Search Results

Search found 16182 results on 648 pages for 'event tracing'.

Page 544/648 | < Previous Page | 540 541 542 543 544 545 546 547 548 549 550 551  | Next Page >

  • listView dynamic add item

    - by pengwang
    hello,I used ListView to dynamic add item,but there is a problem about not Smooth add. there are textView and button in my listActivity,Iwant to Press button ,then textView"s text can auto add to listView,but i Pressed button ,it donot work,unless after i enter content , press "OK"Key ,then Pressed button ,textView"s text can auto add to listView. I donot know why. if I continuous Pressed button ,as3 times, then press "Ok"Key ,the content auto add list View but 3 times. public class DynamicListItems extends ListActivity { private static final String ITEM_KEY = "key"; ArrayList<HashMap<String, String>> list= new ArrayList<HashMap<String, String>>(); private SimpleAdapter adapter; private EditText newValue;@Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.dynamic_list); newValue = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.new_value_field); setListAdapter(new SimpleAdapter(this, list, R.layout.row, new String[] { ITEM_KEY }, new int[] { R.id.list_value })); ((ImageButton) findViewById(R.id.button)).setOnClickListener(getBtnClickListener()); } private OnClickListener getBtnClickListener() { return new OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View view) { try { HashMap<String, String> item = new HashMap<String, String>(); item.put(ITEM_KEY, newValue.getText().toString()); list.add(item); adapter.notifyDataSetChanged(); } catch (NullPointerException e) { Log.i("[Dynamic Items]", "Tried to add null value"); } } }; }} my another question is how to dynamic delete the item,which event i need to used,could you give me some directions or Code snippets? dynamic_list.xml only contains listView ,button,textView row.xml contains TextView . i amm sorry i donot edit code together.

    Read the article

  • Eclipse randomly exits after installation of Blackberry plugin/SDK

    - by canadiancreed
    Hello all Since adding the Blackberry Java classes from their website into eclipse, I've had it where eclipse will randomly close, with no discernible pattern, rhyme, error or reason. Here is the environment/software packages that I am using: Windows XP SP2 Eclipse v3.5.1 Blackberry Java Plugin v1.1.1.200911111641-15 Blackberry Java SDK 4.5.0.21 I've tried the usual steps of complete uninstall and reinstallation of Eclipse and the accompanying plugins on multiple systems with the same configuration, including one that had a fresh install of Windows XP SP2. Upgrading to Eclipse 3.6 didn't work (the plugin wont' install as it's the wrong version), nor the downgrade to 3.4 for the same reason. I also increased the heap size to 512 (system has two gigs of memory) as some research into Eclipse doing this type of thing with Groovy was resolved that way, but again, no dice. Eclipse works great when the blackberry plugins are not installed, and no entries of errors or issues in the event log are helping to show what the issue with these plug-ins might be. So if anyone has ran into this issue, and even better, has a solution, I'd love to hear about it. Thanks in advance. EDIT: An additional to my issue, autoComplete with the Blackberry SDK seems to make this extremely unstable, like almost a guaranteed crash. Is this fixable at all?

    Read the article

  • Losing Session between Classic ASP and ASP.NET

    - by Aaron
    The company that I work for is making a transition between classic ASP programs and ASP.NET programs for our intranet software. Eventually, everything will be written in ASP.NET, but because of time constraints, there are still a number of programs that use classic ASP. To compensate we've written features that allow for redirects and autologins between classic ASP programs and ASP.NET programs. I've been starting to see a problem, though, with holding the session state for our ASP.NET software. If a user uses an ASP.NET program, then does work in a classic ASP program, then goes back to that ASP.NET program, often times, the user's authentication for the ASP.NET program is still in place, yet the user's session is lost, resulting in an error whenever a function is performed within the program. I'm trying to capture the loss of the session state in global.asax's Session_End event, which would redirect the user to the login page, but that hasn't worked. Has anyone else faced a similar issue with users moving back and forth between classic ASP and ASP.NET and losing sessions? Is that even my real issue here? It's the only thing that I can see as being a problem. Thanks for any help.

