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  • COCOS2D - Animation Stops During Move

    - by maiko
    Hey guys! I am trying to run a "Walk" style animation on my main game sprite. The animations work fine, and my sprite is hooked up to my joystick all fine and dandy. However, I think where I setup the call for my walk animations are wrong. Because everytime the sprite is moving, the animation stops. I know putting the animation in such a weak if statement is probably bad, but please tell me how I could get my sprite to animate properly while it is being moved by the joystick. The sprite faces the right direction, so I can tell the action's first frame is being called, however, it doesn't animate until I stop touching my joystick. Here is How I call the action: //WALK LEFT if (joypadCap.position.x <= 69 /*&& joypadCap.position.y < && joypadCap.position.y 40 */ ) { [tjSprite runAction:walkLeft]; }; //WALK RIGHT if ( joypadCap.position.x = 71 /* && joypadCap.position.y < 100 && joypadCap.position.y 40 */) { [tjSprite runAction:walkRight]; }; THIS: is the how the joystick controls the character: CGPoint newLocation = ccp(tjSprite.position.x - distance/8 * cosf(touchAngle), tjSprite.position.y - distance/8 * sinf(touchAngle)); tjSprite.position = newLocation; Please help. Any alternative ways to call the characters walk animation would be greatly appreciated!

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  • Login as SYS user to Oracle 11g from .NET

    - by Jens Bannmann
    Using the Oracle Data Provider for .NET, my application connects to the database using the privileged SYS user. The connection string is as follows: Data Source=MyTnsName;User ID=sys;Password=MySysPassword;DBA Privilege=SYSDBA This works fine with Oracle 10, but Oracle 11 keeps complaining about an invalid username or password. I verified that the password is correct - other apps work fine with the same credentials. Note that for regular users (without the DBA Privilege part), connecting to Oracle 11 works perfectly. So, what's wrong? Update: This is not an issue with case sensitivity - when constructing the connection string, the password case is not altered by my code, and the password works fine with other, non-.NET-applications. I suspect that this might be caused by the Oracle 10 client I'm using to connect to the 11 database. Oracle states that the client is upward-compatible, the only drawback being that you cannot use some new features of the database. However, SYSDBA connections clearly are not a new Oracle 11 feature, and - again - a non-.NET-app (Keeptool Hora) can connect using the same setup. Any other ideas? Update 2: The problem persists when using an Oracle 11 client :-(

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  • Thoughts on GoGrid vs EC2

    - by Jason
    I am currently hosting my SaaS application at GoGrid (Microsoft stack). Here's what I have: Database Server - physical box, 12 GB RAM, 2 X Quad Core CPU (2.13 GHz Xeon E5506) 2 Web / App servers - cloud servers, 2 GB RAM, 2 VCPUs 300 GB monthly bandwidth I am paying around $900 / month for this. My web / app servers are busting at the seams and need to be upgraded to 4 GB of RAM. I also need a firewall, and GoGrid just added this service for an additional $200. After the upgrade, I will be paying around $1,400. I started looking at Amazon EC2, specifically this config: Database server - "High Memory Double Extra Large Instance" - 34 GB RAM, 13 EC2 compute units 2 Web / App servers - "Large Instance" - 7.5 GB RAM, 4 EC2 compute units If I go with 1 year reserved instances, my upfront cost would be $4,500 and my monthly would be $700. This comes to $1,075 / month when amortized. Amazon also includes a firewall for free. Here are my questions: Do any of you have experience running a database (especially SQL Server) on an EC2 instance? How did it perform compared to a dedicated machine? One of my major concerns is with disk I/O. Amazon's description of a compute unit is fairly vague. Any ideas on how the CPU performance on the database servers would compare? I am hoping that the Amazon solution will provide significantly better performance than my current or even improved GoGrid setup. Having a virtual database server would also be nice in terms of availability. Right now I would be in serious trouble if I had any hardware issues. Thanks for any insight...

