Search Results

Search found 41903 results on 1677 pages for 'anonymous type'.

Page 539/1677 | < Previous Page | 535 536 537 538 539 540 541 542 543 544 545 546  | Next Page >

  • iPhone: Crash in Custom Autorelease Pool

    - by user338322
    My app is crashing when I try to post images in an HTTP request. I am trying to upload images to a server. The crash appears related to my autorelease pool because the crash is trapped at the [pool release] message. Here is the crash report: #0 0x326712f8 in prepareForMethodLookup () #1 0x3266cf5c in lookUpMethod () #2 0x32668f28 in objc_msgSend_uncached () #3 0x33f70996 in NSPopAutoreleasePool () #4 0x33f82a6c in -[NSAutoreleasePool drain] () #5 0x00003d3e in -[CameraViewcontroller save:] (self=0x811400, _cmd=0x319c00d4, number=0x11e210) at /Users/hardikrathore/Desktop/LiveVideoRecording/Classes/CameraViewcontroller.m:266 #6 0x33f36f8a in __NSFireDelayedPerform () #7 0x32da44c2 in CFRunLoopRunSpecific () #8 0x32da3c1e in CFRunLoopRunInMode () #9 0x31bb9374 in GSEventRunModal () #10 0x30bf3c30 in -[UIApplication _run] () #11 0x30bf2230 in UIApplicationMain () #12 0x00002650 in main (argc=1, argv=0x2ffff474) at /Users/hardikrathore/Desktop/LiveVideoRecording/main.m:14 The crash report says that final line of the following code is the point of the crash. (Line No. 266) -(void)save:(id)number { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; j =[number intValue]; while(screens[j] != NULL){ NSLog(@" image made : %d",j); UIImage * image = [UIImage imageWithCGImage:screens[j]]; image=[self imageByCropping:image toRect:CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 240)]; NSData *imgdata = UIImageJPEGRepresentation(image,0.3); [image release]; CGImageRelease(screens[j]); screens[j] = NULL; UIImage * image1 = [UIImage imageWithCGImage:screens[j+1]]; image1=[self imageByCropping:image1 toRect:CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 240)]; NSData *imgdata1 = UIImageJPEGRepresentation(image1,0.3); [image1 release]; CGImageRelease(screens[j+1]); screens[j+1] = NULL; NSString *urlString=@"http://www.test.itmate4.com/iPhoneToServerTwice.php"; // setting up the request object now NSMutableURLRequest *request = [[NSMutableURLRequest alloc]init]; [request setURL:[NSURL URLWithString:urlString]]; [request setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; NSString *fileName=[VideoID stringByAppendingString:@"_"]; fileName=[fileName stringByAppendingString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d",k]]; NSString *fileName2=[VideoID stringByAppendingString:@"_"]; fileName2=[fileName2 stringByAppendingString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d",k+1]]; /* add some header info now we always need a boundary when we post a file also we need to set the content type You might want to generate a random boundary.. this is just the same as my output from wireshark on a valid html post */ NSString *boundary = [NSString stringWithString:@"---------------------------14737809831466499882746641449"]; NSString *contentType = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"multipart/form-data; boundary=%@",boundary]; [request addValue:contentType forHTTPHeaderField: @"Content-Type"]; /* now lets create the body of the post */ //NSString *count=[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d",front];; NSMutableData *body = [NSMutableData data]; [body appendData:[[NSString stringWithFormat:@"\r\n--%@\r\n",boundary] dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; //[body appendData:[[NSString stringWithFormat:@"Content-Disposition: form-data; name=\"userfile\"; count=\"@\"";filename=\"%@.jpg\"\r\n",count,fileName] dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; [body appendData:[[NSString stringWithFormat:@"Content-Disposition: form-data; name=\"userfile\"; filename=\"%@.jpg\"\r\n",fileName] dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; [body appendData:[[NSString stringWithString:@"Content-Type: application/octet-stream\r\n\r\n"] dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; [body appendData:[NSData dataWithData:imgdata]]; [body appendData:[[NSString stringWithFormat:@"\r\n--%@--\r\n",boundary] dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; //second boundary NSString *string1 = [[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"\r\n--%@\r\n",boundary]; NSString *string2 =[[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"Content-Disposition: form-data; name=\"userfile2\"; filename=\"%@.jpg\"\r\n",fileName2]; NSString *string3 =[[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"\r\n--%@--\r\n",boundary]; [body appendData:[string1 dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; [body appendData:[string2 dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; //experiment //[body appendData:[[NSString stringWithFormat:@"Content-Disposition: form-data; name=\"userfile2\"; filename=\"%@.jpg\"\r\n",fileName2] dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; [body appendData:[[NSString stringWithString:@"Content-Type: application/octet-stream\r\n\r\n"] dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; [body appendData:[NSData dataWithData:imgdata1]]; //[body appendData:[[NSString stringWithFormat:@"\r\n--%@--\r\n",boundary] dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; [body appendData:[string3 dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; // setting the body of the post to the reqeust [request setHTTPBody:body]; // now lets make the connection to the web NSData *returnData = [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:request returningResponse:nil error:nil]; NSString *returnString = [[NSString alloc] initWithData:returnData encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]; if([returnString isEqualToString:@"SUCCESS"]) { NSLog(returnString); k=k+2; j=j+2; [self performSelectorInBackground:@selector(save:) withObject:(id)[NSNumber numberWithInt:j]]; } [imgdata release]; [imgdata1 release]; [NSThread sleepForTimeInterval:.01]; } [pool drain]; //<-------------Line 266 } I don't understand what is causing the crash.