    Read the article

  • Add autoFill capabilities to jQuery-UI 1.8.1

    - by rockinthesixstring
    here's what I currently have, unfortunately I cannot seem to figure out how to get autoFill to work with jQuery-UI... It used to work with the straight up Autocomplete.js <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8.1/jquery-ui.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="http://jquery-ui.googlecode.com/svn/tags/latest/external/jquery.bgiframe-2.1.1.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8.1/i18n/jquery-ui-i18n.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> var thesource = "RegionsAutoComplete.axd?PID=3" $(function () { function log(message) { $("<div/>").text(message).prependTo("#log"); $("#log").attr("scrollTop", 0); } $.expr[':'].textEquals = function (a, i, m) { return $(a).text().match("^" + m[3] + "$"); }; $("#birds").autocomplete({ source: thesource, change: function (event, ui) { //if the value of the textbox does not match a suggestion, clear its value if ($(".ui-autocomplete li:textEquals('" + $(this).val() + "')").size() == 0) { $(this).val(''); } else { log(ui.item ? ("Selected: " + ui.item.value + " aka " + ui.item.id) : "Nothing selected, input was " + this.value); } } }).live('keydown', function (e) { var keyCode = e.keyCode || e.which; //if TAB or RETURN is pressed and the text in the textbox does not match a suggestion, set the value of the textbox to the text of the first suggestion if ((keyCode == 9 || keyCode == 13) && ($(".ui-autocomplete li:textEquals('" + $(this).val() + "')").size() == 0)) { $(this).val($(".ui-autocomplete li:visible:first").text()); } }); }); </script> I've used the answer here to get the mustMatch working, but unfortunately if I "tab" away from the input box, I get the "Nothing selected" response instead of an Value and ID. Does anyone know how to extract the ID out of the autocomplete when you don't actually select the field?

    Read the article

  • Render User Controls and call their Page_Load

    - by David Murdoch
    The following code will not work because the controls (page1, page2, page3) require that their "Page_Load" event gets called. using System; using System.IO; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using iTextSharp.text; using iTextSharp.text.html.simpleparser; using iTextSharp.text.pdf; public partial class utilities_getPDF : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { // add user controls to the page AddContentControl("controls/page1"); AddContentControl("controls/page2"); AddContentControl("controls/page3"); // set up the response to download the rendered PDF... Response.ContentType = "application/pdf"; Response.ContentEncoding = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8; Response.AddHeader("Content-Disposition", "attachment;filename=FileName.pdf"); Response.Cache.SetCacheability(HttpCacheability.NoCache); // get the rendered HTML of the page System.IO.StringWriter stringWrite = new StringWriter(); System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriter htmlWrite = new HtmlTextWriter(stringWrite); this.Render(htmlWrite); StringReader reader = new StringReader(stringWrite.ToString()); // write the PDF to the OutputStream... Document doc = new Document(PageSize.A4); HTMLWorker parser = new HTMLWorker(doc); PdfWriter.GetInstance(doc, Response.OutputStream); doc.Open(); parser.Parse(reader); doc.Close(); } // the parts are probably irrelevant to the question... private const string contentPage = "~/includes/{0}.ascx"; private void AddContentControl(string page) { content.Controls.Add(myLoadControl(page)); } private Control myLoadControl(string page) { return TemplateControl.LoadControl(string.Format(contentPage, page)); } } So my question is: How can I get the controls HTML?

    Read the article

  • How do I make a jQuery POST function open the new page?

    - by ciclistadan
    I know that a submit button in HTML can submit a form which opens the target page, but how do I cause a jQuery ajax call POST information to a new page and display the new page. I am submitting information that is gathered by clicking elements (which toggle a new class) and then all items with this new class are added to an array and POSTed to a new page. I can get it to POST the data but it seems to be working functioning in an ajax non-refreshing manner, not submitting the page and redirecting to the new page. how might I go about doing this? here's the script section: //onload function $(function() { //toggles items to mark them for purchase //add event handler for selecting items $(".line").click(function() { //get the lines item number var item = $(this).toggleClass("select").attr("name"); }); $('#process').click(function() { var items = []; //place selected numbers in a string $('.line.select').each(function(index){ items.push($(this).attr('name')); }); $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: 'additem.php', data: 'items='+items, success: function(){ $('#menu').hide(function(){ $('#success').fadeIn(); }); } }); }); return false; }); any pointers would be great!! thanks

