /* Update something in the database */ /* Then call any registered OnUpdate handlers */ InvokeOnUpdate(conn); transaction.Commit(); } } The call to InvokeOnUpdate(IDbConnection conn) calls out to an event handler that I can implement and register. Thus, in this handler I will have a reference to the IDbConnection object, but I won't have a reference to the pending transaction. Is there any way in which I can get a hold of the transaction? In my OnUpdate handler I want to execute something similar to the following: private void MyOnUpdateHandler(IDbConnection conn) { var cmd = conn.CreateCommand(); cmd.CommandText = someSQLString; cmd.CommandType = CommandType.Text; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } However, the call to cmd.ExecuteNonQuery() throws an InvalidOperationException complaining that "ExecuteNonQuery requires the command to have a transaction when the connection assigned to the command is in a pending local transaction. The Transaction property of the command has not been initialized". Can I in any way enlist my SqlCommand cmd with the pending transaction? Can I retrieve a reference to the pending transaction from the IDbConnection object (I'd be happy to use reflection if necessary)?

    Read the article

  • How to debug/break in codedom compiled code

    - by Jason Coyne
    I have an application which loads up c# source files dynamically and runs them as plugins. When I am running the main application in debug mode, is it possible to debug into the dynamic assembly? Obviously setting breakpoints is problematic, since the source is not part of the original project, but should I be able to step into, or break on exceptions for the code? Is there a way to get codedom to generate PDBs for this or something? Here is the code I am using for dynamic compliation. CSharpCodeProvider codeProvider = new CSharpCodeProvider(new Dictionary<string, string>() { { "CompilerVersion", "v3.5" } }); //codeProvider. ICodeCompiler icc = codeProvider.CreateCompiler(); CompilerParameters parameters = new CompilerParameters(); parameters.GenerateExecutable = false; parameters.GenerateInMemory = true; parameters.CompilerOptions = string.Format("/lib:\"{0}\"", Application.StartupPath); parameters.ReferencedAssemblies.Add("System.dll"); parameters.ReferencedAssemblies.Add("System.Core.dll"); CompilerResults results = icc.CompileAssemblyFromSource(parameters, Source); DLL.CreateInstance(t.FullName, false, BindingFlags.Default, null, new object[] { engine }, null, null);

    Read the article

  • Simple Enterprise Library console application refuses to compile

    - by Vadim
    I just downloaded and installed Microsoft Enterprise Library 5.0. I fired up VS 2010 to play with EL 5 and created a very simple console application. However, it would not compile. I got the following error: The type or namespace name 'Data' does not exist in the namespace 'Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary' (are you missing an assembly reference?) I added Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Common, Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Data, and Microsoft.Practices.Unity references to my project. Here's the simple code that refuses to compile. using Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Common.Configuration.Unity; using Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Data; using Microsoft.Practices.Unity; namespace EntLib { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { IUnityContainer container = new UnityContainer(); container.AddNewExtension<EnterpriseLibraryCoreExtension>(); var defaultDatabase = container.Resolve<Database>(); } } } The error above complains about line #2 : using Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Data; Someone probably will point out to a stupid mistake by me, but at the moment I fail to see it. I tried to remove and add again Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Data to refences but it didn't help.

    Read the article

  • Expression Blend doesn't recognize comand objects declared in code behind file

    - by Brian Ensink
    I have a WPF UserControl. The code behind file declares some RoutedUICommand objects which are referenced in the XAML. The application builds and runs just fine. However Expression Blend 3 cannot load the XAML in the designer and gives errors like this one: The member "ResetCameraComand" is not recognized or accessible. The class and the member are both public. Building and rebuilding the project in Blend and restarting Blend hasn't helped. Any ideas what the problem is? Here are fragments of my XAML ... <UserControl x:Class="CAP.Visual.CameraAndLightingControl" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:CAP.Visual;assembly=VisualApp" Height="100" Width="700"> <UserControl.CommandBindings> <CommandBinding Command="local:CameraAndLightingControl.ResetCameraCommand" Executed="ResetCamera_Executed" CanExecute="ResetCamera_CanExecute"/> </UserControl.CommandBindings> .... ... and the code behind C# namespace CAP.Visual { public partial class CameraAndLightingControl : UserControl { public readonly static RoutedUICommand ResetCameraCommand; static CameraAndLightingControl() { ResetCameraCommand = new RoutedUICommand("Reset Camera", "ResetCamera", typeof(CameraAndLightingControl)); }

