Search Results

Search found 14159 results on 567 pages for 'notes from the field'.

Page 540/567 | < Previous Page | 536 537 538 539 540 541 542 543 544 545 546 547  | Next Page >

  • Blocking problem Deserializing XML to object problem

    - by fernando
    I have a blocking problem I have XML file under some url http://myserver/mywebApp/myXML.xml In the below code which I run in Console Application, bookcollection has null Books field :( <books> <book id="5352"> <date>1986-05-05</date> <title> Alice in chains </title> </book> <book id="4334"> <date>1986-05-05</date> <title> 1000 ways to heaven </title> </book> <book id="1111"> <date>1986-05-05</date> <title> Kitchen and me </title> </book> </books> XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); doc.Load("http://myserver/mywebapp/myXML.xml"); BookCollection books = new BookCollection(); XmlNodeReader reader2 = new XmlNodeReader(doc.DocumentElement); XmlSerializer ser2 = new XmlSerializer(books.GetType()); object obj = ser2.Deserialize(reader2); BookCollection books2= (BookCollection)obj; using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { [Serializable()] public class Book { [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlAttribute("id")] public string id { get; set; } [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlElement("date")] public string date { get; set; } [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlElement("title")] public string title { get; set; } } } using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Xml.Serialization; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { [Serializable()] [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlRootAttribute("books", Namespace = "", IsNullable = false)] public class BookCollection { [XmlArray("books")] [XmlArrayItem("book", typeof(Book))] public Book[] Books { get; set; } } }

    Read the article

  • Stop output of image if no record - paperclip - Ruby on rails

    - by bgadoci
    I have just installed paperclip into my ruby on rails blog application. Everything is working great...too great. I am trying to figure out how to tell paperclip not to output anything if there is no record in the table so that I don't have broken image links everywhere. How, and where, do I do this? Here is my code: class Post < ActiveRecord::Base has_attached_file :photo, :styles => { :small => "150x150"} validates_presence_of :body, :title has_many :comments, :dependent => :destroy has_many :tags, :dependent => :destroy has_many :ugtags, :dependent => :destroy has_many :votes, :dependent => :destroy belongs_to :user after_create :self_vote def self_vote # I am assuming you have a user_id field in `posts` and `votes` table. self.votes.create(:user => self.user) end cattr_reader :per_page @@per_page = 10 end View <% div_for post do %> <div id="post-wrapper"> <div id="post-photo"> <%= image_tag post.photo.url(:small) %> </div> <h2><%= link_to_unless_current h(post.title), post %></h2> <div class="light-color"> <i>Posted <%= time_ago_in_words(post.created_at) %></i> ago </div> <%= simple_format truncate(post.body, :length => 600) %> <div id="post-options"> <%= link_to "Read More >>", post %> | <%= link_to "Comments (#{post.comments.count})", post %> | <%= link_to "Strings (#{post.tags.count})", post %> | <%= link_to "Contributions (#{post.ugtags.count})", post %> | <%= link_to "Likes (#{post.votes.count})", post %> </div> </div> <% end %>

    Read the article

  • Jquery $.post and PHP - Prevent the ability to use script outside of main website.

    - by Tim
    I have a PHP script setup using Jquery $.post which would return a response or do an action within the targeted .php file within $.post. Eg. My page has a form where you type in your Name. Once you hit the submit form button, $.post is called and sends the entered Name field value into "mywebsite.xyz/folder/ajaxscript.php" If a user was to visit "mywebsite.xyz/folder/ajaxscript.php" directly and somehow POST the data to the script, the script would return a response / do an action, based on the submitted POST data. The problem is, I don't want others to be able to periodically "call" an action or request a response from my website without using the website directly. Theoretically, right now you could determine what Name values my website allows without even visiting it, or you could call an action without going through the website, by simply visiting "mywebsite.xyz/folder/ajaxscript.php" So, what measures can I take to prevent this from happening? So far my idea is to ensure that it is a $_POST and not a $_GET - so they cannot manually enter it into the browser, but they could still post data to the script... Another measure is to apply a session key that expires, and is only valid for X amount of visits until they revisit the website. ~ Or, just have a daily "code" that changes and they'd need to grab this code from the website each day to keep their direct access to the script working (eg. I pass the daily "code" into each post request. I then check that code matches in the ajax php script.) However, even with these meaures, they will STILL have access to the scripts so long as they know how to POST the data, and also get the new code each day. Also, having a daily code requirement will cause issues when visiting the site at midnight (12:00am) as the code will change and the script will break for someone who is on the website trying to call the script, with the invalid code being passed still. I have attempted using .htaccess however using: order allow,deny deny from all Prevents legitimate access, and I'd have to add an exception so the website's IP is allowed to access it.. which is a hassle to update I think. Although, if it's the only legitimate solution I guess I'll have to. If I need to be more clear please let me know.

    Read the article

  • How to calculate the time difference between two time fields , with respect to the date changes

    - by Tiru
    I want to calculate the time difference.I have three EditTexts , I want to input the times in the first two edittexts in HH:MM format. And then calculate the time difference and the result will show on third edittext field in same format. If the date changes, the time difference will calculate according that, i.e If first time = 23:00 and second time = 01:00 then, the time difference = 02:00 hours public class TimeCalculate extends Activity { private String mBlock; private String mBlockoff; private String mBlockon ; // String mHours, mMinutes; Date date1, date2; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); EditText blockoff = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.blockoff); mBlockoff = blockoff.getText().toString(); EditText blockon = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.blockon); mBlockon = blockon.getText().toString(); SimpleDateFormat simpleDateFormat = new SimpleDateFormat("hh:mm"); try { date1 = simpleDateFormat.parse(mBlockoff); } catch (ParseException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } try { date2 = simpleDateFormat.parse(mBlockon); } catch (ParseException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } mBlock = getDifference(date1, date2); EditText block = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.block); block.setText(mBlock.toString()); } public static String getDifference(Date startTime, Date endTime) { if (startTime == null) return "corrupted"; Calendar startDateTime = Calendar.getInstance(); startDateTime.setTime(startTime); Calendar endDateTime = Calendar.getInstance(); endDateTime.setTime(endTime); long milliseconds1 = startDateTime.getTimeInMillis(); long milliseconds2 = endDateTime.getTimeInMillis(); long diff = milliseconds2 - milliseconds1; /*int hours = (int)diff / (60 * 60 * 1000); int minutes = (int) (diff / (60 * 1000)); minutes = minutes - 60 * hours; long seconds = diff / (1000); */ //timeDiff = DateUtils.formatElapsedTime(seconds); SimpleDateFormat simpleDateFormat = new SimpleDateFormat("HH:MM"); Date date = new Date(diff); return simpleDateFormat.format(date); } } I executed this code ,but gives error as Source not found.I think error at getDifference method.Please give any other logic