    Read the article

  • Twitter @anywhere API problems in firefox only

    - by Brian Scott
    I've implemented a simple example of the Twitter @anywhere api to display user hovercards. The example works great in Internet Explorer and Chrome. However, whenever I the page loads in Firefox I receive the following message in an alert window: To set up @anywhere, please provide a client ID Surely if the results are correct in Chrome and IE then everything must be setup correctly? Here is a simple code block which I've tested recreates the problem in Firefox only: <script src="http://platform.twitter.com/anywhere.js?id=WMg5kRMlIw807lRTsktnNQ&amp;v=1" type="text/javascript" > </script> <script type="text/javascript"> twttr.anywhere(onAnywhereLoad); function onAnywhereLoad(twitter) { twitter().hovercards(); }); </script>

    Read the article

  • Create LINQ to entities OrderBy expression on the fly

    - by AyKarsi
    I'm trying to add the orderby expression on the fly. But when the query below is executed I get the following exception: System.NotSupportedException: Unable to create a constant value of type 'Closure type'. Only primitive types ('such as Int32, String, and Guid') are supported in this context. The strange thing is, I am query exactly those primitive types only. string sortBy = HttpContext.Current.Request.QueryString["sidx"]; ParameterExpression prm = Expression.Parameter(typeof(buskerPosting), "posting"); Expression orderByProperty = Expression.Property(prm, sortBy); // get the paged records IQueryable<PostingListItemDto> query = (from posting in be.buskerPosting where posting.buskerAccount.cmsMember.nodeId == m.Id orderby orderByProperty //orderby posting.Created select new PostingListItemDto { Set = posting }).Skip<PostingListItemDto>((page - 1) * pageSize).Take<PostingListItemDto>(pageSize); Hope somebody can shed some light on this!

    Read the article

  • jQuery AJAX POST gives undefined index

    - by Sebastian
    My eventinfo.php is giving the following output: <br /> <b>Notice</b>: Undefined index: club in <b>/homepages/19/d361310357/htdocs/guestvibe/wp-content/themes/yasmin/guestvibe/eventinfo.php</b> on line <b>11</b><br /> [] HTML (index.php): <select name="club" class="dropdown" id="club"> <?php getClubs(); ?> </select> jQuery (index.php): <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "http://www.guestvibe.com/wp-content/themes/yasmin/guestvibe/eventinfo.php", data: $('#club').serialize(), success: function(data) { $('#rightbox_inside').html('<h2>' + $('#club').val() + '<span style="font-size: 14px"> (' + data[0].day + ')</h2><hr><p><b>Entry:</b> ' + data[0].entry + '</p><p><b>Queue jump:</b> ' + data[0].queuejump + '</p><br><p><i>Guestlist closes at ' + data[0].closing + '</i></p>'); }, dataType: "json" }); }); $('#club').change(function(event) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "http://www.guestvibe.com/wp-content/themes/yasmin/guestvibe/eventinfo.php", data: $(this).serialize(), success: function(data) { $('#rightbox_inside').hide().html('<h2>' + $('#club').val() + '<span style="font-size: 14px"> (' + data[0].day + ')</h2><hr><p><b>Entry:</b> ' + data[0].entry + '</p><p><b>Queue jump:</b> ' + data[0].queuejump + '</p><br><p><i>Guestlist closes at ' + data[0].closing + '</i></p>').fadeIn('500'); }, dataType: "json" }); }); </script> I can run alerts from the jQuery, so it is active. I've copied this as is from an old version of the website, but I've changed the file structure (through to move to WordPress) so I suspect the variables might not even be reaching eventinfo.php in the first place... index.php is in wp-content/themes/cambridge and eventinfo.php is in wp-content/themes/yasmin/guestvibe but I've tried to avoid structuring issues by referencing the URL in full. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • IIS6 site using integrated authentication (NTLM) fails when accessed with Win7 / IE8