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  • Accessing Web.config directly in ASP.NET MVC 1

    - by Neil T.
    I'm trying to implement integration testing in my ASP.NET MVC 1.0 solution. The technologies in use are LINQ-to-SQL, NUnit and WatiN. I recently discovered a pattern that will allow me to create a testing version of the database on the fly without modifying the development version of the database. I needed this behavior in order to run my user interface tests in WatiN that may modify the database. The plan is to modify the connection string in the Web.config file, and pass that new connection string to the DataContext constructor. This way, I don't have to add routes or modify my URLs in order to perform the integration testing. I've set up the project so that the test setup can modify the connection string to point to the test database when the tests are running. The connection string is stored in web.config. The problem I'm having is that when I try to run the tests, I get a NullReferenceException when trying to access the HTTPContext. From everything that I have read so far, the HTTPContext is only available within the context of a controller. Here is the code for the property that is supposed to give me the reference to the Web.config file: private System.Configuration.Configuration WebConfig { get { ExeConfigurationFileMap fileMap = new ExeConfigurationFileMap(); // NullReferenceException occurs on this line. fileMap.ExeConfigFilename = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("~\\web.config"); System.Configuration.Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenMappedExeConfiguration(fileMap, ConfigurationUserLevel.None); return config; } } Is there something that I am missing in order to make this work? Is there a better way to accomplish what I'm trying to achieve?

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  • Instanced drawing with OpenGL ES 2.0

    - by Mårten Wikström
    In short: Is it possible to use the gl_InstanceID built-in variable in OpenGL ES 2.0? And, if so, how? Some more info: I want to draw multiple instances of an object using glDrawArraysInstanced and gl_InstanceID, and I want my application to run on multiple platforms, including iOS. The specification clearly says that these features require ES 3.0. According to the iOS Device Compatibility Reference ES 3.0 is only available on a few devices (those based on the A7 GPU; so iPhone 5s, but not on iPhone 5 or earlier). So my first assumption was that I needed to avoid using instanced drawing on older iOS devices. However, further down in the compatibility reference document it says that the EXT_draw_instanced extension is supported for all SGX Series 5 processors (that includes iPhone 5 and 4s). This makes me think that I could indeed use instanced drawing on older iOS devices too, by looking up and using the appropriate extension function (EXT or ARB) for glDrawArraysInstanced. I'm currently just running some test code using SDL and GLEW on Windows so I haven't tested anything on iOS yet. However, in my current setup I'm having trouble using the gl_InstanceID built-in variable in a vertex shader. I'm getting the following error message: 'gl_InstanceID' : variable is not available in current GLSL version Enabling the "draw_instanced" extension in GLSL has no effect: #extension GL_ARB_draw_instanced : enable #extension GL_EXT_draw_instanced : enable The error goes away when I specifically declare that I need ES 3.0 (GLSL 300 ES): #version 300 es Although that seem to work fine on my Windows desktop machine in an ES 2.0 context I doubt that this would work on an iPhone 5. So, shall I abandon the idea of being able to use instanced drawing on older iOS devices?

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  • Reducing load time, or making the user think the load time is less

    - by Malfist
    I've been working on a website, and we've managed to reduce the total content for a page load from 13.7MiB's to 2.4, but the page still takes forever to load. It's a joomla site (ick), and it has a lot of redundant DOM elements (2000+ for the home page), and make 60+ HttpRequest's per page load, counting all the css, js, and image requests. Unlike drupal, joomla won't merge them all on the fly, and they have to be kept separate or else the joomla components will go nuts. What can I do to improve load time? Things I've done: Added colors to dom elements that have large images as their background so the color is loaded, then the image Reduced excessively large images to much smaller file sizes Reduced DOM elements to ~2000, from ~5000 Loading CSS at the start of the page, and javascript at the end Not totally possible, joomla injects it's own javascript and css and it does it at the header, always. Minified most javascript Setup caching and gziping on server Uncached size 2.4MB, cached is ~300KB, but even with so many dom elements, the page takes a good bit of time to render. What more can I do to improve the load time?