    Read the article

  • Modular GWT design concerns

    - by GlGuru
    Hi, I have a couple of questions regarding a modular GWT based application framework. I have some ideas about them but being new to the field of web development I feel they are far from ideal. I'd appreciate a few comments and suggestions in this regard. Here are my questions: I am developing a framework which will allow third parties to embed GWT applications into our website and do some communication with them using simple iFrame postMessage. All these third party modules are going to use our SDK which is also GWT based. The problem arises that even though all the modules will be using the same codebase there is going to be a massive overheard in the amount of duplicate Javascript code (i.e. our common SDK code base which is quite large) being downloaded on the client's machine. This is highly redundant and problematic, not only due to the sheer size of duplicate code but, also due to the fact that subsequent updates of the SDK would require the modules to be recompiled which is going to create a DLL hell kind of scenario in the long run. What is the best way of doing this kind of thing? Is there a way where I can have some static GWT code (i.e. the SDK) and the dynamic GWT module refers to it (even if lies on a different domain) and it all work happily? The other part of the problem lies in providing robust scripting front end to the SDK. At first it appears to be trivial since Javascript itself is a scripting language. However, I do not know how to load and call a piece of pure Javascript code at runtime? I am willing to put restrictions on the target Javascript (i.e. having a function main and unique namespace or something). Furthermore the Javascript will come as a string from a database and not as a full URL. If its doable in Javascript how does one get this right in GWT i.e. forcing the compiler to emit a certain function in the generated Javascript? This I believe can be lesser of a problem by having a stub Javascript with all the right requirements which just loads up a GWT generated Javascript. Is any of this possible at all? I generally hate to be this verbose but I hope to find a quick solution to the problem as its holding up my progress. I'd highly appreciate any comments, suggestions and experiences.

    Read the article

  • Get UITableView to scroll to the selected UITextField and Avoid Being Hidden by Keyboard

    - by Lauren Quantrell
    I have a UITextField in a table view on a UIViewController (not a UITableViewController). If the table view is on a UITableViewController, the table will automatically scroll to the textField being edited to prevent it from being hidden by the keyboard. But on a UIViewController it does not. I have tried for a couple of days reading through multiple ways to try to accomplish this and I cannot get it to work. The closest thing that actually scrolls is: -(void) textFieldDidBeginEditing:(UITextField *)textField { // SUPPOSEDLY Scroll to the current text field CGRect textFieldRect = [textField frame]; [self.wordsTableView scrollRectToVisible:textFieldRect animated:YES]; } However this only scrolls the table to the topmost row. What seems like an easy task has been a couple of days of frustration. I am using the following to construct the tableView cells: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)aTableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSString *identifier = [NSString stringWithFormat: @"%d:%d", [indexPath indexAtPosition: 0], [indexPath indexAtPosition:1]]; UITableViewCell *cell = [aTableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:identifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:identifier] autorelease]; cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryNone; UITextField *theTextField = [[UITextField alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(180, 10, 130, 25)]; theTextField.adjustsFontSizeToFitWidth = YES; theTextField.textColor = [UIColor redColor]; theTextField.text = [textFieldArray objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; theTextField.keyboardType = UIKeyboardTypeDefault; theTextField.returnKeyType = UIReturnKeyDone; theTextField.font = [UIFont boldSystemFontOfSize:14]; theTextField.backgroundColor = [UIColor whiteColor]; theTextField.autocorrectionType = UITextAutocorrectionTypeNo; theTextField.autocapitalizationType = UITextAutocapitalizationTypeNone; theTextField.clearsOnBeginEditing = NO; theTextField.textAlignment = UITextAlignmentLeft; //theTextField.tag = 0; theTextField.tag=indexPath.row; theTextField.delegate = self; theTextField.clearButtonMode = UITextFieldViewModeWhileEditing; [theTextField setEnabled: YES]; [cell addSubview:theTextField]; [theTextField release]; } return cell; } I suspect I can get the tableView to scroll properly if I can somehow pass the indexPath.row in the textFieldDidBeginEditing method? Any help is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Change the Session Variable Output

    - by user567230
    Hello I am using Dreamweaver CS5 with Coldfusion 9 to build a dynamic website. I have a MS Access Database that stores login information which includes ID, FullName, FirstName, LastName, Username, Pawword, AcessLevels. My question is this: I currently have session variable to track the Username when it is entered into the login page. However I would like to use that Username to pull the User's FullName to display throughout the web pages and use for querying data. How do I change the session variable to read that when they are not entering their FullName on the login page but only Username and password. I have listed my login information code below if there is any additional information needed please let me know. This is the path for which the FullName values reside DataSource "Access" Table "Logininfo" Field "FullName" I want the FullName to be unique based on the Username submitted from the Login page. I apologize in advance for any rookie mistake I may have made I am new to this but learning fast! Ha. <cfif IsDefined("FORM.username")> <cfset MM_redirectLoginSuccess="members_page.cfm"> <cfset MM_redirectLoginFailed="sorry.cfm"> <cfquery name="MM_rsUser" datasource="Access"> SELECT FullName, Username,Password,AccessLevels FROM Logininfo WHERE Username=<cfqueryparam value="#FORM.username#" cfsqltype="cf_sql_clob" maxlength="50"> AND Password=<cfqueryparam value="#FORM.password#" cfsqltype="cf_sql_clob" maxlength="50"> </cfquery> <cfif MM_rsUser.RecordCount NEQ 0> <cftry> <cflock scope="Session" timeout="30" type="Exclusive"> <cfset Session.MM_Username=FORM.username> <cfset Session.MM_UserAuthorization=MM_rsUser.AccessLevels[1]> </cflock> <cfif IsDefined("URL.accessdenied") AND false> <cfset MM_redirectLoginSuccess=URL.accessdenied> </cfif> <cflocation url="#MM_redirectLoginSuccess#" addtoken="no"> <cfcatch type="Lock"> <!--- code for handling timeout of cflock ---> </cfcatch> </cftry> </cfif> <cflocation url="#MM_redirectLoginFailed#" addtoken="no"> <cfelse> <cfset MM_LoginAction=CGI.SCRIPT_NAME> <cfif CGI.QUERY_STRING NEQ ""> <cfset MM_LoginAction=MM_LoginAction & "?" & XMLFormat(CGI.QUERY_STRING)> </cfif> </cfif>