    - by Ciove
    Hi, I'm having pretty similar problems as described in case 139099, but the fix there doesn't seem to work for me. Here's the details: Server: Win2003Srv R2 SP2 (stadalone, not a member of a domain). IIS6, TCP/443 (https). Anonymous access disabled. Integrated Windows authentication enabled. Local useraccouts Each useraccount has own virtual folder with change access and read access to site root. The 'adsutil NTAuthenticationProviders "NTLM"' -thing set to site root and useraccount's virtual folder. Client: Win7 Enterprise Member of a AD-Domain IE8 Allows three login attepts then fails. Using [webservername][username] in the logon window (Windows security) Logon using other browsers (Chrome and Firefox) works OK. The Web services log shows one 401.2 and two 401.1 events. The Security Event log shows two events, first is Fauilure Audit (680), The second event is Fauilure Audit (529) with these details: Logon Failure: Reason: Unknown user name or bad password User Name: [username] Domain: [webservername] Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Workstation Name: [MyWorkstation] Caller User Name: - Caller Domain: - Caller Logon ID: - Caller Process ID: - Transited Services: - Source Network Address: [999.999.999.999] Source Port: 20089 Any ideas appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Form helper for creating Radio button in Cakephp

    - by Aruna
    hi, i am trying to create a Radio button using Cakephp like the one the result should resemble like <div data-attr="radio" id="1"> <label id="label1">Untitled1</label><br/> <input type="radio" value="option1" id="Radio11" name="Workexperience"/> <label for="Radio11">Option1</label> <input type="radio" value="option2" id="Radio12" name="Workexperience"/> <label for="Radio12">Option2</label> </div> how to generate so using Form helper.. Please suggest me..

    Read the article

  • unsetting application role in classic ASP

    - by user303526
    Hi, I'm trying to unset an application role but have been failing miserably. I was able to get the cookie value after setting (sp_setapprole) the application role. But I haven't been able to use that cookie (type varbinary / byte array) in my query to unset using sp_unsetapprole. If it was any other stored procedure it wouldn't have been a problem. I was able to use Command object and create a parameter which takes data type input of adVarBinary (204) and execute the command line.. but to the Server the query goes as below. exec sp_executesql N'sp_unsetapprole @P1 ',N'@P1 varbinary(36)',0x01000000CD11697F8F0ED3627BC1DAD25FB9CEB3A2EC5B289C658235E510CD9F29230000 Since sp_setapprole and sp_unsetapprole have to be run ad hoc, the sql server is failing to run this line. And I'm finding it hard to append varbinary cookie value to a simple query such as 'sp_unsetapprole ' & varKookie so it runs "directly" on to the server. Any kind of suggestions are welcome. Thanks, Nandagopal

    Read the article

  • html tags between <style> tags

    - by Gagan
    <html> <body> <style type="text/css"> p.first {color:blue} p.second {color:green} </style> <p class="first">Hello World</p> <p class="second">Hello World</p> <style type="text/css"> p.first {color:green} p.second {color:blue} </style> <p class="first">Hello World</p> <p class="second">Hello World</p> </body> </html> How is a browser supposed to render css which is non contiguous? Is it supposed to generate some data structure using all the css styles on a page and use that for rendering? Or does it render using style information in the order it sees?

    Read the article

  • WCF service reference stopped generating code for one project

    - by Mike Pateras
    I have references to two different WCF services in a project. I updated the reference for one of the services, and now no code is generated for it. The references.cs file just has the "this is genrated code" comment at the top. Updating that same service in other projects and updating the other service both work fine. It's only that one service reference in this one project that's causing the problem, and I'm getting no information from Visual Studio (it just says it failed to generate code and I should look at the other errors, which provide no information). If I uncheck the "reuse types in referenced assemblies", code is generated, but I don't want to have this one project be different from the others. I'd like to solve the problem. Re-checking the reuse type option produces an empty references.cs file, again. The collection type doesn't seem to matter, either. How can I diagnose and solve this problem?