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  • Atomic swap in GNU C++

    - by Steve
    I want to verify that my understanding is correct. This kind of thing is tricky so I'm almost sure I am missing something. I have a program consisting of a real-time thread and a non-real-time thread. I want the non-RT thread to be able to swap a pointer to memory that is used by the RT thread. From the docs, my understanding is that this can be accomplished in g++ with: // global Data *rt_data; Data *swap_data(Data *new_data) { #ifdef __GNUC__ // Atomic pointer swap. Data *old_d = __sync_lock_test_and_set(&rt_data, new_data); #else // Non-atomic, cross your fingers. Data *old_d = rt_data; rt_data = new_data; #endif return old_d; } This is the only place in the program (other than initial setup) where rt_data is modified. When rt_data is used in the real-time context, it is copied to a local pointer. For old_d, later on when it is sure that the old memory is not used, it will be freed in the non-RT thread. Is this correct? Do I need volatile anywhere? Are there other synchronization primitives I should be calling? By the way I am doing this in C++, although I'm interested in whether the answer differs for C. Thanks ahead of time.

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  • Sourcing a shell script, while running with sudo

    - by WishCow
    I would like to write a shell script that sets up a mercurial repository, and allow all users in the group "developers" to execute this script. The script is owned by the user "hg", and works fine when ran. The problem comes when I try to run it with another user, using sudo, the execution halts with a "permission denied" error, when it tries to source another file. The script file in question: create_repo.sh #!/bin/bash source colors.sh REPOROOT="/srv/repository/mercurial/" ... rest of the script .... Permissions of create_repo.sh, and colors.sh: -rwxr--r-- 1 hg hg 551 2011-01-07 10:20 colors.sh -rwxr--r-- 1 hg hg 1137 2011-01-07 11:08 create_repo.sh Sudoers setup: %developer ALL = (hg) NOPASSWD: /home/hg/scripts/create_repo.sh What I'm trying to run: user@nebu:~$ id uid=1000(user) gid=1000(user) groups=4(adm),20(dialout),24(cdrom),46(plugdev),105(lpadmin),113(sambashare),116(admin),1000(user),1001(developer) user@nebu:~$ sudo -l Matching Defaults entries for user on this host: env_reset User user may run the following commands on this host: (ALL) ALL (hg) NOPASSWD: /home/hg/scripts/create_repo.sh user@nebu:~$ sudo -u hg /home/hg/scripts/create_repo.sh /home/hg/scripts/create_repo.sh: line 3: colors.sh: Permission denied So the script is executed, but halts when it tries to include the other script. I have also tried using: user@nebu:~$ sudo -u hg /bin/bash /home/hg/scripts/create_repo.sh Which gives the same result. What is the correct way to include another shell script, if the script may be ran with a different user, through sudo?

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  • Cann Boost Program_options separate comma separated argument values

    - by lrm
    If my command line is: > prog --mylist=a,b,c Can Boost's program_options be setup to see three distinct argument values for the mylist argument? I have configured program_options as: namespace po = boost::program_options; po::options_description opts("blah") opts.add_options() ("mylist", std::vector<std::string>>()->multitoken, "description"); po::variables_map vm; po::store(po::parse_command_line(argc, argv, opts), vm); po::notify(vm); When I check the value of the mylist argument, I see one value as a,b,c. I'd like to see three distinct values, split on comma. This works fine if I specify the command line as: > prog --mylist=a b c or > prog --mylist=a --mylist=b --mylist=c Is there a way to configure program_options so that it sees a,b,c as three values that should each be inserted into the vector, rather than one? I am using boost 1.41, g++ 4.5.0 20100520, and have enabled c++0x experimental extensions.

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  • Use Django ORM as standalone [closed]

    - by KeyboardInterrupt
    Possible Duplicates: Use only some parts of Django? Using only the DB part of Django I want to use the Django ORM as standalone. Despite an hour of searching Google, I'm still left with several questions: Does it require me to set up my Python project with a setting.py, /myApp/ directory, and modules.py file? Can I create a new models.py and run syncdb to have it automatically setup the tables and relationships or can I only use models from existing Django projects? There seems to be a lot of questions regarding PYTHONPATH. If you're not calling existing models is this needed? I guess the easiest thing would be for someone to just post a basic template or walkthrough of the process, clarifying the organization of the files e.g.: db/ __init__.py settings.py myScript.py orm/ __init__.py models.py And the basic essentials: # settings.py from django.conf import settings settings.configure( DATABASE_ENGINE = "postgresql_psycopg2", DATABASE_HOST = "localhost", DATABASE_NAME = "dbName", DATABASE_USER = "user", DATABASE_PASSWORD = "pass", DATABASE_PORT = "5432" ) # orm/models.py # ... # myScript.py # import models.. And whether you need to run something like: django-admin.py inspectdb ... (Oh, I'm running Windows if that changes anything regarding command-line arguments.).