    Read the article

  • How to implement a tagging plugin for jQuery

    - by anxiety
    Goal: To implement a jQuery plugin for my rails app (or write one myself, if necessary) that creates a "box" around text after a delimiter is typed. Example: With tagging on SO, the user begins typing a tag, then selects one from the drop-down list provided. The input field recognizes that a tag has been selected, puts a space and then is ready for the next tag. Similarly, I am attempting to use this plugin to put a box around the previously entered tag before moving to to accept the next tag/input. The instructions in the README.txt seem simple enough, however I have been receiving a $(".tagbox").tagbox is not a function error when debugging my app with firebug. Here is what I have in my application.js: $(document).ready( function(){ $('.tagbox').tagbox({ separator: /\[,]/, // specifying comma separation for <code>tags</code> }); }); And here is my _form.html.erb: <% form_for @tag do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages %> <p> <%= f.label :name %><br /> <%= text_field :tag, :name, { :method => :get, :class => "tagbox" } %> </p> <p><%= f.submit "Submit" %></p> <% end %> I have omitted some other code (namely the implementation of an autocomplete plugin) existing within my _form.html.erb and application.js for sake of readability. The inclusion or exclusion of this omitted code does not affect the performance of this plugin. I have included all of the necessary files for the tagbox plugin (as well as application.js after all other included JS files) within the javascript_include_tag in my application.html.erb file. I'm pretty much confused as to why I'd be getting this "not a function" error when jquery.tagbox.js clearly defines the function and is included in the head of my html page in question. I've been struggling with this plugin for longer than I'd like to admit, so any help would really be appreciated. And, of course, I'm open to any other plugins or from-scratch suggestions you may have in mind.. This tagbox plugin does not seem to have a wealth of documentation or any currently working examples. Also to note, I'm trying to avoid using jrails. Thanks for your time

    Read the article

  • On Click alert if $.get returns a value, if not, submit the form

    - by bradenkeith
    If the submit button is clicked, prevent the default action and see if the field 'account_name' is already in use. If the $.get() returns a result, alert the user of the results. If it doesn't, submit form with id="add_account_form". My problem is that my else{} statement is not submitting the form. I get no response when submit is clicked & there is no value returned. Also I would like to change my code where it goes $("#add_account_form").submit(..) instead of .click() however, would that cause a problem when trying to submit the form later in the script? <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready( function () { $("#submit").click( function () { var account_name = $("input[name=account_name]").val(); $.get( "'.url::site("ajax/check_account_name").'", {account_name: account_name}, function(data){ if(data.length > 0){ confirm( "The account name you entered looks like the following:\n" +data+ "Press cancel if this account already exists or ok to create it." ); }else{ $("#add_account_form").submit(); } }); return false; }); }); </script> <p> <input type="submit" id="submit" class="submit small" name="submit" value="Submit" /> </p> </form> Thanks for your help. EDIT So anyone who runs into my problems, it's that $.get() is asynchronous, so it will always return false, or true depending on what submitForm is defined as. $.ajax() however, allows async to be set as false, which allows the function to finish before moving on. See what I mean: $(document).ready( function () { $("#add_account_form").submit( function () { var submitForm = true; var account_name = $("input[name=account_name]").val(); $.ajax({ type: "GET", async: false, url: "'.url::site("ajax/check_account_name").'", data: ({account_name: account_name}), success: function(data){ if(data.length > 0){ if(!confirm( "The account name you entered looks like the following:\n" +data+ "Press cancel if this account already exists or ok to create it." )){ submitForm = false; } } } }); if (submitForm == false ) { return false; } }); }); Thanks for your help @Dan

    Read the article

  • Jquery problem with errorPlacement.

    - by Eyla
    Greetings, I have problem with errorPlacement, I'm trying to place the error message next to the field but it appearing on the top of the page. any advice how to fix this problem?? here is my code: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Master.Master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="WebForm1.aspx.cs" Inherits="IMAM_APPLICATION.WebForm1" %> <%@ Register assembly="AjaxControlToolkit" namespace="AjaxControlToolkit" tagprefix="asp" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="head" runat="server"> <script src="js/jquery-1.4.1.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="js/jquery.validate.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#aspnetForm").validate({ groups: { username: "fname lname", address: "address1 phone" }, errorPlacement: function(error, element) { if (element.attr("name") == "fname" || element.attr("name") == "lname") error.insertAfter("#lastname"); else error.insertAfter(element); }, debug: true }) }); </script> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder1" runat="server"> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content3" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder2" runat="server"> <p style="height: 313px"> <label style="position:absolute; top: 227px; left: 22px;">Your Name</label> &nbsp;<input name="fname" value="Pete" style="position:absolute; top: 226px; left: 102px;"/> <input name="lname" id="lastname" style="position:absolute; top: 264px; left: 95px;"/> <input name="address1" style="position:absolute; top: 347px; left: 102px;"/> <input name="phone" id="lastname" style="position:absolute; top: 315px; left: 102px;"/> <br/> <input type="submit" value="Submit Name" style="position:absolute; top: 407px; left: 73px;"/> <input type="submit" value="Submit Address" style="position:absolute; top: 370px; left: 437px;"/> </p> </asp:Content>

