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  • detection of 'flush tables with read lock' in php

    - by theduke0
    I would like to know from my application if a myisam table can accept writes (i.e. not locked). If an exception is thrown, everything is fine as I can catch this and log the failed statement to a file. However, if a 'flush tables with read lock' command has been issued (possibly for backup), the query I send will pretty much hang out forever. If one table is locked at a time, insert delayed works well. But when this global lock is applied, my query just waits. The query I run is an insert statement. If this statement fails or hangs, user experience is degraded. I need a way to send the query to the server and forget about it (pretty much). Does anyone have any suggestions on how to deal with this? -set a query timeout? -run asyncronous request and allow for the lock to expire while application continues? -fork my php process? Please let me know if I can provide and clarification or details.

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  • Help with HTTP Intercepting Proxy in Ruby?

    - by Philip
    I have the beginnings of an HTTP Intercepting Proxy written in Ruby: require 'socket' # Get sockets from stdlib server = TCPServer.open(8080) # Socket to listen on port 8080 loop { # Servers run forever Thread.start(server.accept) do |client| puts "** Got connection!" @output = "" @host = "" @port = 80 while line = client.gets line.chomp! if (line =~ /^(GET|CONNECT) .*(\.com|\.net):(.*) (HTTP\/1.1|HTTP\/1.0)$/) @port = $3 elsif (line =~ /^Host: (.*)$/ && @host == "") @host = $1 end print line + "\n" @output += line + "\n" # This *may* cause problems with not getting full requests, # but without this, the loop never returns. break if line == "" end if (@host != "") puts "** Got host! (#{@host}:#{@port})" out = TCPSocket.open(@host, @port) puts "** Got destination!" out.print(@output) while line = out.gets line.chomp! if (line =~ /^<proxyinfo>.*<\/proxyinfo>$/) # Logic is done here. end print line + "\n" client.print(line + "\n") end out.close end client.close end } This simple proxy that I made parses the destination out of the HTTP request, then reads the HTTP response and performs logic based on special HTML tags. The proxy works for the most part, but seems to have trouble dealing with binary data and HTTPS connections. How can I fix these problems?

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  • Type contraint problem of C#

    - by user351565
    I meet a problem about type contraint of c# now. I wrote a pair of methods that can convert object to string and convert string to object. ex. static string ConvertToString(Type type, object val) { if (type == typeof(string)) return (string)val; if (type == typeof(int)) return val.ToString(); if (type.InSubclassOf(typeof(CodeObject))) return ((CodeObject)val).Code; } static T ConvertToObject<T>(string str) { Type type = typeof(T); if (type == typeof(string)) return (T)(object)val; if (type == typeof(int)) return (T)(object)int.Parse(val); if (type.InSubclassOf(typeof(CodeObject))) return Codes.Get<T>(val); } where CodeObject is a base class of Employees, Offices ..., which can fetch by static method Godes.Get where T: CodeObject but the code above cannot be compiled because error #CS0314 the generic type T of method ConvertToObject have no any constraint but Codes.Get request T must be subclass of CodeObject i tried use overloading to solve the problem but not ok. is there any way to clear up the problem? like reflection?

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  • Javascript Conflict on PHP page

    - by patrick
    I am having trouble running two javascript files on the same page. I used JQuery.noConflict() (http://api.jquery.com/jQuery.noConflict/) but no luck. <script src="http://www.google.com/jsapi"></script> <script> google.load("prototype", "1.6.0.3",{uncompressed:false}); google.load("scriptaculous", "1.8.1",{uncompressed:false}); </script> <script src="js/jquery.tools.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $jQuery.noConflict(); jQuery(document).ready(function($) { $("#download_now").tooltip({ effect: 'slide'}); }); function show_text() { new Ajax.Request('./new.php', { method: 'post', parameters: { userid: $('userid').value }, onSuccess: function(r) { $('update').update(r.responseText) } }); } document.observe("dom:loaded", function() { $('loading').hide(); Ajax.Responders.register({ onCreate: function() { new Effect.Opacity('loading',{ from: 1.0, to: 0.3, duration: 0.7 }); new Effect.toggle('loading', 'appear'); }, onComplete: function() { new Effect.Opacity('loading', { from: 0.3, to: 1, duration: 0.7 }); new Effect.toggle('loading', 'appear'); } }); }); </script>

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  • How to limit Access-Control-Allow-Origin to a specific path?