    Read the article

  • Problem retrieving multiple instances of the same asp.net session variable

    - by sw1sh
    I'm having problems with retrieving multiple instances of a session variable from an InProc session state. In the following code I persist a simple BusinessObject into a session variable on the Page_Load event. On the click of a button I try to retrieve the object back into 2 new declared instances of the same BusinessObject. All works great until I change one of the properties in the first instance, it changes the second instance as well. Is this normal behaviour? I would have thought as these were new instances they wouldn’t demonstrate static behaviour? Any ideas where I'm going wrong? Protected Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load If Not Page.IsPostBack Then ' create a new instance of a business object and set a containg variable Dim BO As New BusinessObject BO.SomeVariable = "test" ' persist to inproc session Session("BO") = BO End If End Sub Protected Sub btnRetrieveSessionVariable_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) Handles btnRetrieveSessionVariable.Click ' retrieve the session variable to a new instance of BusinessObject Dim BO1 As New BusinessObject If Not Session("BO") Is Nothing Then BO1 = Session("BO") ' retrieve the session variable to a new instance of BusinessObject Dim BO2 As New BusinessObject If Not Session("BO") Is Nothing Then BO2 = Session("BO") ' change the property value on the first instance BO1.SomeVariable = "test2" ' why has this changed on both instances? Dim strBO1Property As String = BO1.SomeVariable Dim strBO2Property As String = BO2.SomeVariable End Sub ' simple BusinessObject class Public Class BusinessObject Private _SomeVariable As String Public Property SomeVariable() As String Get Return _SomeVariable End Get Set(ByVal value As String) _SomeVariable = value End Set End Property End Class

    Read the article

  • Why doesn't every class in the .Net framework have a corresponding interface?

    - by Thorsten Lorenz
    Since I started to develop in a test/behavior driven style, I appreciated the ability to mock out every dependency. Since mocking frameworks like Moq work best when told to mock an interface, I now implement an interface for almost every class I create b/c most likely I will have to mock it out in a test eventually. Well, and programming to an interface is good practice, anyways. At times, my classes take dependencies on .Net classes (e.g. FileSystemWatcher, DispatcherTimer). It would be great in that case to have an interface, so I could depend on an IDispatcherTimer instead, to be able to pass it a mock and simulate its behavior to see if my system under test reacts correctly. Unfortunately both of above mentioned classes do not implement such interfaces, so I have to resort to creating adapters, that do nothing else but inherit from the original class and conform to an interface, that I then can use. Here is such an adapter for the DispatcherTimer and the corresponding interface: using System; using System.Windows.Threading; public interface IDispatcherTimer { #region Events event EventHandler Tick; #endregion #region Properties Dispatcher Dispatcher { get; } TimeSpan Interval { get; set; } bool IsEnabled { get; set; } object Tag { get; set; } #endregion #region Public Methods void Start(); void Stop(); #endregion } /// <summary> /// Adapts the DispatcherTimer class to implement the <see cref="IDispatcherTimer"/> interface. /// </summary> public class DispatcherTimerAdapter : DispatcherTimer, IDispatcherTimer { } Although this is not the end of the world, I wonder, why the .Net developers didn't take the minute to make their classes implement these interfaces from the get go. It puzzles me especially since now there is a big push for good practices from inside Microsoft. Does anyone have any (maybe inside) information why this contradiction exists?

    Read the article

  • Retrieve parent node from selection (range) in Gecko and Webkit

    - by Jason
    I am trying to add an attribute when using a wysiwyg editor that uses "createLink" command. I thought it would be trivial to get back the node that is created after the browse executes that command. Turns out, I am only able to grab this newly created node in IE. Any ideas? The following code demonstrates the issue (debug logs at bottom show different output in each browser): var getSelectedHTML = function() { if ($.browser.msie) { return this.getRange().htmlText; } else { var elem = this.getRange().cloneContents(); return $("<p/>").append($(elem)).html(); } }; var getSelection = function() { if ($.browser.msie) { return this.editor.selection; } else { return this.iframe[0].contentDocument.defaultView.getSelection(); } }; var getRange = function() { var s = this.getSelection(); return (s.getRangeAt) ? s.getRangeAt(0) : s.createRange(); }; var getSelectedNode = function() { var range = this.getRange(); var parent = range.commonAncestorContainer ? range.commonAncestorContainer : range.parentElement ? range.parentElement(): range.item(0); return parent; }; // **** INSIDE SOME EVENT HANDLER **** if ($.browser.msie) { this.ec("createLink", true); } else { this.ec("createLink", false, prompt("Link URL:", "http://")); } var linkNode = $(this.getSelectedNode()); linkNode.attr("rel", "external"); $.log(linkNode.get(0).tagName); // Gecko: "body" // IE: "a" // Webkit: "undefined" $.log(this.getSelectedHTML()); // Gecko: "<a href="http://site.com">foo</a>" // IE: "<A href="http://site.com" rel=external>foo</A>" // Webkit: "foo" $.log(this.getSelection()); // Gecko: "foo" // IE: [object Selection] // Webkit: "foo" Thanks for any help on this, I've scoured related questions on SO with no success!