    Read the article

  • asp.net ajax toolkit combobox doesn't work in hidden div

    - by sam
    I have a combobox inside a hidden div which I use css display = none to make it invisible, but when I make the div visible by setting display = block, the combobox just show the input and its button and ul list all have css as display = 'none', visibility ='hidden'. I can tell it is done by combobox inbuild javascript because I tried to use javascript to set the css manually with no luck. It is a bug of combobox. Urgent help needed. I spent a week to solve this, and our team put a lot trust on the toolkit. Please help me on this, all javascript gurus, thanks. Below is the code to reproduce the bug. When you run it, you can't see the dropdown: <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="WebApplication1._Default" %> <%@ Register Assembly="AjaxControlToolkit" Namespace="AjaxControlToolkit" TagPrefix="asp" %> <asp:ToolkitScriptManager ID="ToolkitScriptManager1" runat="server"> </asp:ToolkitScriptManager> <div id="d" style="display:none"> <asp:ComboBox ID="ComboBox1" runat="server"> <asp:ListItem>a</asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem>d</asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem>f</asp:ListItem> </asp:ComboBox> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text="Label"></asp:Label> </div> <div ID="Button1" runat="server" onclick="show();">click me</div> <script type="text/javascript"> function show() { var d = $get('d'); d.style.display = 'block'; } </script>