    Read the article

  • Grid sorting with persistent master sort

    - by MikeWyatt
    I have a UI with a grid. Each record in the grid is sorted by a "master" sort column, let's call it a page number. Each record is a story in a magazine. I want the user to be able to drag and drop a record to a new position in the grid and automatically update the page number field to reflect the updated position. Easy enough, right? Now imagine that I also want to have the grid sortable by any other column (story title, section, author name, etc.). How does the drag and drop operation work now? Revert to page number sort during or after the drag and drop operation? This could confuse the user (why did my sort just change?). It would also result in arbitrary row positioning. Would the story now be before the row that was after it when the user dropped it? Or, would it be after the row that was before it? Those rows may now be widely separated after the master order sort. Disable the drag and drop feature if the grid isn't currently sorted by the page number? This would be easy, but the user might wonder why he can't drag and drop at certain times. Knowing to first sort by page number may not be very intuitive. Let the user rearrange his rows, but not make any changes to the page number? Require the user to enter a "Arrange Stories" mode, in which the grid sort is temporarily switched to page number and drag and drop is enabled? They would then exit the mode, and the previous sort would be reapplied. The big difference between this and the second option is that it would be more explicit than simply clicking on a column header. Any other ideas, or reasons why one of the above is the way to go? EDIT I'd like to point out that any of the above is technically possible, and easy to implement. My question is design-related. What is the most intuitive way to solve this problem, from the user's perspective?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC: How can I explain an invalid type violation to an end-user with Html.ValidationSummary?

    - by Terminal Frost
    Serious n00b warning here; please take mercy! So I finished the Nerd Dinner MVC Tutorial and I'm now in the process of converting a VB.NET application to ASP.NET MVC using the Nerd Dinner program as a sort of rough template. I am using the "IsValid / GetRuleViolations()" pattern to identify invalid user input or values that violate business rules. I am using LINQ to SQL and am taking advantage of the "OnValidate()" hook that allows me to run the validation and throw an application exception upon trying to save changes to the database via the CustomerRepository class. Anyway, everything works well, except that by the time the form values reach my validation method invalid types have already been converted to a default or existing value. (I have a "StreetNumber" property that is an integer, though I imagine this would be a problem for DateTime or any other non-strings as well.) Now, I am guessing that the UpdateModel() method throws an exception and then alters the value because the Html.ValidationMessage is displayed next to the StreetNumber field but my validation method never sees the original input. There are two problems with this: While the Html.ValidationMessage does signal that something is wrong, there is no corresponding entry in the Html.ValidationSummary. If I could even get the exception message to show up there indicating an invalid cast or something that would be better than nothing. My validation method which resides in my Customer partial class never sees the original user input so I do not know if the problem is a missing entry or an invalid type. I can't figure out how I can keep my validation logic nice and neat in one place and still get access to the form values. I could of course write some logic in the View that processes the user input, however that seems like the exact opposite of what I should be doing with MVC. Do I need a new validation pattern or is there some way to pass the original form values to my model class for processing? CustomerController Code // POST: /Customers/Edit/[id] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(int id, FormCollection formValues) { Customer customer = customerRepository.GetCustomer(id); try { UpdateModel(customer); customerRepository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id = customer.AccountID }); } catch { foreach (var issue in customer.GetRuleViolations()) ModelState.AddModelError(issue.PropertyName, issue.ErrorMessage); } return View(customer); }

    Read the article

  • check if directory exists c#

    - by Ant
    I am trying to see if a directory exists based on an input field from the user. When the user types in the path, I want to check if the path actually exists. I have some c# code already. It returns 1 for any local path, but always returns 0 when I am checking a network path. static string checkValidPath(string path) { //Insert your code that runs under the security context of the authenticating user here. using (ImpersonateUser user = new ImpersonateUser(user, "", password)) { //DirectoryInfo d = new DirectoryInfo(quotelessPath); bool doesExist = Directory.Exists(path); //if (d.Exists) if(doesExist) { user.Dispose(); return "1"; } else { user.Dispose(); return "0"; } } } public class ImpersonateUser : IDisposable { [DllImport("advapi32.dll", SetLastError = true)] private static extern bool LogonUser(string lpszUsername, string lpszDomain, string lpszPassword, int dwLogonType, int dwLogonProvider, out IntPtr phToken); [DllImport("kernel32", SetLastError = true)] private static extern bool CloseHandle(IntPtr hObject); private IntPtr userHandle = IntPtr.Zero; private WindowsImpersonationContext impersonationContext; public ImpersonateUser(string user, string domain, string password) { if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(user)) { // Call LogonUser to get a token for the user bool loggedOn = LogonUser(user, domain, password, 9 /*(int)LogonType.LOGON32_LOGON_NEW_CREDENTIALS*/, 3 /*(int)LogonProvider.LOGON32_PROVIDER_WINNT50*/, out userHandle); if (!loggedOn) throw new Win32Exception(Marshal.GetLastWin32Error()); // Begin impersonating the user impersonationContext = WindowsIdentity.Impersonate(userHandle); } } public void Dispose() { if (userHandle != IntPtr.Zero) CloseHandle(userHandle); if (impersonationContext != null) impersonationContext.Undo(); } } Any help is appreciated. Thanks! EDIT 3: updated code to use BrokenGlass's impersonation functions. However, I need to initialize "password" to something... EDIT 2: I updated the code to try and use impersonation as suggested below. It still fails everytime. I assume I am using impersonation improperly... EDIT: As requested by ChrisF, here is the function that calls the checkValidPath function. Frontend aspx file... $.get('processor.ashx', { a: '7', path: x }, function(o) { alert(o); if (o=="0") { $("#outputPathDivValid").dialog({ title: 'Output Path is not valid! Please enter a path that exists!', width: 500, modal: true, resizable: false, buttons: { 'Close': function() { $(this).dialog('close'); } } }); } }); Backend ashx file... public void ProcessRequest (HttpContext context) { context.Response.Cache.SetExpires(DateTime.Now); string sSid = context.Request["sid"]; switch (context.Request["a"]) {//a bunch of case statements here... case "7": context.Response.Write(checkValidPath(context.Request["path"].ToString())); break;

    Read the article

  • In what circumstances are instance variables declared as '_var' in 'use fields' private?