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  • EOFException in ObjectInputStream Only happens with Webstart not by java(w).exe ?!

    - by Houtman
    Hi, Anyone familiar with the differences in starting with Webstart(javaws.exe) compared to starting the app. using java.exe or javaw.exe regarding streams ? This is the exception which i ONLY get when using Webstart : java.io.EOFException at java.io.ObjectInputStream$PeekInputStream.readFully(Unknown Source) at java.io.ObjectInputStream$BlockDataInputStream.readShort(Unknown Source) at java.io.ObjectInputStream.readStreamHeader(Unknown Source) at java.io.ObjectInputStream.<init>(Unknown Source) at fasttools.jtools.dss.api.core.remoting.thinclient.RemoteSocketChannel.<init>(RemoteSocketChannel.java:77) This is how i setup the connections on both sides //==Server side== //Thread{ Socket mClientSocket = cServSock.accept(); new DssServant(mClientSocket).start(); //} DssServant(Socket socket) throws DssException { try { OutputStream mOutputStream = new BufferedOutputStream( socket.getOutputStream() ); cObjectOutputStream = new ObjectOutputStream(mOutputStream); cObjectOutputStream.flush(); //publish streamHeader InputStream mInputStream = new BufferedInputStream( socket.getInputStream() ); cObjectInputStream = new ObjectInputStream(mInputStream); .. } catch (IOException e) { .. } .. } //==Client side== public RemoteSocketChannel(String host, int port, IEventDispatcher eventSubscriptionHandler) throws DssException { cHost = host; port = (port == 0 ? DssServer.PORT : port); try { cSocket = new Socket(cHost, port); OutputStream mOutputStream = new BufferedOutputStream( cSocket.getOutputStream() ); cObjectOut = new ObjectOutputStream(mOutputStream); cObjectOut.flush(); //publish streamHeader InputStream mInputStream = new BufferedInputStream( cSocket.getInputStream() ); cObjectIn = new ObjectInputStream(mInputStream); } catch (IOException e) { .. } .. } Thanks [EDIT] Webstart console says: Java Web Start 1.6.0_19 Using JRE version 1.6.0_19-b04 Java HotSpot(TM) Client VM Server is running same 1.6u19

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  • maven assemblies. Putting each dependency with transitive dependencies in own directory?

    - by jr
    I have a maven project which consists of a few modules. This is to be deployed on a client machine and will involve installing Tomcat and will make use of NSIS for installer. There is a separate application which monitors tomcat and can restart it, perform updates, etc. So, I have the modules setup as follows: project +-- client (all code, handlers, for the war) +-- client-common - (shared code, shared between monitor and client) +-- client-web - (the war, basically just uses war has applicationcontext, web.xml,etc) +-- monitor - (the monitor application jar. Uses wrapper to run) So, I need to create an installer. I was planning on creating another module which would be the installer. This is where I would have tomcat directory and I'd like maven to "assemble" everything and then run NSIS so I can create the final installer. However, I need to have the monitor jar file in a directory and then have all monitors dependencies in a lib/ directory. The final directory structure should be: project-installer-directory/monitor/monitor-version.jar project-installer-directory/monitor/lib/monitor-dep-1.jar project-installer-directory/monitor/lib/monitor-dep-2.jar project-installer-directory/monitor/lib/monitor-dep-3.jar project-installer-directory/webapps/client-web.war Where in the client-web\WEB-INF\lib directory we will have all client-web's dependencies after it is exploded. That works, I have the .war file. What I am having problems with is getting the monitor module dependencies independent of the dependencies of the client-web module. I tried to just create the installer module and make the monitor and client-web dependencies, but when I use dependencies-copy it gives me everything. Not what I want. I'm leaning towards creating a new module called monitor-assembly or something to give me a zip file which contains the directory format I need, but that is yet another module. Can someone please help me with the correct way to accomplish this? thanks!