    Read the article

  • AVAudioPlayer making noise when playing multiple sounds at the same time

    - by Rob
    I am having an issue where AVAudioPlayer is introducing noise into playback ONLY when I play multiple sound files at the same time. If I play them each individually, they all sound perfect. But, if I play sound clip B while sound clip A is still playing, the speakers start crackling like there is noise. I have tried both m4a files AND caf files and both make the same noise, so it has to be something with how I am implementing this method or a quirk with AVAudioPlayer. Any insights? code I am using: UITouch* touch = [[event allTouches] anyObject]; NSString* filename = [soundArray objectAtIndex:[touch view].tag]; NSString *path = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:filename ofType:@"m4a"]; AVAudioPlayer * newAudio=[[AVAudioPlayer alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:[NSURL fileURLWithPath:path] error:NULL]; self.theAudio = newAudio; // automatically retain audio and dealloc old file if new m4a file is loaded [newAudio release]; // release the audio safely theAudio.delegate = self; [theAudio prepareToPlay]; [theAudio setNumberOfLoops:0]; [theAudio setVolume: volumeLevel]; [theAudio play];

    Read the article

  • .NET Process.Kill() in a safe way

    - by Orborde
    I'm controlling a creaky old FORTRAN simulator from a VB.NET GUI, using redirected I/O to communicate with the simulator executable. The GUI pops up a "status" window with a progress bar, estimated time, and a "STOP" button (Button_Stop). Now, I want the Button_Stop to terminate the simulator process immediately. The obvious way to do this is to call Kill() on the Child Process object. This gives an exception if it's done after the process has exited, but I can test whether the process is exited before trying to kill it, right? OK, so I do the following when the button is clicked: If Not Child.HasExited Then Child.Kill() Button_Stop.Enabled = False End If However, what if the process happens to exit between the test and the call to Kill()? In that case, I get an exception. The next thing to occur to me was that I can do Button_Stop.Enabled = False in the Process.Exited event handler, and thus prevent the Child.Kill() call in the Button_Stop.Clicked handler. But since the Process.Exited handler is called on a different thread, that still leaves the following possible interleaving: Child process exits. Process.Exited fires, calls Invoke to schedule the Button_Stop.Enabled = False User clicks on Button_Stop, triggering Child.Kill() Button_Stop.Enabled = False actually happens. An exception would then be thrown on step 3. How do I kill the process without any race conditions? Am I thinking about this entirely wrong?

    Read the article

  • JSF:Resourcebundle Problem with Internationalization

    - by Sven
    I implemented internationalization like in that tutorial! When I change the language in my app. It works. But only until the next request happens. Then language settings are reset to my standard language -.- What am I missing here: LanguageBean.java @ManagedBean(name="language") @SessionScoped public class LanguageBean implements Serializable{ private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; private String localeCode; private static Map<String,Object> countries; static{ countries = new LinkedHashMap<String,Object>(); countries.put("Deutsch", Locale.GERMAN); //label, value countries.put("English", Locale.ENGLISH); } public Map<String, Object> getCountriesInMap() { return countries; } public String getLocaleCode() { return localeCode; } public void setLocaleCode(String localeCode) { this.localeCode = localeCode; } //value change event listener public void countryLocaleCodeChanged(ValueChangeEvent e){ String newLocaleValue = e.getNewValue().toString(); //loop country map to compare the locale code for (Map.Entry<String, Object> entry : countries.entrySet()) { if(entry.getValue().toString().equals(newLocaleValue)){ FacesContext.getCurrentInstance() .getViewRoot().setLocale((Locale)entry.getValue()); } } } } my facelets template: <h:selectOneMenu value="#{language.localeCode}" onchange="submit()" valueChangeListener="#{language.countryLocaleCodeChanged}"> <f:selectItems value="#{language.countriesInMap}" /> </h:selectOneMenu> faces-config: <application> <locale-config> <default-locale>de</default-locale> </locale-config> <resource-bundle> <base-name>org.dhbw.stg.wwi2008c.mopro.ui.text</base-name> <var>msg</var> </resource-bundle> </application>