    Read the article

  • EF4: common interface for EF entities

    - by Feryt
    Hi. I have public interface: public interface IEntity { int ID { get; set; } string Name { get; set; } bool IsEnabled { get; set; } } ehich some EF entities implements(thanks to partial class) and extesion method: public static IEnumerable<SelectListItem> ToSelectListItems<T>(this IQueryable<T> entities, int? selectedID = null) where T : IEntity { return entities.Select(c => new { c.Name, c.ID }).ToList().Select(c => new SelectListItem { Text = c.Name, Value = c.ID.ToString(), Selected = (c.ID == selectedID) }); } Calling ToSelectListItems return exception: Unable to cast the type '<EF entity name>' to type 'IEntity'. LINQ to Entities only supports casting Entity Data Model primitive types. Why, any ideas? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • expand a varchar column very slowly , why?

    - by francs
    Hi We need to modify a column of a big product table , usually normall ddl statments will be excutely fast ,but the above ddl statmens takes about 10 minnutes?I wonder know the reason! I just want to expand a varchar column?The following is the detailsl --table size wapreader_log= select pg_size_pretty(pg_relation_size('log_foot_mark')); pg_size_pretty ---------------- 5441 MB (1 row) --table ddl wapreader_log= \d log_foot_mark Table "wapreader_log.log_foot_mark" Column | Type | Modifiers -------------+-----------------------------+----------- id | integer | not null create_time | timestamp without time zone | sky_id | integer | url | character varying(1000) | refer_url | character varying(1000) | source | character varying(64) | users | character varying(64) | userm | character varying(64) | usert | character varying(64) | ip | character varying(32) | module | character varying(64) | resource_id | character varying(100) | user_agent | character varying(128) | Indexes: "pk_log_footmark" PRIMARY KEY, btree (id) --alter column wapreader_log= \timing Timing is on. wapreader_log= ALTER TABLE wapreader_log.log_foot_mark ALTER column user_agent TYPE character varying(256); ALTER TABLE Time: 603504.835 ms

    Read the article

  • Database Modelling - Conceptually different entities with near identical fields

    - by Andrew Shepherd
    Suppose you have two sets of conceptual entities: MarketPriceDataSet which has multiple ForwardPriceEntries PoolPriceForecastDataSet which has multiple PoolPriceForecastEntry Both different child objects have near identical fields: ForwardPriceEntry has StartDate EndDate SimulationItemId ForwardPrice MarketPriceDataSetId (foreign key to parent table) PoolPriceForecastEntry has StartDate EndDate SimulationItemId ForecastPoolPrice PoolPriceForecastDataSetId (foreign key to parent table) If I modelled them as separate tables, the only difference would be the foreign key, and the name of the price field. There has been a debate as to whether the two near identical tables should be merged into one. Options I've thought of to model this is: Just keep them as two independent, separate tables Have both sets in the one table with an additional "type" field, and a parent_id equalling a foreign key to either parent table. This would sacrifice referential integrity checks. Have both sets in the one table with an additional "type" field, and create a complicated sequence of joining tables to maintain referential integrity. What do you think I should do, and why?

    Read the article

  • Python grab class in class definition.

    - by epochwolf
    I don't even know how to explain this, so here is the code I'm trying. class Test: type = self.__name__ #self doesn't work, how do I get a reference to Test? class Test2(Test): pass #Test2.type should return "Test2" The reason I'm even trying this is I'm working on creating a base class for an orm I'm using. I want to avoid defining the table name for every model I have. Also knowing what the limits of python is will help me avoid wasting time trying impossible things.