    - by Pedro Silva
    I'm trying to understand the behavior of the fields pragma, which I find poorly documented, regarding fields prefixed with underscores. This is what the documentation has to say about it: Field names that start with an underscore character are made private to the class and are not visible to subclasses. Inherited fields can be overridden but will generate a warning if used together with the -w switch. This is not consistent with its actual behavior, according to my test, below. Not only are _-prefixed fields visible within a subclass, they are visible within foreign classes as well (unless I don't get what 'visible' means). Also, directly accessing the restricted hash works fine. Where can I find more about the behavior of the fields pragma, short of going at the source code? { package Foo; use strict; use warnings; use fields qw/a _b __c/; sub new { my ( $class ) = @_; my Foo $self = fields::new($class); $self->a = 1; $self->b = 2; $self->c = 3; return $self; } sub a : lvalue { shift->{a} } sub b : lvalue { shift->{_b} } sub c : lvalue { shift->{__c} } } { package Bar; use base 'Foo'; use strict; use warnings; use Data::Dumper; my $o = Bar->new; print Dumper $o; ##$VAR1 = bless({'_b' => 2, '__c' => 3, 'a' => 1}, 'Foo'); $o->a = 4; $o->b = 5; $o->c = 6; print Dumper $o; ##$VAR1 = bless({'_b' => 5, '__c' => 6, 'a' => 4}, 'Foo'); $o->{a} = 7; $o->{_b} = 8; $o->{__c} = 9; print Dumper $o; ##$VAR1 = bless({'_b' => 8, '__c' => 9, 'a' => 7}, 'Foo'); }

    Read the article

  • jQuery function execute on Button Click and Enter/Return (key)

    - by Alvin Jones
    I'm trying to create a little search box that allows you to search Twitter based on the keyword you enter in the input field. While it's work, it only works if you press the Submit button. I would also like to be able to press the Enter or Return key to initiate the search. I've tried using the .sumbit function and wrapping my input around a form element with no success. Any insight would be greatly appreciate! Live example: http://tinyurl.com/84axyym <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1/jquery.min.js"></script> <script> $(document).ready(function(){ function(data) { $('#startSearch').click(function(){ $('#tweets .results').remove(); var searchTerm = 'http://search.twitter.com/search.json?q=' + $('#twitterSearch').val() + '&callback=?' $.getJSON(searchTerm, function(data) { $.each(data.results, function() { $('<div class="results"></div>') .hide() .append('<a class="userPicLink" href="http://twitter.com/' + this.from_user + '">' + '<img class="userImg" src="' + this.profile_image_url + '">' + '</a>') .append('<span class="userName">' + '<a href="http://twitter.com/' + this.from_user + '">' + this.from_user + '</span>') .append('<span class="userText">' + this.text + '</span>') .append('<time class="textTime">' + relTime(this.created_at) + '</time>') .appendTo('#tweets') .fadeIn(); }); }); </script> <body> <label id="searchLabel" for="twitterSearch">Search</label> <input type="search" list="searchSugg" id="twitterSearch" placeholder="css3 animation" required aria-required="true"> <input id="startSearch" type="submit"> <datalist id="searchSugg"> <option value="css3 mulitple backgrounds"> <option value="html5 video"> <option value="responsive web design"> <option value="twitter api"> </datalist> <div id="tweets"> </div> </body>

    Read the article

  • Working with friends. Poor career choice?

    - by a_person
    Hi all, Hope you can help me solve somewhat of a moral dilemma. Some time ago, after just a few years of living in U.S. and having to take any job I could get my hands on a friend of mine submitted recommended me for an open position at the company that he was working for. I could have not been happier. I do not have a degree of any sort, however, by being passionate about CS and with constant drive for self education I've became a somewhat of a strong generalist. Every place I worked for recognized me for that quality and used me on various projects where set of technology in hand had no overlap with set of knowledge of the team members. Rapidly I've advanced to Sr. Programmer position and the trend of me following a friend from one place to another have started and continued on for a few years. My friend's goal always been to become an IT Director, mine is to become the best programmer I can be. To my knowledge I've accommodated his goals as much as I could by taking a back seat, and letting him take the lead. Fast forward to today. He's a manager, and I am on his team. I am unhappy and I in considerable amount of suffering. I am not being utilized to my potential, it's almost exact opposite, I am being micromanaged to an unhealthy extent, my decisions, and suggestions are constantly met with negative connotation. Last week I had to hear about how my friend is a better programmer than I am. My ego was ecstatic about this one /s. In addition to that working in the field of BI have exhausted itself for most parts. The only pleasure of my work is being derived from making everything as dynamic and parameter driven as possible. This is the only area where a friend of mine does not feel competent enough to actually micromanage. Because of my situation I feel a fair amount of guilt and ever growing resentment. I need your advice, maybe you've dealt with this expression of ego before, needs of self vs the needs of your friend. Is working with a friend a poor choice? Thank you for reading in.

    Read the article

  • how to change color of text following function in javascript

    - by OVERTONE
    Ok before i make spaghetti of this code i thought id ask around here. ive made a quiz for an online site. The answers are stored in an array, and ive a function that checks the answers array to what youve clicked. then it counts them and gives you your score. but i want to change the clor of the right answer wen the user clicks the score button. so the correct answers are highlighted. something like this https://www.shutterpoint.com/Home-Quiz.cfm (just hit submit at the bottom, no need to do the quiz). the little answer icon at the side looks flashy but id rather just have the text change color. heres how my questions are formatted <p>Depth of field is controlled by :?</p> <p id = "question2"><input type="radio" name="question2" id="Answer1" value = "a" onClick ="recordAnswer(2,this.value)"/> The focal length of the lens. <br/> <input type="radio" name="question2" id="Answer2" value = "b" onClick = "recordAnswer(2,this.value)"/> The size of the aperture opening. <br/> <input type="radio" name="question2" id="Answer3" value = "c" onClick = "recordAnswer(2,this.value)"/> The distance between the camera and lens. <br/> <input type="radio" name="question2" id="Answer4" value = "d" onClick = "recordAnswer(2,this.value)"/> All of these. <br/></p> and these are the two functions that are called throughout. record answer is called every time the user clicks a button function recordAnswer(question,answer) { answers[question-1] = answer; } this is the final button which calculates the score function scoreQuiz() { var totalCorrect = 0; for(var count = 0; count<correctAnswers.length;count++) { if(answers[count]== correctAnswers[count]) totalCorrect++; } <!-- alert("You scored " + totalCorrect + " out of 12 correct!"); --> } another function is best i think. ive already made attemots at it and know i have to set the color using document.getElementById('question2').style.color = '#0000ff'; question2 being the p id i think if i take in the value part of (input type....) ill be able to compare it to the answers array. but im not quite sure how to do this. any helpers? maybe something like this document.getElementById("Answer1").style.color = '#0000ff'; using the id part of the (input type line) i think i got it actually. ill post my answer in a sec