    Read the article

  • Binding to WPF ViewModel properties

    - by MartinHN
    I'm just playing around with WPF and MVVM, and I have made a simple app that displays a Rectangle that changes color whenever Network availability changes. But when that happens, I get this error: Cannot use a DependencyObject that belongs to a different thread than its parent Freezable. Code XAML <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="400" Width="600"> <DockPanel LastChildFill="True"> <Rectangle x:Name="networkStatusRectangle" Width="200" Height="200" Fill="{Binding NetworkStatusColor}" /> </DockPanel> </Window> Code-behind using System.Windows; using WpfApplication1.ViewModels; namespace WpfApplication1 { /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for Window1.xaml /// </summary> public partial class Window1 : Window { public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); DataContext = new NetworkViewModel(); } } } ViewModel using System.ComponentModel; using System.Net.NetworkInformation; using System.Windows.Media; namespace WpfApplication1.ViewModels { public class NetworkViewModel : INotifyPropertyChanged { private Brush _NetworkStatusColor; public Brush NetworkStatusColor { get { return _NetworkStatusColor; } set { _NetworkStatusColor = value; NotifyOfPropertyChange("NetworkStatusColor"); } } public NetworkViewModel() { NetworkChange.NetworkAvailabilityChanged += new NetworkAvailabilityChangedEventHandler(NetworkChange_NetworkAvailabilityChanged); } protected void NetworkChange_NetworkAvailabilityChanged(object sender, NetworkAvailabilityEventArgs e) { if (e.IsAvailable) { this.NetworkStatusColor = new SolidColorBrush(Colors.Green); } else { this.NetworkStatusColor = new SolidColorBrush(Colors.Red); } } public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged = delegate { }; public void NotifyOfPropertyChange(string propertyName) { PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } } } I assume that I should change the NetworkStatusColor property by invoking something?

    Read the article

  • How to implement reject in parallel approval workflow?

    - by Dmitry Martynov
    I develop a SharePoint workflow with a Replicator activity to replicate a custom activity for every approver. The custom activity implements an approval branch for a particular user. It has classic form with CreateTask, While, OnTaskChanged and CompleteTask activities. I setup UntilCondition on the replicator to cancel execution after one approver chooses to reject the approval and then workflow finishes. The problem happens with other uncompleted tasks which "hang" in their current state. User does not see this state when open the task. I put UpdateAllTasks after the replacator to set the task status to Cancelled. But since there is no event activities between CompleteTask (for the rejected task) and UpdateAllTasks, the UpdateAllTask activity set Cancelled for the rejected task also. The question, what can I do to flush the pending change made by CompleteTask before UpdateAllTasks? Or perhaps, there is another way to implement such workflow. I was thinking about the way to implement Cancel handler for the custom activity with UpdateTask. But I do not know how to implement it and tell to the cancel handler that it executes in the case of the rejection.

    Read the article

  • gridview whith dropdown extender

    - by Wafaa
    hello, I have gridview with TextBox Template field and DropDownExtender so when user click on the textbox another gridview will appear tha contain List of items and button to add the item to the first gridview. my qusetion is: how can i in the event of button click(which is in the extender gridview) to get the row index of the first gridview(which contain the textbox)? thanks <cc1:DropDownExtender ID="uxItemExtender" runat="server" DropDownControlID="uxItemContainer" TargetControlID="uxItems"></cc1:DropDownExtender> <asp:Panel BackColor="AliceBlue" ID="uxItemContainer" runat="server" ScrollBars="Both" Height="400" Width="200"> <asp:GridView ID="uxItemsView" runat="server" Font-Size="Small" AutoGenerateColumns="false" OnRowDataBound="uxItemsView_RowDataBound"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Item Details"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="uxItemNameLbl" Text="Name :" runat="server"></asp:Label> <asp:Label ID="uxItemName" runat="server"></asp:Label><br /> <asp:Label ID="uxItemDescriptionLbl" Text="Description :" runat="server"></asp:Label> <asp:Label ID="uxItemDescription" runat="server"></asp:Label><br /> <asp:Label ID="uxItemPriceLbl" Text="Price :" runat="server"></asp:Label> <asp:Label ID="uxItemPrice" runat="server"></asp:Label><br /> <asp:Button ID="uxSelectItem" runat="server" Text="Add Item" OnClick="uxSelectItem_Click" /><br /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Picture"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Image ID="uxItemImage" runat="server" Width="45" Height="50" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView> </asp:Panel> </asp:TemplateField>

    Read the article

  • How to eliminate Unhandled Exception dialog produced by 3rd party application

    - by Tappen
    I'm working with a 3rd party executable that I can't recompile (vendor is no longer available). It was originally written under .Net 1.1 but seems to work fine under later versions as well. I launch it using Process.Start from my own application (I've tried p/invoke CreateProcess as well with the same results so that's not relevant) Unfortunately this 3rd party app now throws an unhandled exception as it exits. The Microsoft dialog box has a title like "Exception thrown from v2.0 ... Broadcast Window" with the version number relating to the version of .Net it's running under (I can use a .exe.config file to target different .Net versions, doesn't help). The unhandled exception dialog box on exit doesn't cause any real problems, but is troubling to my users who have to click OK to dismiss it every time. Is there any way (a config file option perhaps) to disable this dialog from showing for an app I don't have the source code to? I've considered loading it in a new AppDomain which would give me access to the UnhandledException event but there's no indication I could change the appearence of the dialog. Maybe someone knows what causes the exception and I can fix this some other way?