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  • ASP.net MVC Linq-To-SQL Many-To-Many Field Binding

    - by user336858
    Hi there, The short version of this question is "Is there a way to gracefully handle database insertion for an object that has a many-to-many field that has been set up in a partial class?" Apologies if it's been asked before. Example Suppose I have a typical MVC setup with the tables: Posts {PostID, ...} Categories {CategoryID, ...} A post can have more than one category, and a category can identify more than one post. Thus suppose further that I need an extra table: PostCategories {PostID, CategoryID, ...} This handles the many-to-many relationship between posts and categories. As far as I know, there's no way to do this in Linq-to-SQL right now so I have to shoehorn it in by adding a partial Post class to the project to add that functionality. Something like: public partial class Post { public IEnumerable<Category> Categories{ get { ... } set { ... } } } So I can now create a "Create" view that automatically populates a "Categories" UI item. This is where the trouble starts. So here's my question: How do you get automatic object model binding to work cleanly with an object that has a many-to-many relationship to control? The workaround that makes many-to-many relationships possible relies on the Post object having a PostID in order to be associated with CategoryID(s), which is only issued after the Post object has been submitted for validation and insertion. Bit of a Catch22 here. Any terminology, links, or tips you can provide would be tremendously helpful!

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  • A GUID as the MySQL table's Primary Key or as a separate column

    - by Ben
    I have a multi-process program that performs, in a 2 hour period, 5-10 million inserts to a 34GB table within a single Master/Slave MySQL setup (plus an equal number of reads in that period). The table in question has only 5 fields and 3 (single field) indexes. The primary key is auto-incrementing. I am far from a DBA, but the database appears to be crippled during this two hour period. So, I have a couple of general questions. 1) How much bang will I get out of batching these writes into units of 10? Currently, I am writing each insert serially because, after writing, I immediately need to know, in my program, the resulting primary key of each insert. The PK is the only unique field presently and approximating the order of insertion with something like a Datetime field or a multi-column value is not acceptable. If I perform a bulk insert, I won't know these IDs, which is a problem. So, I've been thinking about turning the auto-increment primary key into a GUID and enforcing uniqueness. I've also been kicking around the idea of creating a new column just for the purposes of the GUID. I don't really see the what that achieves though, that the PK approach doesn't already offer. As far as I can tell, the big downside to making the PK a randomly generated number is that the index would take a long time to update on each insert (since insertion order would not be sequential). Is that an acceptable approach for a table that is taking this number of writes? Thanks, Ben

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  • Ninject giving NullReferenceException

    - by Iceman
    I'm using asp.net MVC 2 and Ninject 2. The setup is very simple. Controller calls service that calls repository. In my controller I use inject to instantiate the service classes with no problem. But the service classes don't instantiate the repositories, giving me NullReferenceException. public class BaseController : Controller { [Inject] public IRoundService roundService { get; set; } } This works. But then this does not... public class BaseService { [Inject] public IRoundRepository roundRepository { get; set; } } Giving a NullReferenceException, when I try to use the roundRepository in my RoundService class. IList<Round> rounds = roundRepository.GetRounds( ); Module classes... public class ServiceModule : NinjectModule { public override void Load( ) { Bind( ).To( ).InRequestScope( ); } } public class RepositoryModule : NinjectModule { public override void Load( ) { Bind<IRoundRepository>( ).To<RoundRepository>( ).InRequestScope( ); } } In global.axax.cs protected override IKernel CreateKernel( ) { return new StandardKernel( new ServiceModule( ), new RepositoryModule( ) ); }

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  • Why does this test fail?

    - by Tomas Lycken
    I'm trying to test/spec the following action method public virtual ActionResult ChangePassword(ChangePasswordModel model) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { if (MembershipService.ChangePassword(User.Identity.Name, model.OldPassword, model.NewPassword)) { return RedirectToAction(MVC.Account.Actions.ChangePasswordSuccess); } else { ModelState.AddModelError("", "The current password is incorrect or the new password is invalid."); } } // If we got this far, something failed, redisplay form return RedirectToAction(MVC.Account.Actions.ChangePassword); } with the following MSpec specification: public class When_a_change_password_request_is_successful : with_a_change_password_input_model { Establish context = () => { membershipService.Setup(s => s.ChangePassword(Param.IsAny<string>(), Param.IsAny<string>(), Param.IsAny<string>())).Returns(true); controller.SetFakeControllerContext("POST"); }; Because of = () => controller.ChangePassword(inputModel); ThenIt should_be_a_redirect_result = () => result.ShouldBeARedirectToRoute(); ThenIt should_redirect_to_success_page = () => result.ShouldBeARedirectToRoute().And().ShouldRedirectToAction<AccountController>(c => c.ChangePasswordSuccess()); } where with_a_change_password_input_model is a base class that instantiates the input model, sets up a mock for the IMembershipService etc. The test fails on the first ThenIt (which is just an alias I'm using to avoid conflict with Moq...) with the following error description: Machine.Specifications.SpecificationException: Should be of type System.RuntimeType but is [null] But I am returning something - in fact, a RedirectToRouteResult - in each way the method can terminate! Why does MSpec believe the result to be null?