    - by coderama
    I have a website that servies ads via javascript. So, I basically allow the user to include my script.... : <script src="http://www.example.com/ads.js" ></script> <script> MYADDS.insertAdvert(); </script> The problem is, I kept getting: "No Access-Control-Allow-Origin" Errors. That was until I added this to my htaccess file: <IfModule mod_headers.c> Header set Access-Control-Allow-Origin "*" </IfModule> Problem is, this opens up my entire site and is probably a security risk. So, seeing as the ads.js file actually only does an ajax request to: http://www.example.com/place/where/my/adds/are/fed/from How can I make the above htaccess rule only apply to that path? Keep in mind, it's not an actualy directory, so I can't put the htaccess file in that folder. It's actually a "virtual path". The site is built using Laravel and therefore does the typical laravel path rewriting. Here's teh full htaccess file: <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> <IfModule mod_negotiation.c> Options -MultiViews </IfModule> RewriteEngine On # Redirect Trailing Slashes... RewriteRule ^(.*)/$ /$1 [L,R=301] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php/$1 [L] </IfModule> Any ideas how to do this?

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  • Checking Selected Radio Button after POST

    - by coffeeaddict
    I've been using ASP.NET controls which perform a lot of the manual for you. But I'm going back to the basics, what everyone else does. I'm using standard input tags. So for example if I have a radio button group and I select a button. When the form submits and does a POST back to whatever action="MyPage.aspx" then to grab and check the radio button's value that was selected is it always done like this below? <label><input type="radio" name="rbGroup" value='<%# ((Action)Container.DataItem).ID %>'/><%# ((Action)Container.DataItem).Name %></label> So here I'm appending the ID to the value. And then when it hits the page that my action specifies, I'm checking to see which was selected by trimming off and getting that ID from the value: string selection = Request.Form["rbGroup"]; string dbRecordIdSelected = int.Parse(selection.Substring(1)); so now I can check the id they selected...that is the ID of the db record that gave that selected radio it's name. Is that how you basically always check what radio was selected by checking the name/value pair that comes across for that selected radioButton group name? And then you can append stuff like IDs or whatever you want to grab and parse out to then do additional logic on the server-side once that header reaches the server and your specified page in the action attribute? The above code is not production code, just something to explain what I'm talking about.

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  • What to set the scalar type to contain a byte []. Entity in MVC2

    - by Brad8118
    I'm trying out the EF 4.0 and using the Model first approach. I'd like to store images into the database and I'm not sure of the best type for the scalar in the entity. I currently have it(the image scalar type) setup as a binary. From what I have been reading the best way to store the image in the db is a byte[]. So I'm assuming that binary is the way to go. If there is a better way I'd switch. In my controller I have: //file from client to store in the db HttpPostedFileBase file = Request.Files[inputTagName]; if (file.ContentLength > 0) { keyToAdd.Image = new byte[file.ContentLength]; file.InputStream.Write(keyToAdd.Image, 0, file.ContentLength); } This builds fine but when I run it I get an exception writing the stream to keyToAdd.Image. The exception is something like: Method does not exist. Any ideas? Note that when using a EF 4.0 model first approach I only have int16, int32, double, string, decimal, binary, byte, DateTime, Double, Single, and SByte as available types. Thanks

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  • Invoking [SKProductsRequest start] hangs on iOS 4.0

    - by figelwump
    Encountering an issue with SKProductsRequest that is specific to iOS 4.0. The problematic code: - (void)requestProductData { NSSet *productIdentifiers = [NSSet setWithObjects:kLimitedDaysUpgradeProductId, kUnlimitedUpgradeProductId, nil]; self.productsRequest = [[SKProductsRequest alloc] initWithProductIdentifiers:productIdentifiers]; self.productsRequest.delegate = self; [self.productsRequest start]; } - (void)productsRequest:(SKProductsRequest *)request didReceiveResponse:(SKProductsResponse *)response { NSLog(@"didReceiveResponse"); } When [SKProductsRequest start] is invoked, the productsRequest:didReceiveResponse: delegate method is never invoked; further, the entire app hangs and is completely unresponsive to input. Obviously, this is a huge issue for our iOS 4.0 users as it not only breaks payments but makes the app completely unusable. Some other things to note: this only happens on iOS 4.0; iOS 4.2, 3.x are fine. Also: if the delegate is not set on the SKProductsRequest (i.e. comment out the line "self.productsRequest.delegate = self;"), the app doesn't hang (but of course in that case we have no way of getting the product info). Also, the problem still reproduces with everything stripped out of the productsRequest:didReceiveResponse: callback (that method never actually gets called). Finally, if the productIdentifiers NSSet object is initialized to an empty set, the hang doesn't occur. Has anybody else experienced this? Any ideas/thoughts on what could be going on here, and how we might be able to work around this?