    Read the article

  • Overlay just a part of an external page with jquery

    - by rolando
    Hi, How can i load a part of an external page with jquery overlay? I have an aspx call TipoFactor.aspx wich has a div inside a contentplaceholder like this: <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder1" runat="Server"> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <br /> <div id="DivGeneral" runat="server" class="tablaPaddingFiveCeleste"> as you can see the "DivGeneral" is the one i want to load into the overlay, wich is defined like this: <a href="TipoFactorSeleccion.aspx" rel="#overlay"> <button type="button"> Pagina Externa</button> </a> <!-- overlayed element --> <div class="apple_overlay" id="overlay"> <!-- the external content is loaded inside this tag --> <div class="contentWrap"> </div> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { // if the function argument is given to overlay, // it is assumed to be the onBeforeLoad event listener $("a[rel]").overlay({ expose: 'darkred', effect: 'apple', onBeforeLoad: function() { // grab wrapper element inside content var wrap = this.getContent().find(".contentWrap"); // load the page specified in the trigger wrap.load(this.getTrigger().attr("href")); } }); }); </script> As it is now its loading the entire page into the overlay and that's not good for me cause it inherites from the same masterpage as the other. I need to keep that masterpage because it has some important aplication functionality. What can I do ? Thank you very much.

    Read the article

  • Why I cannot get correct class of a custom class through isKindOfClass?

    - by Anthony Chan
    Hi, I've created a custom class AnimalView which is a subclass of UIView containing a UILabel and a UIImageView. @interface AnimalView : UIView { UILabel *nameLabel; UIImageView *picture; } Then I added in several AnimalView onto the ViewController.view. In the touchesBegan:withEvent: method, I wanted to detect if the touched object is an AnimalView or not. Here is the code for the viewController: @implementation AppViewController - (void)viewDidLoad { UIScrollView *scrollView = [[UIScrollView alloc] initWithFrame:... [self.view addSubview scrollview]; for (int i = 0; i<10; i++) { AnimalView *newAnimal = [[AnimalView alloc] init]; // customization of newAnimal [scrollview addSubview:newAnimal; } } - (void)touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { UITouch *touch = [touches anyObject]; UIView *hitView = touch.view; if ([hitView isKindOfClass:[AnimalView class]]) { AnimalView *animal = (AnimalView *)hitView; [animal doSomething]; } } However, nothing happened when I clicked on the animal. When I checked the class of hitView by NSLog(@"%@", [hitView class]), it always shows UIView instead of AnimalView. Is it true that the AnimalView changed to a UIView when it is added onto the ViewController? Is there any way I can get back the original class of a custom class?

    Read the article

  • IoC - Dynamic Composition of object instances

    - by Joshua Starner
    Is there a way using IoC, MEF [Imports], or another DI solution to compose dependencies on the fly at object creation time instead of during composition time? Here's my current thought. If you have an instance of an object that raises events, but you are not creating the object once and saving it in memory, you have to register the event handlers every time the object is created. As far as I can tell, most IoC containers require you to register all of the classes used in composition and call Compose() to make it hook up all the dependencies. I think this may be horrible design (I'm dealing with a legacy system here) to do this due to the overhead of object creation, dependency injection, etc... but I was wondering if it was possible using one of the emergent IoC technologies. Maybe I have some terminology mixed up, but my goal is to avoid writing a framework to "hook up all the events" on an instance of an object, and use something like MEF to [Export] handlers (dependencies) that adhere to a very specific interface and [ImportMany] them into an object instance so my exports get called if the assemblies are there when the application starts. So maybe all of the objects could still be composed when the application starts, but I want the system to find and call all of them as the object is created and destroyed.

    Read the article

  • certificate issues running app in windows 7 ?