    Read the article

  • What data should I use to create an autofill "destination" field like Facebook or the Trip Advisor s

    - by sbar
    In order to create a “destination” auto filter input field on our website, I need a data source that provides a hierarchical data set of Region, Country, County/State, City and Town (plus an area like the Peak District National Park if at all possible) I know sites like Trip Advisor and Facebook seem to have very robust datasets for this. When you type, it brings up a match list with the hierarchy displayed (e.g. if you type Boston you get 6 results as there are multiply places called Boston – the hierarchy allows you to pick the correct option) There are many data sources out there but they either lack hierarchy or do not seem to be easily updatable or complete. I had expected this to be an easy task given the amount of site that have a destination or location autofill field. However, i cannot find a datasource or method that works. any help would be much appreciated. Tks,

    Read the article

  • How to return a property name when comparing two properties at class-level

    - by CodeMonkey
    Hi I have implemented an 'EqualTo' Validation Attribute, that compares two Properties of an object, during ModelBinding in ASP.NET MVC 2. The problem I have is not with it not working, because it does work. The problem is, when I do my request - which is an ajax request - I get back errors to my front-end, where it sets a class on the input fields to indicate invalid input. What it does is iterate through a list of Errors (in a JsonResult), and set a class. This is all dandy. But the ValidationAtrribute I am having trouble with is set at a Class-level, i.e., it's not like other ValidationAttributes where you set something like "[Required]" or something like that. [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Class, AllowMultiple=true, Inherited=false)] public class EqualToAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public String SourceProperty { get; set; } public String MatchProperty { get; set; } public EqualToAttribute(string source, string match) { SourceProperty = source; MatchProperty = match; } public override Boolean IsValid(Object value) { Type objectType = value.GetType(); PropertyInfo[] properties = objectType.GetProperties(); object sourceValue = new object(); object matchValue = new object(); Type sourceType = null; Type matchType = null; int counter = 0; foreach (PropertyInfo propertyInfo in properties) { if (propertyInfo.Name == SourceProperty || propertyInfo.Name == MatchProperty) { if (counter == 0) { sourceValue = propertyInfo.GetValue(value, null); sourceType = propertyInfo.GetValue(value, null).GetType(); } if (counter == 1) { matchValue = propertyInfo.GetValue(value, null); matchType = propertyInfo.GetValue(value, null).GetType(); } counter++; if (counter == 2) { break; } } } if (sourceType != null && matchType != null) { return sourceValue.ToString().Equals(matchValue.ToString()); //return Convert.ChangeType(sourceValue, sourceType) == Convert.ChangeType(matchValue, matchType); } return false; } private object _typeId = new object(); public override object TypeId { get { return this._typeId; } } } Now this code works, except for the fact that the validation process does not return which Property failed. And I simply can't figure out how to make it return one of the two. In reality I don't care which one it returns.. because both are failing.. Do you have an idea how to make it return the/or both Property/Properties that is/are failing.

    Read the article

  • SQL Server 2005 stored procedure error

    - by user1670625
    I have created a stored procedure of insert command for employee details in SQL Server 2005 in which one of the parameters is an image for which I have used varbinary as the datatype in the table.. But when I am adding that parameter in the stored procedure I am getting the following error- Implicit conversion from data type varchar to varbinary is not allowed. Use the CONVERT function to run this query. Stored procedure: ( @Employee_ID nvarchar(10)='', @Password nvarchar(10)='', @Security_Question nvarchar(50)='', @Answer nvarchar(50)='', @First_Name nvarchar(20)='', @Middle_Name nvarchar(20)='', @Last_Name nvarchar(20)='', @Employee_Type nvarchar(15)='', @Department nvarchar(15)='', @Photo varbinary(50)='' ) insert into Registration ( Employee_ID, Password, Security_Question, Answer, First_Name, Middle_Name, Last_Name, Employee_Type, Department, Photo ) values ( @Employee_ID, @Password, @Security_Question, @Answer, @First_Name, @Middle_Name, @Last_Name, @Employee_Type, @Department, @Photo ) Table structure: Column Name Data Type Allow Nulls Employee_ID nvarchar(10) Unchecked Password nvarchar(10) Checked Security_Question nvarchar(50) Checked Answer nvarchar(50) Checked First_Name nvarchar(20) Checked Middle_Name nvarchar(20) Checked Last_Name nvarchar(20) Checked Employee_Type nvarchar(15) Checked Department nvarchar(15) Checked Photo varbinary(50) Checked I am not getting what to do..can anyone give me some suggestion or solution? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Styling WPF Toolkit DataGrid Column Headers

    - by ChrisFletcher
    Hi, I'm having an issue styling the WPF Datagrid, I've styled the column headers (of type ColumnHeader). But when the data in the columns does not fill the full width of the grid an additional column is added to pad out the grid. This column ignores the ColumnHeader style and looks out of place presumably because the element has a different type, I've looked through the library in object browser but I can't find this element. I've also considered fixing the sizes so this column is unnecessary but thats not a viable option. The problem is demonstrated in the following article: http://blogs.msdn.com/jaimer/archive/2009/01/20/styling-microsoft-s-wpf-datagrid.aspx The element I mean is in the top right, just to the right of green column 3 and just above the cell with the row background arrow.