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  • Assistance with CC Processing script

    - by JM4
    I am currently implementing a credit card processing script, most as provided by the merchant gateway. The code calls functions within a class and returns a string based on the response. The end php code I am using (details removed of course) with example information is: <?php $gw = new gwapi; $gw->setLogin("username", "password"); $gw->setBilling("John","Smith","Acme, Inc.","888","Suite 200", "Beverly Hills", "CA","77777","US","555-555-5555","555-555-5556","[email protected]", "www.example.com"); // "CA","90210","US","[email protected]"); $gw->setOrder("1234","Big Order",1, 2, "PO1234","65.192.14.10"); $r = $gw->doSale("1.00","4111111111111111","1010"); print $gw->responses['responsetext']; ?> where setlogin allows me to login, setbilling takes the sample consumer information, set order takes the order id and description, dosale takes the amount charged, cc number and exp date. when all the variables are sent validated then sent off for processing, a string is returned in the following format: response=1&responsetext=SUCCESS&authcode=123456&transactionid=23456&avsresponse=M&orderid=&type=sale&response_code=100 where: response = transaction approved or declined response text = textual response authcode = transaction authorization code transactionid = payment gateway tran id avsresponse = avs response code orderid = original order id passed in tran request response_code = numeric mapping of processor response I am trying to solve for the following: How do I take the data which is passed back and display it appropriately on the page - If the transaction failed or AVS code doesnt match my liking or something is wrong, an error is displayed to the consumer; if the transaction processed, they are taken to a completion page and the transaction id is sent in SESSION as output to the consumer If the response_code value matches a table of values, certain actions are taken, i.e. if code =100, take to success page, if code = 300 print specific error on original page to customer, etc.

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  • [^.] causing headache in RewriteRule

    - by Ollie2893
    I am struggling with a very basic regex problem in my .htaccess file that I hope someone may be able to shed some light on. The basic premise is that I would like to teach Apache to switch any .html extension into a .var extension. I had thought that the rule would be positively trivial: RewriteRule ^([^.]+)\.html$ $1.var But the [^.] part simply doesn't work. Bizarrely, it works like so RewriteRule ^([^A-Z]+)\.html$ $1.var I do not understand why this latter rule works. Assume I am looking for a file called "index.html" then $1 should match to "index." and the ".html" bit should actually fail to match. To widen the scope of the question slightly, I am actually racking my brain on how to implement a multi-lingual site. I don't like Apache's MultiView option because it forces upon me a flat directory structure with file extensions that aren't recognizable to many development tools. I could go the .var type-map route but am finding that the default config for Apache doesn't support this all that well either (hence my excursions into regex land). So while I am using mod_rewrite, I am thinking that I might go the whole hog: whenever a request for a name.html file is received and this file does not exist, check whether there exists a XX/name.html file instead, where "XX" is the language code according to the user's preferences. This would give me a neater directory structure, though it does perhaps not perform as well as the .var approach in a situation where the language preference of the user's browser is not supported in by my site (in which situation .var would substitute EN or similar). Any thoughts? Thanks.

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  • Telling me my stored procedure isn't declared

    - by Scott
    Here is where the error is occuring in the stack: public static IKSList<DataParameter> Search(int categoryID, int departmentID, string title) { Database db = new Database(DatabaseConfig.CommonConnString, DatabaseConfig.CommonSchemaOwner, "pkg_data_params_new", "spdata_params_search"); db.AddParameter("category_id", categoryID); db.AddParameter("department_id", departmentID); db.AddParameter("title", title, title.Length); DataView temp = db.Execute_DataView(); IKSList<DataParameter> dps = new IKSList<DataParameter>(); foreach (DataRow dr in temp.Table.Rows) { DataParameter dp = new DataParameter(); dp.Load(dr); dps.Add(dp); } return dps; } And here is the error text: ORA-06550: line 1, column 38: PLS-00302: component 'SPDATA_PARAMS_SEARCH' must be declared ORA-06550: line 1, column 7: PL/SQL: Statement ignored Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Data.OracleClient.OracleException: ORA-06550: line 1, column 38: PLS-00302: component 'SPDATA_PARAMS_SEARCH' must be declared ORA-06550: line 1, column 7: PL/SQL: Statement ignored Source Error: Line 161: db.AddParameter("title", title, title.Length); Line 162: Line 163: DataView temp = db.Execute_DataView(); Line 164: Line 165: IKSList dps = new IKSList(); My webconfig is pointing to the correct place and everything so idk where this is coming from.