    - by Jurjen
    Hi, I'm having some problems with my App. I'm using 'org.mentalis.security' assembly to create a certificate object from a 'pfx' file, this is the line of code where the exception occurs : Certificate cert = Certificate.CreateFromPfxFile(publicKey, certificatePassword); this has always worked and still does in production, but for some reason it throws an exception when run in windows 7 (tried it on 2 machines). CertificateException : Unable to import the PFX file! [error code = -2146893792] I can't find much on this message via google, but when checking the EventViewer I get an 'Audit Failure' every time this exception occurs: Event ID = 5061 Source = Microsoft Windows Security Task Category = system Integrity Keywords = Audit Failure Cryptographic operation. Subject: Security ID: NT AUTHORITY\IUSR Account Name: IUSR Account Domain: NT AUTHORITY Logon ID: 0x3e3 Cryptographic Parameters: Provider Name: Microsoft Software Key Storage Provider Algorithm Name: Not Available. Key Name: VriendelijkeNaam Key Type: User key. Cryptographic Operation: Operation: Open Key. Return Code: 0x2 ` I'm not sure why this isn't working on win 7, I've never had problems when I was running on Vista with this. I am running VS2008 as administrator but I guess that maybe the ASP.NET user doesn't have sufficient rights or something. It's pretty strangs that the 'Algorithm name' is 'Not Available' can anyone help me with this... TIA, Jurjen de Groot

    Read the article

  • Annotate over Multi-table Inheritance in Django

    - by user341584
    I have a base LoggedEvent model and a number of subclass models like follows: class LoggedEvent(models.Model): user = models.ForeignKey(User, blank=True, null=True) timestamp = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) class AuthEvent(LoggedEvent): good = models.BooleanField() username = models.CharField(max_length=12) class LDAPSearchEvent(LoggedEvent): type = models.CharField(max_length=12) query = models.CharField(max_length=24) class PRISearchEvent(LoggedEvent): type = models.CharField(max_length=12) query = models.CharField(max_length=24) Users generate these events as they do the related actions. I am attempting to generate a usage-report of how many of each event-type each user has caused in the last month. I am struggling with Django's ORM and while I am close I am running into a problem. Here is the query code: ef usage(request): # Calculate date range today = datetime.date.today() month_start = datetime.date(year=today.year, month=today.month - 1, day=1) month_end = datetime.date(year=today.year, month=today.month, day=1) - datetime.timedelta(days=1) # Search for how many LDAP events were generated per user, last month baseusage = User.objects.filter(loggedevent__timestamp__gte=month_start, loggedevent__timestamp__lte=month_end) ldapusage = baseusage.exclude(loggedevent__ldapsearchevent__id__lt=1).annotate(count=Count('loggedevent__pk')) authusage = baseusage.exclude(loggedevent__authevent__id__lt=1).annotate(count=Count('loggedevent__pk')) return render_to_response('usage.html', { 'ldapusage' : ldapusage, 'authusage' : authusage, }, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) Both ldapusage and authusage are both a list of users, each user annotated with a .count attribute which is supposed to represent how many particular events that user generated. However in both lists, the .count attributes are the same value. Infact the annotated 'count' is equal to how many events that user generated, regardless of type. So it would seem that my specific authusage = baseusage.exclude(loggedevent__authevent__id__lt=1) isn't excluding by subclass. I have tried id_lt=1, id_isnull=True, and others. Halp.

    Read the article

  • Using Sendkeys in python to press {F12} results in other keys pressed?

    - by ThantiK
    import time from ctypes import * import win32gui import win32com.client as comclt X = 119 Y = 53 def PILColorToRGB(pil_color): """ convert a PIL-compatible integer into an (r, g, b) tuple """ hexstr = '%06x' % pil_color # reverse byte order r, g, b = hexstr[4:], hexstr[2:4], hexstr[:2] r, g, b = [int(n, 16) for n in (r, g, b)] return (r, g, b) wsh = comclt.Dispatch("WScript.Shell") w = win32gui user = windll.LoadLibrary("c:\\windows\\system32\\user32.dll") h = user.GetDC(0) gdi = windll.LoadLibrary("c:\\windows\\system32\\gdi32.dll") while True: FG = w.GetWindowText(w.GetForegroundWindow()) #FG = Foreground window title. if FG == "World of Warcraft": rgb = (PILColorToRGB(gdi.GetPixel(h,X,Y))) #X, Y time.sleep(0.333) #don't check too often. if (rgb[0] >= 130): #While Pixel (X, Y) is Red... #print "%d %d %d" % (rgb[0], rgb[1], rgb[2]) #Debug wsh.SendKeys("{F12}") #Send a key. time.sleep(0.7) #Add some extra down-time if we send the key. else: time.sleep(5) Basically all this code does is read a pixel on the screen, and send a key (F12) if the pixel is red. But when using this code I regularly get some phantom key-code being pressed. The application I'm using this on is obviously world of warcraft, and I have checked that all keybinds are standard keybinds. However randomly it seems I get either an up arrow, or a w pressed, which moves my character forward whenever this code executes (F12 is bound to a macro, unbound from any movement. If I press f12 with a hardware event, it does not exhibit this behavior. What in the world could be going on here?