    Read the article

  • Peer did not return a certificate

    - by pfista
    I am trying to get two way SSL authentication working between a Python server and an Android client application. I have access to both the server and client, and would like to implement client authentication using my own certificate. So far I have been able to verify the server certificate and connect without client authentication. What sort of certificate does the client need and how do I get it to automatically send it to the server during the handshake process? Here is the client and server side code that I have so far. Is my approach wrong? Server Code while True: # Keep listening for clients c, fromaddr = sock.accept() ssl_sock = ssl.wrap_socket(c, keyfile = "serverPrivateKey.pem", certfile = "servercert.pem", server_side = True, # Require the client to provide a certificate cert_reqs = ssl.CERT_REQUIRED, ssl_version = ssl.PROTOCOL_TLSv1, ca_certs = "clientcert.pem", #TODO must point to a file of CA certificates?? do_handshake_on_connect = True, ciphers="!NULL:!EXPORT:AES256-SHA") print ssl_sock.cipher() thrd = sock_thread(ssl_sock) thrd.daemon = True thrd.start() I suspect I may be using the wrong file for ca_certs...? Client Code private boolean connect() { try { KeyStore keystore = KeyStore.getInstance("BKS"); // Stores the client certificate, to be sent to server KeyStore truststore = KeyStore.getInstance("BKS"); // Stores the server certificate we want to trust // TODO: change hard coded password... THIS IS REAL BAD MKAY truststore.load(mSocketService.getResources().openRawResource(R.raw.truststore), "test".toCharArray()); keystore.load(mSocketService.getResources().openRawResource(R.raw.keystore), "test".toCharArray()); // Use the key manager for client authentication. Keys in the key manager will be sent to the host KeyManagerFactory keyFManager = KeyManagerFactory.getInstance(KeyManagerFactory.getDefaultAlgorithm()); keyFManager.init(keystore, "test".toCharArray()); // Use the trust manager to determine if the host I am connecting to is a trusted host TrustManagerFactory trustMFactory = TrustManagerFactory.getInstance(TrustManagerFactory .getDefaultAlgorithm()); trustMFactory.init(truststore); // Create the socket factory and add both the trust manager and key manager SSLCertificateSocketFactory socketFactory = (SSLCertificateSocketFactory) SSLCertificateSocketFactory .getDefault(5000, new SSLSessionCache(mSocketService)); socketFactory.setTrustManagers(trustMFactory.getTrustManagers()); socketFactory.setKeyManagers(keyFManager.getKeyManagers()); // Open SSL socket directly to host, host name verification is NOT performed here due to // SSLCertificateFactory implementation mSSLSocket = (SSLSocket) socketFactory.createSocket(mHostname, mPort); mSSLSocket.setSoTimeout(TIMEOUT); // Most SSLSocketFactory implementations do not verify the server's identity, allowing man-in-the-middle // attacks. This implementation (SSLCertificateSocketFactory) does check the server's certificate hostname, // but only for createSocket variants that specify a hostname. When using methods that use InetAddress or // which return an unconnected socket, you MUST verify the server's identity yourself to ensure a secure // connection. verifyHostname(); // Safe to proceed with socket now ... I have generated a client private key, a client certificate, a server private key, and a server certificate using openssl. I then added the client certificate to keystore.bks (which I store in /res/raw/keystore.bks) I then added the server certificate to the truststore.bks So now when the client tries to connect I am getting this error server side: ssl.SSLError: [Errno 1] _ssl.c:504: error:140890C7:SSL routines:SSL3_GET_CLIENT_CERTIFICATE:peer did not return a certificate And when I try to do this in the android client SSLSession s = mSSLSocket.getSession(); s.getPeerCertificates(); I get this error: javax.net.ssl.SSLPeerUnverifiedException: No peer certificate So obviously the keystore I am using doesn't appear to have a correct peer certificate in it and thus isn't sending one to the server. What should I put in the keystore to prevent this exception? Furthermore, is this method of two way SSL authentication safe and effective?

    Read the article

  • loaded resources looks ugly

    - by Xaver
    I have the TreeView class using in my project. I use icons for it.First i load icons so: ImageList^ il = gcnew ImageList(); il->Images->Add(Image::FromFile("DISK.ico")); il->Images->Add(Image::FromFile("FILE.ico")); il->Images->Add(Image::FromFile("FOLDER.ico")); treeView1->ImageList = il; All was good. But i dont like that if i delete my icons from directory of project. there is error in my project. I decide to add icons in .resx file. Now icons loading look so: ImageList^ il = gcnew ImageList(); Resources::ResourceManager^ resourceManager = gcnew Resources::ResourceManager ("FilesSaver.Form1", GetType()->Assembly); Object^ disk = resourceManager->GetObject("DISK"); il->Images->Add(reinterpret_cast<Image^>(disk)); Object^ file = resourceManager->GetObject("FILE"); il->Images->Add(reinterpret_cast<Image^>(file)); Object^ folder = resourceManager->GetObject("FOLDER"); il->Images->Add(reinterpret_cast<Image^>(folder)); treeView1->ImageList = il; And why icons in the TreeView looks ugly (they look lighter and have a big black border). Why did this happen?

    Read the article

  • WPF deployment strategy dilemma.clickonce(limited customization)+autoupdate vs installer(unlimited c

    - by black sensei
    Hello Experts!!! I've been facing a deployment problem.I've built a WPF application with visual studio 2008 and created an installer(msi) which works fine.But then it's pain to add automatic update to it. i've seen this article at windowsclient.net but it seems to be pretty old but could have been the perfect thing for me.Then i looked at the .Net Application updater block v2.0 which uses enterprise library june 2005 and for some reason it's not installing on my machine. I thought i will need to use a more recent Enterprise library so i installed and compiled Enterprise 4.1(october 2008) but nothing better happened.To i decided to give a try to CLickonce deployment.After struggling with it, it was almost perfect.I realized that when i was testing the updates provided by the clickonce on my machine which is XP i didn't notice the need of having sqlite dll in the GAC. surely it was already there.I noticed it when i moved to vista that there is a problem.After checking the net i know it's impossible to add a dll to the Global Assembly Cache. Now i'm stuck, i think i've hit a wall.Can any one share some of his experience? I'm willing to try the updater block if i can get help. Thanks for reading this!!