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  • How can I run Ruby specs and/or tests in MacVim without locking up MacVim?

    - by Henry
    About 6 months ago I switched from TextMate to MacVim for all of my development work, which primarily consists of coding in Ruby, Ruby on Rails and JavaScript. With TextMate, whenever I needed to run a spec or a test, I could just command+R on the test or spec file and another window would open and the results would be displayed with the 'pretty' format applied. If the spec or test was a lengthy one, I could just continue working with the codebase since the test/spec was running in a separate process/window. After the test ran, I could click through the results directly to the corresponding line in the spec file. Tim Pope's excellent rails.vim plugin comes very close to emulating this behavior within the MacVim environment. Running :Rake when the current buffer is a test or spec runs the file then splits the buffer to display the results. You can navigate through the results and key through to the corresponding spot in the file. The problem with the rails.vim approach is that it locks up the MacVim window while the test runs. This can be an issue with big apps that might have a lot of setup/teardown built into the tests. Also, the visual red/green html results that TextMate displays (via --format pretty, I'm assuming) is a bit easier to scan than the split window. This guy came close about 18 mos ago: http://cassiomarques.wordpress.com/2009/01/09/running-rspec-files-from-vim-showing-the-results-in-firefox/ The script he has worked with a bit of hacking, but the tests still ran within MacVim and locked up the current window. Any ideas on how to fully replicate the TextMate behavior described above in MacVim? Thanks!

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  • jQuery "growl-like" effect in VB.net

    - by StealthRT
    Hey all, i have made a simple form that mimiks the jQuery "GROWL" effect seen here http://www.sandbox.timbenniks.com/projects/jquery-notice/ However, i have ran into a problem. If i have more than one call to the form to display a "Growl" then it just refreshes the same form with whatever call i send it. In other words, i can only display one form at a time instead of having one drop down and a new one appear above it. Here is my simple form code for the "GROWL" form: Public Class msgWindow Public howLong As Integer Public theType As String Private loading As Boolean Protected Overrides Sub OnPaint(ByVal pe As System.Windows.Forms.PaintEventArgs) Dim pn As New Pen(Color.DarkGreen) If theType = "OK" Then pn.Color = Color.DarkGreen ElseIf theType = "ERR" Then pn.Color = Color.DarkRed Else pn.Color = Color.DarkOrange End If pn.Width = 2 pe.Graphics.DrawRectangle(pn, 0, 0, Me.Width, Me.Height) pn = Nothing End Sub Public Sub showMessageBox(ByVal typeOfBox As String, ByVal theMessage As String) Me.Opacity = 0 Me.Show() Me.SetDesktopLocation(My.Computer.Screen.WorkingArea.Width - 350, 15) Me.loading = True theType = typeOfBox lblSaying.Text = theMessage If typeOfBox = "OK" Then Me.BackColor = Color.FromArgb(192, 255, 192) ElseIf typeOfBox = "ERR" Then Me.BackColor = Color.FromArgb(255, 192, 192) Else Me.BackColor = Color.FromArgb(255, 255, 192) End If If Len(theMessage) <= 30 Then howLong = 4000 ElseIf Len(theMessage) >= 31 And Len(theMessage) <= 80 Then howLong = 7000 ElseIf Len(theMessage) >= 81 And Len(theMessage) <= 100 Then howLong = 12000 Else howLong = 17000 End If Me.opacityTimer.Start() End Sub Private Sub opacityTimer_Tick(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles opacityTimer.Tick If Me.loading Then Me.Opacity += 0.07 If Me.Opacity >= 0.8 Then Me.opacityTimer.Stop() Me.opacityTimer.Dispose() Pause(howLong) Me.loading = False Me.opacityTimer.Start() End If Else Me.Opacity -= 0.08 If Me.Opacity <= 0 Then Me.opacityTimer.Stop() Me.Close() End If End If End Sub Public Sub Pause(ByVal Milliseconds As Integer) Dim dTimer As Date dTimer = Now.AddMilliseconds(Milliseconds) Do While dTimer > Now Application.DoEvents() Loop End Sub End Class I call the form by this simple call: Call msgWindow.showMessageBox("OK", "Finished searching images.") Does anyone know a way where i can have the same setup but would allow me to add any number of forms without refreshing the same form over and over again? Like always, any help would be great! :) David