    Read the article

  • Character Encoding: â??

    - by akaphenom
    I am trying to piece together the mysterious string of characters â?? I am seeing quite a bit of in our database - I am fairly sure this is a result of conversion between character encodings, but I am not completely positive. The users are able to enter text (or cut and paste) into a Ext-Js rich text editor. The data is posted to a severlet which persists it to the database, and when I view it in the database i see those strange characters... is there any way to decode these back to their original meaning, if I was able to discover the correct encoding - or is there a loss of bits or bytes that has occured through the conversion process? Users are cutting and pasting from multiple versions of MS Word and PDF. Does the encoding follow where the user copied from? Thank you website is UTF-8 We are using ms sql server 2005; SELECT serverproperty('Collation') -- Server default collation. Latin1_General_CI_AS SELECT databasepropertyex('xxxx', 'Collation') -- Database default SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS and the column: Column_name Type Computed Length Prec Scale Nullable TrimTrailingBlanks FixedLenNullInSource Collation text varchar no -1 yes no yes SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS The non-Unicode equivalents of the nchar, nvarchar, and ntext data types in SQL Server 2000 are listed below. When Unicode data is inserted into one of these non-Unicode data type columns through a command string (otherwise known as a "language event"), SQL Server converts the data to the data type using the code page associated with the collation of the column. When a character cannot be represented on a code page, it is replaced by a question mark (?), indicating the data has been lost. Appearance of unexpected characters or question marks in your data indicates your data has been converted from Unicode to non-Unicode at some layer, and this conversion resulted in lost characters. So this may be the root cause of the problem... and not an easy one to solve on our end.

    Read the article

  • Using jQuery to grab the content from CKEditor's iframe

    - by miCRoSCoPiC_eaRthLinG
    Hey guys, I have this custom written CMS that uses CKEditor *(FCKEditor v3) for editing content. Along with that I'm using the jQuery Validation plugin to check all fields for error prior to ajax-based submission. For passing on the data to the PHP backend, I'm using the serialize() function. Problem is, serialize manages to grab all other fields correctly, except for the actual content typed in CKEditor. Like every other WYSIWYG editor, this one too overlays an iframe over an existing textbox. And serialize ignores the iframe and looks only into the textbox for content... which of course, it doesn't find - thus returning a blank content body. My approach to this is to create a hook onto the onchange event of CKEditor and concurrently update the textbox (CKEDITOR.instances.[textboxname].getData() returns the content) or some other hidden field with any changes made in the editor. However, since CKEditor is still in it's beta stage and severely lacks documentation, I cannot seem to find a suitable API call that'll enable me to do so. Does anyone have any idea on how to go about this? Or maybe suggest even a better method?

    Read the article

  • Uploadify and rails 3 authenticity tokens

    - by Ceilingfish
    Hi chaps, I'm trying to get a file upload progress bar working in a rails 3 app using uploadify (http://www.uploadify.com) and I'm stuck at authenticity tokens. My current uploadify config looks like <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#zip_input").uploadify({ 'uploader': '/flash/uploadify.swf', 'script': $("#upload").attr('action'), 'scriptData': { 'format': 'json', 'authenticity_token': encodeURIComponent('<%= form_authenticity_token if protect_against_forgery? %>') }, 'fileDataName': "world[zip]", //'scriptAccess': 'always', // Incomment this, if for some reason it doesn't work 'auto': true, 'fileDesc': 'Zip files only', 'fileExt': '*.zip', 'width': 120, 'height': 24, 'cancelImg': '/images/cancel.png', 'onComplete': function(event, data) { $.getScript(location.href) }, // We assume that we can refresh the list by doing a js get on the current page 'displayData': 'speed' }); }); </script> But I am getting this response from rails: Started POST "/worlds" for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-04-22 12:39:44 ActionController::InvalidAuthenticityToken (ActionController::InvalidAuthenticityToken): Rendered /opt/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-3.0.0.beta3/lib/action_dispatch/middleware/templates/rescues/_trace.erb (1.0ms) Rendered /opt/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-3.0.0.beta3/lib/action_dispatch/middleware/templates/rescues/_request_and_response.erb (6.6ms) Rendered /opt/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-3.0.0.beta3/lib/action_dispatch/middleware/templates/rescues/diagnostics.erb within rescues/layout (12.2ms) This appears to be because I'm not sending the authentication cookie along with the request. Does anyone know how I can get the values I should be sending there, and how I can make rails read it from HTTP POST rather than trying to find it as a cookie?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 540 541 542 543 544 545 546 547 548 549 550 551  | Next Page >