    Read the article

  • Change default markers for directions on google maps

    - by Elaine Marley
    I'm a complete noob with google maps api and I started with a given script that I'm editing to what I need to do. In this case I have a map with some points in it that come from a database. They are like this (after I get the lat/lng from the database): var route1 = 'from: 37.496764,-5.913379 to: 37.392587,-6.00023'; var route2 = 'from: 37.392587,-6.00023 to: 37.376964,-5.990838'; routes = [route1, route2]; Then my script does the following: for(var j = 0; j < routes.length; j++) { callGDirections(j); document.getElementById("dbg").innerHTML += "called "+j+"<br>"; } And then the directions: function callGDirections(num) { directionsArray[num] = new GDirections(); GEvent.addListener(directionsArray[num], "load", function() { document.getElementById("dbg").innerHTML += "loaded "+num+"<br>"; var polyline = directionsArray[num].getPolyline(); polyline.setStrokeStyle({color:colors[num],weight:3,opacity: 0.7}); map.addOverlay(polyline); bounds.extend(polyline.getBounds().getSouthWest()); bounds.extend(polyline.getBounds().getNorthEast()); map.setCenter(bounds.getCenter(),map.getBoundsZoomLevel(bounds)); }); // === catch Directions errors === GEvent.addListener(directionsArray[num], "error", function() { var code = directionsArray[num].getStatus().code; var reason="Code "+code; if (reasons[code]) { reason = reasons[code] } alert("Failed to obtain directions, "+reason); }); directionsArray[num].load(routes[num], {getPolyline:true}); } The thing is, I want to change the A and B markers that I get from google on the map to the ones for each of the points that I'm using (each has it's particular icon in the database) but I don't know how to do this. Furthermore, what would be fantastic but I'm clueless if it's even possible is the following: when I get the directions I get something like this: (a) Street A directions (b) Street B And I want (a) Name of first point directions (b) Name of second point (also from database) I understand that my knowledge of the subject is very lacking and the question might be a bit vague, but I would appreciate any tip pointing me in the right direction. EDIT: Ok, I learned a lot from the google api with this problem but I'm still far from what I need. I learned how to hide the default markers doing this: // Hide the route markers when signaled. GEvent.addListener(directionsArray[num], "addoverlay", hideDirMarkers); // Not using the directions markers so hide them. function hideDirMarkers(){ var numMarkers = directionsArray[num].getNumGeocodes() for (var i = 0; i < numMarkers; i++) { var marker = directionsArray[num].getMarker(i); if (marker != null) marker.hide(); else alert("Marker is null"); } } And now when I create new markers doing this: var point = new GLatLng(lat,lng); var marker = createMarker(point,html); map.addOverlay(marker); They appear but they are not clickable (the popup with the html won't show)

    Read the article

  • Why won't VS2010 RC use my existing types when I add a service reference?