    Read the article

  • Dropdown in Access 2007 parameter query. Why not working

    - by waanders
    Hello, I want a Access parameter query to ask an user for a value (a location in this case). When I type [Enter location] in the Criteria field it works fine: I get a dialog box (Enter Parameter Value) with a textbox and my text (Enter Location). So far, so good. This works (the result also). But now I want a dropdown/combobox (instead of a textbox ) for the user to pick a location. I made a form and type Forms![Form1]![CmbLocation] in the Criteria field. Like this: http://office.microsoft.com/en-us/access/HA011170771033.aspx But I still get a textbox (with the reference as textlabel). What am I doing wrong? Has anybody any advice?

    Read the article

  • Confusion about Nullable<T> constraints

    - by n535
    Greetings everybody. I am sorry, if this was already asked before (searched in vain) or is really very simple, but i just can't get it. The MSDN definition of a Nullable type, states, that it is defined in a following manner: [SerializableAttribute] public struct Nullable<T> where T : struct, new() So the question is quite straightforward: How is this definition possible? Or this is just a typo? Every value type already has a default constructor. Indeed, when i try to compile something like this, the compiler reasonably says, that it is illegal to apply both constraints at the same time, because the second one is implicitly included in a first one. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Solving a cyclical dependency in Ninject (Compact Framework)

    - by Alex
    I'm trying to use Ninject for dependency injection in my MVP application. However, I have a problem because I have two types that depend on each other, thus creating a cyclic dependency. At first, I understand that it was a problem, because I had both types require each other in their constructors. Therefore, I moved one of the dependencies to a property injection instead, but I'm still getting the error message. What am I doing wrong? This is the presenter: public class LoginPresenter : Presenter<ILoginView>, ILoginPresenter { public LoginPresenter( ILoginView view ) : base( view ) { } } and this is the view: public partial class LoginForm : Form, ILoginView { [Inject] public ILoginPresenter Presenter { private get; set; } public LoginForm() { InitializeComponent(); } } And here's the code that causes the exception: static class Program { /// <summary> /// The main entry point for the application. /// </summary> [MTAThread] static void Main() { // Show the login form Views.LoginForm loginForm = Kernel.Get<Views.Interfaces.ILoginView>() as Views.LoginForm; Application.Run( loginForm ); } } The exception happens on the line with the Kernel.Get<>() call. Here it is: Error activating ILoginPresenter using binding from ILoginPresenter to LoginPresenter A cyclical dependency was detected between the constructors of two services. Activation path: 4) Injection of dependency ILoginPresenter into property Presenter of type LoginForm 3) Injection of dependency ILoginView into parameter view of constructor of type LoginPresenter 2) Injection of dependency ILoginPresenter into property Presenter of type LoginForm 1) Request for ILoginView Suggestions: 1) Ensure that you have not declared a dependency for ILoginPresenter on any implementations of the service. 2) Consider combining the services into a single one to remove the cycle. 3) Use property injection instead of constructor injection, and implement IInitializable if you need initialization logic to be run after property values have been injected. Why doesn't Ninject understand that since one is constructor injection and the other is property injection, this can work just fine? I even read somewhere looking for the solution to this problem that Ninject supposedly gets this right as long as the cyclic dependency isn't both in the constructors. Apparently not, though. Any help resolving this would be much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Problems rendering pages in FF and IE

    - by Michael
    I am having a constant trouble with pages not rendering correctly between FF and IE. not my code below. "Select an Account" should be next to the drop down such as: Select an Account Type: "then my form" however my form goes to the next line when I want it next to "Select an Account". In IE it renders correctly in FF it does not. <p><b><strong>Select an Account Type <FORM NAME="myform"> <SELECT NAME="mylist"> <OPTION VALUE="traditional">Traditional Account <OPTION VALUE="paperless">Paperless Account </SELECT> </FORM></b></strong></p>