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  • Address family not supported by protocol exception

    - by srg
    I'm trying to send a couple of values from an android application to a web service which I've setup. I'm using Http Post to send them but when I run the application I get the error- request time failed java.net.SocketException: Address family not supported by protocol. I get this while debugging with both the emulator as well as a device connected by wifi. I've already added the internet permission using: <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET" /> This is the code i'm using to send the values void insertData(String name, String number) throws Exception { String url = "http://192.168.0.12:8000/testapp/default/call/run/insertdbdata/"; HttpClient client = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpPost post = new HttpPost(url); try { List<NameValuePair> params = new ArrayList<NameValuePair>(2); params.add(new BasicNameValuePair("a", name)); params.add(new BasicNameValuePair("b", number)); post.setEntity(new UrlEncodedFormEntity(params)); HttpResponse response = client.execute(post); }catch(Exception e){ e.printStackTrace(); } Also I know that my web service work fine because when I send the values from an html page it works fine - <form name="form1" action="http://192.168.0.12:8000/testapp/default/call/run/insertdbdata/" method="post"> <input type="text" name="a"/> <input type="text" name="b"/> <input type="submit"/> I've seen questions of similar problems but haven't really found a solution. Thanks

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  • Adding a block of XML as child of a SimpleXMLElement object

    - by miCRoSCoPiC_eaRthLinG
    Hey all, I have this SimpleXMLElement object with a XML setup similar to the following... $xml <<< EOX <books> <book> <name>ABCD</name> </book> </books> EOX; $sx = new SimpleXMLElement( $xml ); Now I have a class named Book that contains info. about each book. The same class can also spit out the book info. in XML format akin the the above (the nested block).. example, $book = new Book( 'EFGH' ); $book->genXML(); ... will generate <book> <name>EFGH</name> </book> Now I'm trying to figure out a way by which I can use this generated XML block and append as a child of so that now it looks like... for example.. // Non-existent member method. For illustration purposes only. $sx->addXMLChild( $book->genXML() ); ...XML tree now looks like: <books> <book> <name>ABCD</name> </book> <book> <name>EFGH</name> </book> </books> From what documentation I have read on SimpleXMLElement, addChild() won't get this done for you as it doesn't support XML data as tag value. Any ideas on how I should go about this ? Thanks, m^e

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  • Flash SWF not initializing until visible - can I force them to initialize?

    - by Jason
    I have an application that needs to render about 100 flash graphs (as well as other DOM stuff) in a series of rows that vertically extend many times beyond the current visible window - in other words, the users have to scroll down see see all the different graphs. This application is also dynamic and when a user changes a value in the DOM (anywhere on the page) it will need to propagate that change to all the Flash graphs at the same time. So I setup all the externalInterface callbacks and was careful to not let any JS start going until the ever-so-important "flashIsReady" call and...it worked great until I tried to update() the existing swf's with new data. Here was the behavior: - All the swfs load (initially) in both IE/Fox = good. - Updating swfs with new content works in IE but not in Fox = not good - Updating swfs with new content works in Fox --ONLY IF-- I scrolled down to the bottom of the page, then back to the top -- BEFORE -- I triggered an update(). So then I started tracing out each time a swf called the JS to say "flash is ready" and I realized, Firfox only renders swfs as they become visible. And To be honest - that's fine and actually, I am pretty sure that IE does this too. But the problem is that not only does Firefox not initialize the swf, Firefox doesn't even acknowledge the swf exists (expect for after onload) if it has not yet been visible. And the proof is that you get JS errors saying: "[FlashDOMID].FlashMethod is not a function". However, scroll down a little, wait until its visible and suddenly the trace starts lighting up "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready" and once they are all ready, everything works fine. Someone told me that FF does not init swf's until visible - can I force it? I can post code if you need...but its pretty heavy (hard to strip out the relevant from the rest) and I would like to avoid it (for your sakes) if possible. The question is simple - have you had this happen and if so, did you find a solution? Does anyone now how to force a not-yet-visible swf to initialize? Thanks guys.