    - by Johan Driessen
    I have a huge problem getting services references in VS2010 RC to use existing assemblies. Even though I have a class library with all the data contracts (classes marked with DataContract and properties with DataMember) that is shared between the service project and the consuming project (which is a class library), when I add a service reference, the data contracts are regenerated withing the service reference instead of using the existing types. When I was using VS2010 beta 2, this worked fine, and I have existing service references using the very same data contracts. But if I add a new service reference, or even update an old one, it won't use the existing types anymore. I have made a mini-test-solution, with one service, one data contract type and one console app as a consumer (all in the same solution), and there it seems to work, but that's no great comfort to me. Is there any way to see why it can't use the existing types? Edit to clearify. It works to generate the proxy classes with svcutil.exe, and point to the data contracts dll, like this: svcutil.exe http://localhost/MyService.svc /reference:[Path To DataContracts]\DataContracts.dll /n:*,MyProject.MyServiceReference /ct:System.Collections.Generic.List`1 The question is, what possible reason could there be for Visual Studio to generate its own datacontracts instead of using the existing ones even though the "reuse" checkbox is checked and the datacontracts assembly is referenced.

    Read the article

  • What is the best practice in regards to building composite dtos off of an aggregate root with domain

    - by Chance
    I'm trying to figure out the best approach/practice for assembling a composite data transfer object off of an aggregate root and would love to hear people's thoughts on this. For example, lets say I have a root that has a few domain objects as children. I want to assemble a specific view dto, based on some business logic, that either has attributes or full dto's of it's objects. What I'm struggling with is trying to figure out where that assembly should happen. I can see it going on the domain object of the aggregate root as there is some business logic associated with it. The benefits of this approach from what I've deduced thus far is that it should reduce the inevitable business logic from bleeding outisde of the domain object. It also allows for private methods that take care of tasks that could become more complex from an external builder. The downsides being that the domain object becomes much more entrenched in the application's workflow and represents much more than just the domain object. It also could become very large in the scenario where you need multiple composite Dtos. Alternatively, I could also see it belonging to some form of transfer object assembler where there is a builder for each domain object. The domain objects would still be responsible for GetDto() and UpdateFromDto(dto). Outside of that, the builder would handle the construction and deconstruction of composite dtos. The downside is kind of mentioned above, where I fear this will easily lead to developers unfamiliar with DDD bleeding a ton of business logic into the assembler which is what I want to desperately avoid. Any thoughts would be greatly apperciated.

    Read the article

  • Missing Intellisense While Describing Custom Control Properties Declaratively

    - by Albert Bori
    So, I've been working on this project for a few days now, and have been unable to resolve the issue of getting intellisense support for my custom-defined inner properties for a user control (ascx, mind you). I have seen the solution to this (using server controls, .cs mind you) many times. Spelled out in this article very well. Everything works for me while using ascx controls except intellisense. Here's the outline of my code: [PersistChildren(true)] [ParseChildren(typeof(BreadCrumbItem))] [ControlBuilder(typeof(BreadCrumbItem))] public partial class styledcontrols_buttons_BreadCrumb : System.Web.UI.UserControl { ... [PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerDefaultProperty)] public List<BreadCrumbItem> BreadCrumbItems { get { return _breadCrumbItems; } set { _breadCrumbItems = value; } } ... protected override void AddParsedSubObject(object obj) { base.AddParsedSubObject(obj); if (obj is BreadCrumbItem) BreadCrumbItems.Add(obj as BreadCrumbItem); } ... public class BreadCrumbItem : ControlBuilder { public string Text { get; set; } public string NavigateURL { get; set; } public override Type GetChildControlType(string tagName, System.Collections.IDictionary attribs) { if (String.Compare(tagName, "BreadCrumbItem", true) == 0) { return typeof(BreadCrumbItem); } return null; } } } Here's my mark up (which works fine, just no intellisense on the child object declarations): <%@ Register src="../styledcontrols/buttons/BreadCrumb.ascx" tagname="BreadCrumb" tagprefix="uc1" %> ... <uc1:BreadCrumb ID="BreadCrumb1" runat="server" BreadCrumbTitleText="Current Page"> <BreadCrumbItem Text="Home Page" NavigateURL="~/test/breadcrumbtest.aspx?iwentsomewhere=1" /> <BreadCrumbItem Text="Secondary Page" NavigateURL="~/test/breadcrumbtest.aspx?iwentsomewhere=1" /> </uc1:BreadCrumb> I think the issue lies with how the intellisense engine traverses supporting classes. All the working examples I see of this are not ascx, but Web Server Controls (cs, in a compiled assembly). If anyone could shed some light on how to accomplish this with ascx controls, I'd appreciate it.