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  • retaining the form inputs on clicking the submit button

    - by sushant
    i have a form. the code is: <html> <body> <form method="post" action="array.asp"> <input type="text" name="Req_id1"> Req_id: <input type="text" name="Req_id"> <input type="submit" value="search" id=submit1 name=submit1> <select id="selFiles" name="selFiles" class="Select" style="width: 500px" tabindex="130"> <% Dim req_id,myArray(11) req_id=Request.Form("Req_id") myArray(0) = "FCC_CITI_LONDON\FCC_V.FM_Release_5.0" myArray(1) = "FCC_CITIUSDDA\FC_UBS_V.UM_10.3.0.0.CitiUSDDA1.0" myArray(2) = "FCC_KorAm\Flexcube_V.CK_Release_5.0" myArray(3) = "FCC-CL\FCC-CL.1.1.1" myArray(4) = "Mayaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa" myArray(5) = "Juneaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa" myArray(6) = "Julyaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa" myArray(7) = "Augustaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa" myArray(8) = "Septemberaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa" myArray(9) = "Octoberaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa" myArray(10) = "Novemberaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa" myArray(11) = "Decemberaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa" Dim myArrResult myArrResult = Filter(myArray, req_id, True, vbTextCompare) Dim item For Each item In myArrResult Response.Write("<option>" + item + "</option>") Next %> </select> </body> </html> in between the form there is an opption to search a string from the array. on clicking submit the result are shown in the drop-down box. but the problem is that i loose all the input entered in the form before. for ex:the first input box goes blank. how do i retain the previous inputs? any help is really appreciated.

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  • Symfony 1.4 Form Value change after getValues()

    - by bertzzie
    Hi, I've got some problem with symfony form value (i guess it's the clean value, but not so clear yet). Here's the problem : I got a sfFormDateJQueryUI widget setup like this in my form : $this->setWidgets(array( 'needDate' => new sfWidgetFormDateJQueryUI(), )); $this->setValidators(array( 'needDate' => new sfValidatorDate(array( 'required' => true, 'date_format' => '/^[0-9]{2}\/[0-9]{2}\/[0-9]{4}$/', 'date_output' => 'd/m/Y' )), )); Then when i submit, say 26/06/2010, it turns out right in the HTTP Header (viewed via Firebug) and $request (i just print it). But after i get the value via $formVal = $form->getValues(); the date value in $formVal["needDate"] become today's date (03/06/2010). I really don't understand, and after checking in the API documentation it says that the getValues will return the 'cleaned' value. Is that because of it ? I don't understand what's 'clean'. Thanks before..

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  • JQUERY - how to get updated value after ajax removes data from within it?

    - by Brian
    I have a an element with thumbnails. I allow users to sort their display order (which fires off an update to the DB via ajax). I also allow them to delete images (which, after deletion, fires off a request to update the display order for all remaining images). My problem is with binding or live I think, but I don't know where to apply it. The array fired off upon delete contains ALL the ids for the images that were there on page load. The issue is that after they delete an image the array STILL contains the original ids (including the one that was deleted) so it is obviously not refreshing the value of the element after ajax has removed things from inside it. I need to tell it to go get the refreshed contents... From what I have been reading, this is normal but I don't understand how to tie it into my routine. I need to trigger the mass re-ordering after any deletion. Any ideas gurus? $('a.delimg').click(function(){ var parent = $(this).parent().parent(); var id = $(this).attr('id'); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "../updateImages.php", data: "action=delete&id=" + id, beforeSend: function() { parent.animate({'backgroundColor':'#fb6c6c'},300); $.jnotify("<strong>Deleting This Image & Updating The Image Order</strong>", 5000); }, success: function(data) { parent.slideUp(300,function() { parent.remove(); $("#images ul").sortable(function() { //NEEDS TO GET THE UPDATED CONTENT var order = $(this).sortable("serialize") + '&action=updateRecordsListings'; $.post("../updateImages.php", order, function(theResponse){ $.jnotify("<strong>" + theResponse + "</strong>", 2000); }); }); }); } }); return false; }); Thanks for any help you can be.