    Read the article

  • [c++] upload image to imageshack

    - by cinek1lol
    Hi! I would like to send pictures via a program written in C + +. - OK WinExec("C:\\curl\\curl.exe -H Expect: -F \"fileupload=@C:\\curl\\ok.jpg\" -F \"xml=yes\" -# \"http://www.imageshack.us/index.php\" -o data.txt -A \"Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 5.1; en-US; rv:1.8.1.1) Gecko/20061204 Firefox/2.0.0.1\" -e \"http://www.imageshack.us\"", NULL); It works, but I would like to send the pictures from pre-loaded carrier to a variable char (you know what I mean? First off, I load the pictures into a variable and then send the variable), cause now I have to specify the path of the picture on a disk. I wanted to write this program in c++ by using the curl library, not through exe. extension. I have also found such a program (which has been modified by me a bit) #include <stdio.h> #include <string.h> #include <iostream> #include <curl/curl.h> #include <curl/types.h> #include <curl/easy.h> int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { CURL *curl; CURLcode res; struct curl_httppost *formpost=NULL; struct curl_httppost *lastptr=NULL; struct curl_slist *headerlist=NULL; static const char buf[] = "Expect:"; curl_global_init(CURL_GLOBAL_ALL); /* Fill in the file upload field */ curl_formadd(&formpost, &lastptr, CURLFORM_COPYNAME, "send", CURLFORM_FILE, "nowy.jpg", CURLFORM_END); curl_formadd(&formpost, &lastptr, CURLFORM_COPYNAME, "nowy.jpg", CURLFORM_COPYCONTENTS, "nowy.jpg", CURLFORM_END); curl_formadd(&formpost, &lastptr, CURLFORM_COPYNAME, "submit", CURLFORM_COPYCONTENTS, "send", CURLFORM_END); curl = curl_easy_init(); headerlist = curl_slist_append(headerlist, buf); if(curl) { curl_easy_setopt(curl, CURLOPT_URL, "http://www.imageshack.us/index.php"); if ( (argc == 2) && (!strcmp(argv[1], "xml=yes")) ) curl_easy_setopt(curl, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, headerlist); curl_easy_setopt(curl, CURLOPT_HTTPPOST, formpost); res = curl_easy_perform(curl); curl_easy_cleanup(curl); curl_formfree(formpost); curl_slist_free_all (headerlist); } system("pause"); return 0; }

    Read the article

  • NSSortDescriptor for NSFetchRequestController causes crash when value of sorted attribute is changed

    - by AJ
    I have an Core Data Entity with a number of attributes, which include amount(float), categoryTotal(float) and category(string) The initial ViewController uses a FethchedResultsController to retrieve the entities, and sorts them based on the category and then the categoryTotal. No problems so far. NSManagedObjectContext *moc = [self managedObjectContext]; NSEntityDescription *entityDescription = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Transaction" inManagedObjectContext:moc]; NSFetchRequest *request = [[[NSFetchRequest alloc] init] autorelease]; [request setEntity:entityDescription]; NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"(dateStamp >= %@) AND (dateStamp =< %@)", startDate, endDate]; [request setPredicate:predicate]; NSSortDescriptor *sortByCategory = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"category" ascending:sortOrder]; NSSortDescriptor *sortByTotals = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"categoryTotal" ascending:sortOrder]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortByTotals, sortByCategory, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; NSFetchedResultsController *aFetchedResultsController = [[NSFetchedResultsController alloc] initWithFetchRequest:request managedObjectContext:managedObjectContext sectionNameKeyPath:@"category" cacheName:nil]; aFetchedResultsController.delegate = self; self.fetchedResultsController = aFetchedResultsController; On selecting a row (tableView:didSelectRowAtIndexPath), another view controller is loaded that allows editing of the amount field for the selected entity. Before returning to the first view, categoryTotal is updated by the new ‘amount’. The problem comes when returning to the first view controller, the app bombs with *Serious application error. Exception was caught during Core Data change processing: Invalid update: invalid number of rows in section 0. The number of rows contained in an existing section after the update (1) must be equal to the number of rows contained in that section before the update (1), plus or minus the number of rows inserted or deleted from that section (0 inserted, 1 deleted). with userInfo (null) Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_ACCESS”.* This seems to be courtesy of NSSortDescriptor *sortByTotals = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"categoryTotal" ascending:sortOrder]; If I remove this everything works as expected, but obviously without the sorting I want. I'm guessing this is to do with the sorting order changing due to categoryTotal changing (deletion / insertion) but can't find away fix this. I've verified that values are being modified correctly in the second view, so it appears down to the fetchedResultsController being confused. If the categoryAmount is changed to one that does not change the sort order, then no error is generated I'm not physically changing (ie deleting) the number of items the fetchedResultsController is returning ... the only other issue I can find that seem to generate this error Any ideas would be most welcome Thanks, AJ

    Read the article

  • Good design of mapping Java Domain objects to Tables (using Hibernate)