    Read the article

  • Weird .net 4.0 exception when running unit tests

    - by vdh_ant
    Hi guys I am receiving the following exception when trying to run my unit tests using .net 4.0 under VS2010 with moq 3.1. Attempt by security transparent method 'SPPD.Backend.DataAccess.Test.Specs_for_Core.When_using_base.Can_create_mapper()' to access security critical method 'Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.UnitTesting.Assert.IsNotNull(System.Object)' failed. Assembly 'SPPD.Backend.DataAccess.Test, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' is marked with the AllowPartiallyTrustedCallersAttribute, and uses the level 2 security transparency model. Level 2 transparency causes all methods in AllowPartiallyTrustedCallers assemblies to become security transparent by default, which may be the cause of this exception. The test I am running is really straight forward and looks something like the following: [TestMethod] public void Can_create_mapper() { this.SetupTest(); var mockMapper = new Moq.Mock<IMapper>().Object; this._Resolver.Setup(x => x.Resolve<IMapper>()).Returns(mockMapper).Verifiable(); var testBaseDa = new TestBaseDa(); var result = testBaseDa.TestCreateMapper<IMapper>(); Assert.IsNotNull(result); //<<< THROWS EXCEPTION HERE Assert.AreSame(mockMapper, result); this._Resolver.Verify(); } I have no idea what this means and I have been looking around and have found very little on the topic. The closest reference I have found is this http://dotnetzip.codeplex.com/Thread/View.aspx?ThreadId=80274 but its not very clear on what they did to fix it... Anyone got any ideas?

    Read the article

  • C#: How to run NUnit from my code

    - by Flavio
    Hello, I'd like to use NUnit to run unit tests in my plug-in, but it needs to be run in the context of my application. To solve this, I was trying to develop a plug-in that runs NUnit, which in turn will execute my tests in the application's context. I didn't find a specific documentation on this subject so I dug a piece of information here and there and I came out with the following piece of code (which is similar to one I found here in StackOverflow): SimpleTestRunner runner = new SimpleTestRunner(); TestPackage package = new TestPackage( "Test" ); string loc = Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().Location package.Assemblies.Add( loc ); if( runner.Load(package) ) { TestResult result = runner.Run( new NullListener() ); } The result variable says "has no TestFixture" although I know for sure it is there. In fact my test file contains two test. Using another approach I found, which is summarized by the following code: TestSuiteBuilder builder = new TestSuiteBuilder(); TestSuite testSuite = builder.Build( package ); // Run tests TestResult result = testSuite.Run( new NullListener(), NUnit.Core.TestFilter.Empty ); I saw nunit data structures with only 1 test and I had the same error. For sake of completeness, I am using the latest version of nunit, which is 2.5.5.10112. Does anyone know what I'm missing? A sample code would be appreciated. thanks

    Read the article

  • Can I serialize an object if I didn't write the class used to instantiate that object?

    - by Richard77
    Hello, I've a simple class [Serializable] public class MyClass { public String FirstName { get; set: } public String LastName { get; set: } //Bellow is what I would like to do //But, it's not working //I get an exception ContactDataContext db = new ContactDataContext(); public void Save() { Contact contact = new Contact(); contact.FirstName = FirstName; contact.LastName = LastName; db.Contacts.InsertOnSubmit(contact); db.SubmitChanges(); } } I wanted to attach a Save method to the class so that I could call it on each object. When I introduced the above statement which contains ContactDataContext, I got the following error "In assembly ... PublicKeyToken=null' is not marked as serializable" It's clear that the DataContext class is generated by the framework (). I checked and did not see where that class was marked serialize. What can I do to overcome that? What's the rule when I'm not the author of a class? Just go ahead and mark the DataContext class as serializable, and pretend that everything will work? Thanks for helping