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  • EF4 querying through the generations

    - by Hans Kesting
    I have a model withs Parents, Children and Grandchildren, in a many-to-many relationship. Using this article I created POCO classes that work fine, except for one thing I can't yet figure out. When I query the Parents or Children directly using LINQ, the SQL reflects the LINQ query (a .Count() executes a COUNT in the database and so on) - fine. The Parent class has a Children property, to access it's children. But (and now for the problem) this doesn't expose an IQueryable interface but an ICollection. So when I access the Children property on a particular parent all the Parent's Children are read. Even worse, when I access the Grandchildren (theParent.Children.SelectMany(child => child.GrandChildren).Count()) then for each and every child a separate request is issued to select it's grandchildren. Changing the type of the Children property from ICollection to IQueryable doesn't solve this. Apart from missing needed methods like Add() and Remove(), EF just doesn't recognize the property then. Are there correct ways (as in: low database interaction) of querying through children (and what are they)? Or is this just not possible?

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  • RESTful API: How to model JSON representation?

    - by Jan P.
    I am designing a RESTful API for a booking application. You can request a list of accommodations. And that's where I don't really know how to design the JSON represenation. This is my XML representation: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <accommodations> <accommodation> <name>...</name> <category>couch</category> </accommodation> <accommodation> <name>...</name> <category>room</category> </accommodation> <accommodations> My first try to convert this to JSON resulted in this output (1): { "0": { "name": "...", "category": "couch" }, "1": { "name": "...", "category": "room" } } But as I looked how others APIs did it, I found something looking more like this (2): [ { "name": "...", "category": "couch" }, { "name": "...", "category": "room" } ] I know version 1 is an object, and version 2 an array. But which one is better in this case?

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  • How to handle exceptions from an image-generating Servlet?

    - by ssahmed555
    I have a simple (Servlet, JSP, and JSTL) web app whose main functionality is displaying images retrieved from a back-end server. The controller servlet forwards the user to a JSP that in turn uses another Servlet to display the resulting image on that same JSP. Further down, the JSP has a line similar to: <a href="<c:out value='${imageURL}'/>"><img src="<c:out value='${imageURL}'/>" alt="image view" border="1"></a> which invokes a GET request on the image-generating servlet causing it to generate the image. My question is: how do I handle Exceptions thrown by this image-generating servlet? I already have an error page defined (in web.xml) to handle ServletException within my web app but this doesn't work for this image-generating Servlet, and results in the following errors showing up in my Tomcat server logs: SEVERE: Exception Processing ErrorPage[exceptionType=javax.servlet.ServletException, location=/WEB-INF/ExceptionPage.jsp] java.lang.IllegalStateException: Cannot reset buffer after response has been committed What's my recourse in this situation? I'd like to be able to handle Exceptions thrown from this image-generating Servlet, and display some error on the main UI or forward the user to another error page.

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  • What is a good RPC model for building a AJAX web app using PHP & JS?

    - by user366152
    I'm new to writing AJAX applications. I plan on using jQuery on the client side while PHP on the server side. I want to use something like XML-RPC to simplify my effort in calling server-side code. Ideally, I wouldn't care whether the transport layer uses XML or JSON or a format more optimized for the wire. If I was writing a console app I'd use some tool to generate function stubs which I would then implement on the RPC server while the client would natively call into those stubs. This provides a clean separation. Is there something similar available in the AJAX world? While on this topic, how would I proceed with session management? I would want it to be as transparent as possible. For example, if I try to hit an RPC end-point which needs a valid session, it should reject the request if the client doesn't pass a valid session cookie. This would really ease my application development. I'd then have to simply handle the frontend using native JS functions. While on the backend, I can simply implement the RPC functions. BTW I dont wish to use Google Web Toolkit. My app wont be extremely heavy on AJAX.