    - by M. McKenzie
    Hey guys, I have a question that is more in the realm of design, than implementation. I'm also happy for anyone to point out resources for the answer and I'll gladly, research for myself. Highly simplified Java and SQL: Say I have a business domain POJO called 'Picture' with three attributes. class Picture int idPicture String fileName long size Say I have another business domain POJO called "Item" with 3 attributes Class Item int idItem String itemName ArrayList itemPictures These would be a normal simple relationship. You could say that 'Picture' object, will never exist outside an 'Item' object. Assume a picture belongs only to a specific item, but that an item can have multiple pictures Now - using good database design (3rd Normal Form), we know that we should put items and pictures in their own tables. Here is what I assume would be correct. table Item int idItem (primary key) String itemName table Picture int idPicture (primary key) varchar(45) fileName long size int idItem (foreign key) Here is my question: If you are making Hibernate mapping files for these objects. In the data design, your Picture table needs a column to refer to the Item, so that a foreign key relation can be maintained. However,in your business domain objects - your Picture does not hold a reference/attribute to the idItem - and does not need to know it. A java Picture instance is always instantiated inside an Item instance. If you want to know the Item that the Picture belongs to you are already in the correct scope. Call myItem.getIdItem() and myItem.getItemPictures(),and you have the two pieces of information you need. I know that Hibernate tools have a generator that can auto make your POJO's from looking at your database. My problem stems from the fact that I planned out the data design for this experiment/project first. Then when I went to make the domain java objects, I realized that good design dictated that the objects hold other objects in a nested way. This is obviously different from the way that a database schema is - where all objects(tables) are flat and hold no other complex types within them. What is a good way to reconcile this? Would you: (A) Make the hibernate mapping files so that Picture.hbm.xml has a mapping to the POJO parent's idItem Field (if it's even possible) (B) Add an int attribute in the Picture class to refer to the idItem and set it at instantiation, thus simplifying the hbm.xml mapping file by having all table fields as local attributes in the class (C) Fix the database design because it is wrong, dork. I'd truly appreciate any feedback

    Read the article

  • DB Design Pattern - Many to many classification / categorised tagging.

    - by Robin Day
    I have an existing database design that stores Job Vacancies. The "Vacancy" table has a number of fixed fields across all clients, such as "Title", "Description", "Salary range". There is an EAV design for "Custom" fields that the Clients can setup themselves, such as, "Manager Name", "Working Hours". The field names are stored in a "ClientText" table and the data stored in a "VacancyClientText" table with VacancyId, ClientTextId and Value. Lastly there is a many to many EAV design for custom tagging / categorising the vacancies with things such as Locations/Offices the vacancy is in, a list of skills required. This is stored as a "ClientCategory" table listing the types of tag, "Locations, Skills", a "ClientCategoryItem" table listing the valid values for each Category, e.g., "London,Paris,New York,Rome", "C#,VB,PHP,Python". Finally there is a "VacancyClientCategoryItem" table with VacancyId and ClientCategoryItemId for each of the selected items for the vacancy. There are no limits to the number of custom fields or custom categories that the client can add. I am now designing a new system that is very similar to the existing system, however, I have the ability to restrict the number of custom fields a Client can have and it's being built from scratch so I have no legacy issues to deal with. For the Custom Fields my solution is simple, I have 5 additional columns on the Vacancy Table called CustomField1-5. This removes one of the EAV designs. It is with the tagging / categorising design that I am struggling. If I limit a client to having 5 categories / types of tag. Should I create 5 tables listing the possible values "CustomCategoryItems1-5" and then an additional 5 many to many tables "VacancyCustomCategoryItem1-5" This would result in 10 tables performing the same storage as the three tables in the existing system. Also, should (heaven forbid) the requirements change in that I need 6 custom categories rather than 5 then this will result in a lot of code change. Therefore, can anyone suggest any DB Design Patterns that would be more suitable to storing such data. I'm happy to stick with the EAV approach, however, the existing system has come across all the usual performance issues and complex queries associated with such a design. Any advice / suggestions are much appreciated. The DBMS system used is SQL Server 2005, however, 2008 is an option if required for any particular pattern.

    Read the article

  • Trouble using South with Django and Heroku

    - by Dan
    I had an existing Django project that I've just added South to. I ran syncdb locally. I ran manage.py schemamigration app_name locally I ran manage.py migrate app_name --fake locally I commit and pushed to heroku master I ran syncdb on heroku I ran manage.py schemamigration app_name on heroku I ran manage.py migrate app_name on heroku I then receive this: $ heroku run python notecard/manage.py migrate notecards Running python notecard/manage.py migrate notecards attached to terminal... up, run.1 Running migrations for notecards: - Migrating forwards to 0005_initial. > notecards:0003_initial Traceback (most recent call last): File "notecard/manage.py", line 14, in <module> execute_manager(settings) File "/app/lib/python2.7/site-packages/django/core/management/__init__.py", line 438, in execute_manager utility.execute() File "/app/lib/python2.7/site-packages/django/core/management/__init__.py", line 379, in execute self.fetch_command(subcommand).run_from_argv(self.argv) File "/app/lib/python2.7/site-packages/django/core/management/base.py", line 191, in run_from_argv self.execute(*args, **options.__dict__) File "/app/lib/python2.7/site-packages/django/core/management/base.py", line 220, in execute output = self.handle(*args, **options) File "/app/lib/python2.7/site-packages/south/management/commands/migrate.py", line 105, in handle ignore_ghosts = ignore_ghosts, File "/app/lib/python2.7/site-packages/south/migration/__init__.py", line 191, in migrate_app success = migrator.migrate_many(target, workplan, database) File "/app/lib/python2.7/site-packages/south/migration/migrators.py", line 221, in migrate_many result = migrator.__class__.migrate_many(migrator, target, migrations, database) File "/app/lib/python2.7/site-packages/south/migration/migrators.py", line 292, in migrate_many result = self.migrate(migration, database) File "/app/lib/python2.7/site-packages/south/migration/migrators.py", line 125, in migrate result = self.run(migration) File "/app/lib/python2.7/site-packages/south/migration/migrators.py", line 99, in run return self.run_migration(migration) File "/app/lib/python2.7/site-packages/south/migration/migrators.py", line 81, in run_migration migration_function() File "/app/lib/python2.7/site-packages/south/migration/migrators.py", line 57, in <lambda> return (lambda: direction(orm)) File "/app/notecard/notecards/migrations/0003_initial.py", line 15, in forwards ('user', self.gf('django.db.models.fields.related.ForeignKey')(to=orm['auth.User'])), File "/app/lib/python2.7/site-packages/south/db/generic.py", line 226, in create_table ', '.join([col for col in columns if col]), File "/app/lib/python2.7/site-packages/south/db/generic.py", line 150, in execute cursor.execute(sql, params) File "/app/lib/python2.7/site-packages/django/db/backends/util.py", line 34, in execute return self.cursor.execute(sql, params) File "/app/lib/python2.7/site-packages/django/db/backends/postgresql_psycopg2/base.py", line 44, in execute return self.cursor.execute(query, args) django.db.utils.DatabaseError: relation "notecards_semester" already exists I have 3 models. Section, Semester, and Notecards. I've added one field to the Notecards model and I cannot get it added on Heroku. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • NHibernate Many-to-Many Mapping not working