    Read the article

  • Where should you put 3rd party .NET dlls when using git submodules to avoid duplication

    - by Tim Abell
    I have two .NET library projects in Visual Studio 2008 that both make use of the MySql Connector for .NET (MySql.Data.dll). These libraries are then in turn both used by a .NET command line application which also uses the Connector. The library projects are pulled in to the application's solution as git submodules and referenced by project in Visual Studio. I'm looking for the most effective strategy for storing and referencing the MySql Connector library. I have tried having the MySql.Data.dll checked in to all three projects (in their root folder), this was problematic when one project changed to a newer version of the connector dll. Although each project had its own version of the dll, only one was packaged into the resultant application leading to an API mismatch which was hard to pin down. This has put me off this approach. I have tried having the command line application reference the connector dll that is held in a submodule, however this only removes the possibility of version mismatches when there is only one submodule rather than two as in this case. I am contemplating putting the dll in the global assembly cache (GAC) of all machines that need to build or use the application, but I'm wary of not having all dependencies for an application available in source control.

    Read the article

  • StructureMap Issue in Initializing the Dependencies

    - by azamsharp
    I am performing some unit tests and want my MembershipProvider to initialize the dependencies. I run the following code before any test is executed [TestFixtureSetup]. public static void StructureMapConfiguration() { ObjectFactory.Initialize(InitializeUsingScanning); } private static void InitializeUsingScanning(IInitializationExpression obj) { obj.Scan( x => { x.Assembly("EStudyMongoDb.Business"); x.WithDefaultConventions(); } ); } Here is my EstablishContext method which is triggered before running any test: public override void EstablishContext() { _provider = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<MongoDbMembershipProvider>(); _config.Add("applicationName", "EStudyApplication"); _config.Add("name", "EStudyMembershipProvider"); _config.Add("requiresQuestionAndAnswer", "false"); _provider.Initialize(_config["name"], _config); } Here is my test: [TestFixture] public class when_creating_a_new_user : specification_for_membership_provider { public override void When() { _user = _provider.CreateUser("johndoe", "password", "[email protected]", String.Empty, String.Empty, true, null, out _status); } [Test] public void should_create_successfully() { var vUser = Membership.GetUser(_user.UserName); Assert.IsNotNull(vUser); } } Now, in the Membership.GetUser method I try to access the _userRepository but I get null.

    Read the article

  • NHibernate stored procedure problem

    - by Calvin
    I'm having a hard time trying to get my stored procedure works with NHibernate. The data returned from the SP does not correspond to any database table. This is my mapping file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="DomainModel" namespace="DomainModel.Entities"> <sql-query name="DoSomething"> <return class="SomeClass"> <return-property name="ID" column="ID"/> </return> exec [dbo].[sp_doSomething] </sql-query> </hibernate-mapping> Here is my domain class: namespace DomainModel.Entities { public class SomeClass { public SomeClass() { } public virtual Guid ID { get; set; } } } When I run the code, it fails with Exception Details: NHibernate.HibernateException: Errors in named queries: {DoSomething} at line 80 Line 78: config.Configure(Path.Combine(AppDomain.CurrentDomain.BaseDirectory, "NHibernate.config")); Line 79: Line 80: g_sessionFactory = config.BuildSessionFactory(); When I debug into NHibernate code, it seems that SomeClass is not added to the persister dictionary because there isn't a class mapping (only sql-query) defined in hbm.xml. And later on in CheckNamedQueries function, it is not able to find the persistor for SomeClass. I've checked all the obvious things (e.g. make hbm as an embedded resource) and my code isn't too much different from other samples I found on the web, but somehow I just can't get it working. Any idea how I can resolve this issue?