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  • BitmapFactory.decodeFile out of memory with images 2400x2400

    - by alasarr
    I need to send an image from a file to a server. The server request the image in a resolution of 2400x2400. What I'm trying to do is: 1) Get a Bitmap using BitmapFactory.decodeFile using the correct inSampleSize. 2) Compress the image in JPEG with a quality of 40% 3) Encode the image in base64 4) Sent to the server I cannot achieve the first step, it throws an out of memory exception. I'm sure the inSampleSize is correct but I suppose even with inSampleSize the Bitmap is huge (around 30 MB in DDMS). Any ideas how can do it? Can I do these steps without created a bitmap object? I mean doing it on filesystem instead of RAM memory. This is the current code: // The following function calculate the correct inSampleSize Bitmap image = Util.decodeSampledBitmapFromFile(imagePath, width,height); // compressing the image ByteArrayOutputStream baos = new ByteArrayOutputStream(); image.compress(Bitmap.CompressFormat.JPEG, 40, baos); // encode image String encodedImage = Base64.encodeToString(baos.toByteArray(),Base64.DEFAULT));

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  • Integration testing - can it be done right?

    - by Max
    I used TDD as a development style on some projects in the past two years, but I always get stuck on the same point: how can I test the integration of the various parts of my program? What I am currently doing is writing a testcase per class (this is my rule of thumb: a "unit" is a class, and each class has one or more testcases). I try to resolve dependencies by using mocks and stubs and this works really well as each class can be tested independently. After some coding, all important classes are tested. I then "wire" them together using an IoC container. And here I am stuck: How to test if the wiring was successfull and the objects interact the way I want? An example: Think of a web application. There is a controller class which takes an array of ids, uses a repository to fetch the records based on these ids and then iterates over the records and writes them as a string to an outfile. To make it simple, there would be three classes: Controller, Repository, OutfileWriter. Each of them is tested in isolation. What I would do in order to test the "real" application: making the http request (either manually or automated) with some ids from the database and then look in the filesystem if the file was written. Of course this process could be automated, but still: doesn´t that duplicate the test-logic? Is this what is called an "integration test"? In a book i recently read about Unit Testing it seemed to me that integration testing was more of an anti-pattern?

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  • Website badge system

    - by linkyndy
    I am currently working on a widget-based website, built entirely on user socialization. Since a reputation system pays off for attracting users, I decided to implement one of these. Now, I would like to hear some solutions on how should this be implemented the right way (take, for example, Foursquare's badge system). Basically, I need to be able to do the following: have a badges table, where I can add, edit and delete badges; be able to enable and disable a badge; be able to introduce a new badge, but without writing new code - simply give some parameters to the add badge form regarding what should be followed in order for a user to receive a badge; be able to give badges in real time - meaning that whenever a user accomplishes whatever it needs to receive a badge, the system should know immediately to give the badge to that user; also, the system should not be overloaded with "badge listeners" - I believe interrogating each user request with every badge requirements is time consuming; These being said, I would like to hear your opinions on how to implement the right way a badge system (logic, database schema, methods etc.) Thank you very much!

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  • Error while setting UserAcces permission for WebForms?

    - by ksg
    I've created a class named BaseClass.cs and I've written a function in its constructor. Here's how it looks public class BasePage:Page { public BasePage() { setUserPermission(); } private void setUserPermission() { String strPathAndQuery = HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.PathAndQuery; string strulr = strPathAndQuery.Replace("/SGERP/", "../"); Session["Url"] = strulr; GEN_FORMS clsForm = new GEN_FORMS(); clsForm.Form_Logical_Name = Session["Url"].ToString(); clsForm.User_ID = Convert.ToInt32(Session["User_ID"]); DataSet dsPermission = clsForm.RETREIVE_BUTTON_PERMISSIONS(); if (dsPermission.Tables.Count > 0) { if (dsPermission.Tables[1].Rows.Count > 0) { Can_Add = Convert.ToBoolean(dsPermission.Tables[1].Rows[0]["Can_Add"].ToString()); Can_Delete = Convert.ToBoolean(dsPermission.Tables[1].Rows[0]["Can_Delete"].ToString()); Can_Edit = Convert.ToBoolean(dsPermission.Tables[1].Rows[0]["Can_Edit"].ToString()); Can_Print = Convert.ToBoolean(dsPermission.Tables[1].Rows[0]["Can_Print"].ToString()); Can_View = Convert.ToBoolean(dsPermission.Tables[1].Rows[0]["Can_Print"].ToString()); } } } } I've inherited this class on my webform so that when the page loads, the setUserPermission function is executed. My webpage looks like this public partial class Setting_CompanyDetails : BasePage My problem is that I cannot access Session["Url"] in my BasePage. I'm getting the following error Session state can only be used when enableSessionState is set to true, either in a configuration file or in the Page directive. Please also make sure that System.Web.SessionStateModule or a custom session state module is included in the <configuration>\<system.web>\<httpModules> section in the application configuration. How can I solve this issue? Is this the right way to set UserPermission access?