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  • How is a functional programming-based javascript app laid out?

    - by user321521
    I've been working with node.js for awhile on a chat app (I know, very original, but I figured it'd be a good learning project). Underscore.js provides a lot of functional programming concepts which look interesting, so I'd like to understand how a functional program in javascript would be setup. From my understanding of functional programming (which may be wrong), the whole idea is to avoid side effects, which are basically having a function which updates another variable outside of the function so something like var external; function foo() { external = 'bar'; } foo(); would be creating a side effect, correct? So as a general rule, you want to avoid disturbing variables in the global scope. Ok, so how does that work when you're dealing with objects and what not? For example, a lot of times, I'll have a constructor and an init method that initializes the object, like so: var Foo = function(initVars) { this.init(initVars); } Foo.prototype.init = function(initVars) { this.bar1 = initVars['bar1']; this.bar2 = initVars['bar2']; //.... } var myFoo = new Foo({'bar1': '1', 'bar2': '2'}); So my init method is intentionally causing side effects, but what would be a functional way to handle the same sort of situation? Also, if anyone could point me to either a python or javascript source code of a program that tries to be as functional as possible, that would also be much appreciated. I feel like I'm close to "getting it", but I'm just not quite there. Mainly I'm interested in how functional programming works with traditional OOP classes concept (or does away with it for something different if that's the case).

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  • Windows Service Installation

    - by Goober
    Scenario I have a server, that has NO Visual Studio Installed. It literally has a normal command prompt and nothing installed yet. We don't want to install anything (except the .Net framework which we have already done). We just want to install a bunch of C# Windows Services that we have written. So far I have been installing and running the windows service on my local machine using a "setup and deploy" project that I built into the application, which I could then use to install the service locally. Question How can I install the service on the server? I imagine it can be done from the command prompt only, but what else do I need? - If anything? and where do I put the files that I want to install BEFORE I install them? I imagine I will have to compile the application on my local machine in Visual Studio, then copy it over to the server, and then run an install utility to install it on the server? Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Identify server that made call to web service

    - by sleepybobos
    I am working within an intranet environment. We have both a production and development sharepoint server (WSS 3). We have a 3rd party workflow product which runs on top of sharepoint. It is installed on both the production and development sharepoint servers. The workflow product can call web services I have written which are hosted on our web server. How would I have the web services determine which sharepoint server made the call to the web service, be it the production or development server? I would then use this information to server specific information from web.config or database etc. Currently the site hosting web services is setup to allow anonymous access so code such as System.Web.HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name; returns and empty string. If windows authenticaion is used it returns the identity of the currently logged in user, which is no user in identifying the server the call was made from. I need a push in the right direction to address what I believe is probably a common scenario please.

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  • How do I test is storage-conf is being loaded in Cassandra 0.7.3?

    - by user657253
    I have installed Cassandra and gotten it working on two machines. I have followed the instructions to hook them up to each other by configuring the storage-conf.xml files. Both machines respond well to thrift and to command line cassandra. This is tutorial I used to setup the storage-conf.xml files. The tutorial says that if I run netstat, I should NOT see Cassandra bound to 127.0.0.1 on my seed node. I should see it bound to my internal IP, which I have configured in the storage-conf.xml file. I have rebooted the servers and relaunched cassandra. Still, I see the localhost address insead of the correct internal IP address. Is it that my .yaml file is overriding the storage-conf.xml file? If so, how do I delete the appropriate things in the .yaml? Or how do I tell Cassandra to look for my storage-conf.xml file? A few things I have tried: renaming the cassandra.yaml file. What happens is that cassandra will not load. If i rename the storage-conf.xml, cassandra does load. When I installed Cassandra, it did not come with a storage-conf.xml file. I had to grab it off the apache wiki.

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