    Read the article

  • GCC/X86, Problems with relative jumps

    - by Ian Kelly
    I'm trying to do a relative jump in x86 assembly, however I can not get it to work. It seems that for some reason my jump keeps getting rewritten as an absolute jump or something. A simple example program for what I'm trying to do is this: .global main main: jmp 0x4 ret Since the jmp instruction is 4 bytes long and a relative jump is offset from the address of the jump + 1, this should be a fancy no-op. However, compiling and running this code will cause a segmentation fault. The real puzzler for me is that compiling it to the object level and then disassembling the object file shows that it looks like the assembler is correctly doing a relative jump, but after the file gets compiled the linker is changing it into another type of jump. For example if the above code was in a file called asmtest.s: $gcc -c asmtest.s $objdump -D asmtest.o ... Some info from objdump 00000000 <main>: 0: e9 00 00 00 00 jmp 5 <main+0x5> 5: c3 ret This looks like the assembler correctly made a relative jump, although it's suspicious that the jmp instruction is filled with 0s. I then used gcc to link it then disassembled it and got this: $gcc -o asmtest asmtest.o $objdump -d asmtest ...Extra info and other disassembled functions 08048394 <main>: 8048394: e9 6b 7c fb f7 jmp 4 <_init-0x8048274> 8048399: c3 ret This to me looks like the linker rewrote the jmp statement, or substituted the 5 in for another address. So my question comes down to, what am I doing wrong? Am I specifying the offset incorrectly? Am I misunderstanding how relative jumps work? Is gcc trying to make sure I don't do dangerous things in my code?

    Read the article

  • NHibernate Oracle stored procedure problem

    - by Mr. Flint
    ------Using VS2008, ASP.Net with C#, Oracle, NHibernate---- I have tested my stored procedure. It's working but not with NHibernate. Here are the codes: Procedure : create or replace procedure ThanaDelete (id number) as begin delete from thana_tbl where thana_code = id; end Mapping File: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="DataTransfer" namespace="DataTransfer"> <class name="DataTransfer.Models.Thana, DataTransfer" table="THANA_TBL"> <id name="THANA_CODE" column="THANA_CODE" type="Int32" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="native"> <param name="sequence"> SEQ_TEST </param> </generator> </id> <property name="THANA_NAME" column="THANA_NAME" type="string" not-null="false"/> <property name="DISTRICT_CODE" column="DISTRICT_CODE" type="Int32" not-null="false"/> <property name="USER_ID" column="USER_ID" type="string" not-null="false"/> <property name="TRANSACTION_DATE" column="TRANSACTION_DATE" type="Date" not-null="false"/> <property name="TRANSACTION_TIME" column="TRANSACTION_TIME" type="string" not-null="false"/> <sql-delete>exec THANADELETE ? </sql-delete> </class> </hibernate-mapping> error: Message: could not delete: [DataTransfer.Models.Thana#10][SQL: exec THANADELETE ?] Source: NHibernate Inner Exception System.Data.OracleClient.OracleException Message: ORA-00900: invalid SQL statement

    Read the article

  • Alternative to MS Project 2007 for production scheduling?

    - by john c
    OK... Im coming to grips with the fact that MS Project 2007 may not be the correct tool for my production scheduling. We serve 120 to 150 projects a year with durations from 6 weeks to 12 months. The task are simple (6 to 8 per project) and the resource pool is stable (15 to 20 people). It's really an assembly line product but with extremely varied durations. I need to be able to prioritize the projects for production and run projects concurrently to fully utilize my resources. What are the feelings of the stackoverflow community. Am I using the wrong program? I was really hoping to make this simple for non-programer types to input project data into a form and have the schedule software automated enough to make most of the decisions. Is there a better solution available commercially? I'd like to hold on writing a custom spreadsheet as a last resort but if that's the best route then so be it. Thank you so much for your input.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 533 534 535 536 537 538 539 540 541 542 543 544  | Next Page >