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  • OOP + MVC advice on Member Controller

    - by dan727
    Hi, I am trying to follow good practices as much as possible while I'm learning using OOP in an MVC structure, so i'm turning to you guys for a bit of advice on something which is bothering me a little here. I am writing a site where I will have a number of different forms for members to fill in (mainly data about themselves), so i've decided to set up a Member controller where all of the forms relating to the member are represented as individual methods. This includes login/logout methods, as well as editing profile data etc. In addition to these methods, i also have a method to generate the member's control panel widget, which is a constant on every page on the site while the member is logged in. The only thing is, all of the other methods in this controller all have the same dependencies and form templates, so it would be great to generate all this in the constructor, but as the control_panel method does not have the same dependencies etc, I cannot use the constructor for this purpose, and instead I have to redeclare the dependencies and same template snippets in each method. This obviously isn't ideal and doesn't follow DRY principle, but I'm wondering what I should do with the control_panel method, as it is related to the member and that's why I put it in that controller in the first place. Am I just over-complicating things here and does it make sense to just move the control_panel method into a simple helper class? Here are the basic methods of the controller: class Member_Controller extends Website_Controller { public function __construct() { parent::__construct(); if (request::is_ajax()) { $this->auto_render = FALSE; // disable auto render } } public static function control_panel() { //load control panel view $panel = new View('user/control_panel'); return $panel; } public function login() { } public function register() { } public function profile() { } public function household() { } public function edit_profile() { } public function logout() { } }

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  • Cannot connect to mysql via servlet

    - by JBoy
    Hi all I have been since 2 days trying to figure out why my servlet does not connect to the database MySql. I have mysql installed and working properly and eclipse. Whenever i try to etabilish a connection i get the ClassNotFoundException for the com.mysql.jdbc.Driver, which is actually properly imported, the connector i'm using is the mysql-connector-java5.1.14 added properly as external jar so everything seems fine. here's my code protected void doPost(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { String dbUrl="jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/test"; String username="root"; String password=""; try { Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver").newInstance(); conn=DriverManager.getConnection(dbUrl); System.out.println("Connected!"); } catch (SQLException e) { e.printStackTrace(); System.out.println("not connected"); } catch(ClassNotFoundException x){ x.printStackTrace(); } catch(Exception e){ e.printStackTrace(); } } The stacktrace(part of): java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: com.mysql.jdbc.Driver at org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java:1645) at org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java:1491) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(ClassLoader.java:375) at java.lang.Class.forName0(Native Method) at java.lang.Class.forName(Class.java:164) i'm following the connection steps from a published java book and also in forums and tutorials i just see the same code, cannot figure out why that Exception comes. On a normal application which does not run on the server the Exception isn't thrown and the connection (in the exact same way) its successfull. Do you have any advice?

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  • MVC2 AJAX - determining UpdateTargetId based on the returned data

    - by DanielJW
    The scenario: I'm creating a login form for an MVC2 application. How i'm doing it: The form submits to an MVC2 action which validates the username/password. If it fails validation the action returns the form (a partial view) for the user to try again. If it passes validation the action returns the page the user was visiting before they logged in (a view). What i want to happen: 1 - when the form is submitted and the user validates successfully, The returned result should replace the current page (like what happens if you don't set an UpdateTargetId). 2 - When the form is submitted and the user fails validation, the returned result should replace the form (like what happens if you set the UpdateTargetID to the form's containing element). The problem: I can make both of those things work, but not at the same time. I can either have it always replace the current page, or always just replace the contents of the UpdateTargetId element. But I need it to be able to do either depending on whether the user successfully validated or not. What I need The ideal solution would be to be able to examine the result of the ajax request and determine whether to use the UpdateTargetId (replacing just the form) or not (replacing the whole page). I expect it would involve some work with jquery (assuming it's possible) but i'm not really that great with jquery yet to figure out how to do it myself. If it can't be done this way I'm also open to other methods/solutions for making it work in a similar fashion. Thanks in advance ..

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