    - by ClutchDude
    I have a Nhibernate mapping file for a simple user/role mapping. Here are the mapping files: Users.hbm.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="Sample.Persistence" namespace="Sample.Persistence.Model"> <class name="User" table="Users"> <id name="UserKey"> <generator class="identity"/> </id> <property name="UserName" column="UserName" type="String" /> <property name="Password" column="Password" type="Byte[]" /> <property name="FirstName" column="FirstName" type="String" /> <property name="LastName" column="LastName" type="String" /> <property name="Email" column="Email" type="String" /> <property name="Active" column="Active" type="Boolean" /> <property name="Locked" column="Locked" type="Boolean" /> <property name="LoginFailures" column="LoginFailures" type="int" /> <property name="LockoutDate" column="LockoutDate" type="DateTime" generated="insert" /> <property name="Expired" column="Expired" type="Boolean" generated="insert"/> <set name="Roles" table="UsersRolesBridge" lazy="false"> <key column="UserKey" /> <many-to-many class="Role" not-found="exception" column="RoleKey" /> </set> </class> </hibernate-mapping> Role.hbm.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="Sample.Persistence" namespace="Sample.Persistence.Model"> <class name="Role" table="Roles"> <id name="RoleKey"> <generator class="identity"/> </id> <property name="Name" column="Name" type="String" /> <set name="Users" inverse="true" atable="UsersRolesBridge" lazy="false" > <key column="RoleKey" /> <many-to-many class="User" column="UserKey" /> </set> </class> </hibernate-mapping> I am able to retrieve roles for each user via NHibernate but when I go to save a new object, the roles are not saved in the Bridge table. The user is created and insert with no issues. I've checked that the Role collection, a field on the user, is being populated with the proper rolekey before the Session.Save() is called. There is no exception thrown as well.

    Read the article

  • Trouble passing a string as a SQLite ExecSQL command

    - by Hackbrew
    I keep getting the ERROR: near "PassWord": syntax error when trying to execute the ExecSQL() statement. The command looks good in the output of the text file. In fact, I copied & pasted the command directly into SQLite Database Browser and the commend executed properly. Here's the code that's producing the error: procedure TForm1.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); var i, iFieldSize: integer; sFieldName, sFieldType, sFieldList, sExecSQL: String; names: TStringList; f1: Textfile; begin //Open Source table - Table1 has 8 fields but has only two different field types ftString and Boolean Table1.TableName:= 'PWFile'; Table1.Open; //FDConnection1.ExecSQL('drop table PWFile'); sFieldList := ''; names := TStringList.Create; for i := 0 to Table1.FieldCount - 1 do begin sFieldName := Table1.FieldDefList.FieldDefs[i].Name; sFieldType := GetEnumName(TypeInfo(TFieldType),ord(Table1.FieldDefList.FieldDefs[i].DataType)); iFieldSize := Table1.FieldDefList.FieldDefs[i].Size; if sFieldType = 'ftString' then sFieldType := 'NVARCHAR' + '(' + IntToStr(iFieldSize) + ')'; if sFieldType = 'ftBoolean' then sFieldType := 'INTEGER'; names.Add(sFieldName + ' ' + sFieldType); if sFieldList = '' then sFieldList := sFieldName + ' ' + sFieldType else sFieldList := sFieldList + ', ' + sFieldName + ' ' + sFieldType; end; ListBox1.Items.Add(sFieldList); sExecSQL := 'create table IF NOT EXISTS PWFile (' + sFieldList + ')'; // 08/18/2014 - Entered this to log the SQLite FDConnection1.ExecSQL Command to a file AssignFile(f1, 'C:\Users\Test User\Documents\SQLite_Command.txt'); Rewrite(f1); Writeln(f1, sExecSQL); { insert code here that would require a Flush before closing the file } Flush(f1); { ensures that the text was actually written to file } CloseFile(f1); FDConnection1.ExecSQL(sFieldList); Table1.Close; end; Here's the actual command that gets executed: create table IF NOT EXISTS PWFile (PassWord NVARCHAR(10), PassName NVARCHAR(10), Dept NVARCHAR(10), Active NVARCHAR(1), Admin INTEGER, Shred INTEGER, Reports INTEGER, Maintain INTEGER)

    Read the article

  • How do I pass the value of the previous form element into an "onchange" javascript function?

    - by Jen
    Hello, I want to make some UI improvements to a page I am developing. Specifically, I need to add another drop down menu to allow the user to filter results. This is my current code: HTML file: <select name="test_id" onchange="showGrid(this.name, this.value, 'gettestgrid')"> <option selected>Select a test--></option> <option value=1>Test 1</option> <option value=2>Test 2</option> <option value=3>Test 3</option> </select> This is pseudo code for what I want to happen: <select name="test_id"> <option selected>Select a test--></option> <option value=1>Test 1</option> <option value=2>Test 2</option> <option value=3>Test 3</option> </select> <select name="statistics" onchange="showGrid(PREVIOUS.name, PREVIOUS.VALUE, THIS.value)"> <option selected>Select a data display --></option> <option value='gettestgrid'>Show averages by student</option> <option value='gethomeroomgrid'>Show averages by homeroom</option> <option value='getschoolgrid'>Show averages by school</option> </select> How do I access the previous field's name and value? Any help much appreciated, thx! Also, JS function for reference: function showGrid(name, value, phpfile) { xmlhttp=GetXmlHttpObject(); if (xmlhttp==null) { alert ("Browser does not support HTTP Request"); return; } var url=phpfile+".php"; url=url+"?"+name+"="+value; url=url+"&sid="+Math.random(); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=stateChanged; xmlhttp.open("GET",url,true); xmlhttp.send(null); }

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 536 537 538 539 540 541 542 543 544 545 546 547  | Next Page >