    Read the article

  • embed a jquery script after jquery is loaded by widget

    - by matthew k
    http://stackoverflow.com/a/6065421 was helpful to see how to confirm jquery has been loaded. my widget will need a class that was written using jquery. may i have some assistance on embedding this other class built using jquery? thank you, below is the snippet from the above link with my code added in the final portion as noted in the code comments: (function(window, document, version, callback) { var j, d; var loaded = false; if (!(j = window.jQuery) || version > j.fn.jquery || callback(j, loaded)) { var script = document.createElement("script"); script.type = "text/javascript"; script.src = "/media/jquery.js"; script.onload = script.onreadystatechange = function() { if (!loaded && (!(d = this.readyState) || d == "loaded" || d == "complete")) { callback((j = window.jQuery).noConflict(1), loaded = true); j(script).remove(); } }; document.documentElement.childNodes[0].appendChild(script) } })(window, document, "1.3", function($, jquery_loaded) { //my code added below var script_tag = document.createElement('script'); script_tag.setAttribute("type","text/javascript"); script_tag.setAttribute("src", "http://mysite.com/widget/slides.jquery.js"); (document.getElementsByTagName("head")[0] || document.documentElement).appendChild(script_tag); $('#slides').slides({}); //this line gives an error. }); right now, i am trying the following based on the response(s) provided to this question (line that throws error is noted with a comment): //this function is called after jquery being embedded has been confirmed. {mysite} placeholder is nonexistent in actual code. function main() { jQuery(document).ready(function($) { var css_link = $("<link>", { rel: "stylesheet", type: "text/css", href: "http://mysite/widget/widget.css" }); css_link.appendTo('head'); $('#crf_widget').after('<div id="crf_widget_container"></div>'); /******* Load HTML *******/ var jsonp_url = "http://mysite/widget.php?callback=?"; $.getJSON(jsonp_url, function(data) { $('#crf_widget_container').html(data); $('#category_sel').change(function(){ alert(this.value); }); $.getScript("http://mysite/widget/slides.jquery.js", function(data, textStatus, jqxhr) { alert(1); //fires ok $('#slides').slides({}); //errors }); }); }); }

    Read the article

  • Can jQuery dynamically change a "username" field based on a "name" field?

    - by SoulieBaby
    Hi all, basically I have two input fields, "name" and "username". The idea is that the "username" field will change depending on what is entered into the "name" field - dynamically. I also need the username field to be in lowercase only and to change spaces into dashes. I was thinking using onkeydown but I couldn't get it to do anything. I've been looking around, but can't seem to find what I'm looking for. Anyone got any ideas? <input type="text" name="name" id="name" class="field" /> <input type="text" name="username" id="username" class="field" /> ^^ basic form inputs.

    Read the article

  • Jquery getting list of values of hidden inputs within a div

    - by RandyMarsh
    I am trying to get a list of values within a div that I will format later using the .each() method. They are input values which are hidden my html and jquery call looks like this. <div id="container_0"> <input type="hidden" id="check_data" value=10> <input type="hidden" id="check_data" value=20> </div> Jquery: var list = $('#container_0 input#check_data'); $(list).each( function() { alert($(this).val()); } ); This however is not returning any values. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Template function as a template argument

    - by Kos
    I've just got confused how to implement something in a generic way in C++. It's a bit convoluted, so let me explain step by step. Consider such code: void a(int) { // do something } void b(int) { // something else } void function1() { a(123); a(456); } void function2() { b(123); b(456); } void test() { function1(); function2(); } It's easily noticable that function1 and function2 do the same, with the only different part being the internal function. Therefore, I want to make function generic to avoid code redundancy. I can do it using function pointers or templates. Let me choose the latter for now. My thinking is that it's better since the compiler will surely be able to inline the functions - am I correct? Can compilers still inline the calls if they are made via function pointers? This is a side-question. OK, back to the original point... A solution with templates: void a(int) { // do something } void b(int) { // something else } template<void (*param)(int) > void function() { param(123); param(456); } void test() { function<a>(); function<b>(); } All OK. But I'm running into a problem: Can I still do that if a and b are generics themselves? template<typename T> void a(T t) { // do something } template<typename T> void b(T t) { // something else } template< ...param... > // ??? void function() { param<SomeType>(someobj); param<AnotherType>(someotherobj); } void test() { function<a>(); function<b>(); } I know that a template parameter can be one of: a type, a template type, a value of a type. None of those seems to cover my situation. My main question is hence: How do I solve that, i.e. define function() in the last example? (Yes, function pointers seem to be a workaround in this exact case - provided they can also be inlined - but I'm looking for a general solution for this class of problems).

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 535 536 537 538 539 540 541 542 543 544 545 546  | Next Page >