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• What job title should be most suitable for my object in resume and what salary range should I expect

  - by user354177

  I was a classic asp developer in 2000. After a year of full-time employment, I left the field. I found a part-time position as an asp developer again in 2005 and taught myself vb.net. In 2007, I got the current full-time job as an Asp.net web developer. I taught myself C#, LING t0 SQL, Web Services, AJAX, and creating all kinds of reports with reporting services. One and half years ago, I sent myself to part-time graduate program in Database and Web Systems. I'll have two semesters to go and so far my GPA is 4.0/4.0. My job responsibility is to collect business requirements from other departments, design the database, write stored procedures, create aspx pages, and create reports. I love what I do and want to advance my career to the next level. What I enjoy most is to design the relational database. I would want to become an .Net Architect eventually. I got an interview. They were looking for asp.net web developer. But I was surprised and disappointed that position would only create aspx pages. I would not even have opportunity to write stored procedures, let alone design the database (those would be provided by another group). Furthermore, they asked me some detailed questions about web forms, some of which I did not know the answers. they might be disappointed as well. I am eager to learn and can apply what I learn to real projects right away. I believe no matter what specific skills I am lacking for a new position, I can catch up quickly. I am looking for $70k range job. The object in my resume is Experience C# Web Application Developer. Due to the experience from last interview, I wonder if the object is really what I want. Could somebody answer my questions? Thank you.

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• iPhone app developed with SDK 4.2, requires backward compatibility with iOS 3.1.3 .. easy way?

  - by mrd3650

  I have built an iPhone app with SDK 4.2 however I know also want to make it compatible with iOS 3.1.3. First step was to set the Deployment Target to 3.1.3. It runs fine on the 3.2 Simulator but the app crashes at times since I'm using some methods which are not available in this early SDK. So my qestion is, is there a straight forward way to locate the offending methods/classes I'm using in my project which are not available in 3.1.3 ? (without manually going through each method call and consult with the docs for the SDK availability?) Thanks. UPDATE: I have executed the app on 3.1.3 and attempted to manually test each execution path with the hope of locating all exceptions. This was completed with some level of success. However, what if the application is huge? and there are lots of execution paths? There must be some tool for this scenario. Any thoughts are much appreciated.

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• IIS redirect url for virtual directory

  - by Jouni

  Hello, How i can set redirect url for virtual directory in iis 7.0.I have installed lates url rewrite module 2. ? I could explain my problem with exsample. I have website on my iis 7.0 server: www.mysite.com I desided to create virtual directory sales under my site which is pointing to website root directory.Now I need create redirect url for the vdir. The vdir is pointing same virtual root directory as my site root is The big idea is that i can write on browser www.mysite/sales and i will automaticly redirect to url www.mysite.com?productid=200. I tried to make redirect with rewite url for vdir(not website), but I always get this error message : cannot add duplicate colletion entry of type 'rule' with unique key key attribute 'name' set to "test".This happens when i am pointing for virtual vdir and try to add rule. I can add rules to website level,but rules doesn work. I mean url www.mysite/sales gives me follwing error. I know that key is unique I checked it from web.config. This kind of feature was really easy use in IIS 6.0, just point vdir with your mouse and set properties--a redirect to url. Please some one explain what is right way to do it in IIS 7.0

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• While in a transaction, how can reads to an affected row be prevented until the transaction is done?

  - by Mahn

  I'm fairly sure this has a simple solution, but I haven't been able to find it so far. Provided an InnoDB MySQL database with the isolation level set to SERIALIZABLE, and given the following operation: BEGIN WORK; SELECT * FROM users WHERE userID=1; UPDATE users SET credits=100 WHERE userID=1; COMMIT; I would like to make sure that as soon as the select inside the transaction is issued, the row corresponding to userID=1 is locked for reads until the transaction is done. As it stands now, UPDATEs to this row will wait for the transaction to be finished if it is in process, but SELECTs simply will read the previous value. I understand this is the expected behaviour in this case, but I wonder if there is a way to lock the row in such a way that SELECTs will also wait until the transaction is finished to return the values? The reason I'm looking for that is that at some point, and with enough concurrent users, it could happen that while the previous transaction is in process someone else reads the "credits" to calculate something else. Ideally the code run by that someone else should wait for the transaction to finish to use the new value, because otherwise it could lead to irreversible desync issues. Note that I don't want to lock the entire table for reads, just the specific row. Also, I could add a boolean "locked" field to the tables and set it to 1 every time I'm starting a transaction but I don't really feel this is the most elegant solution here, unless there is absolutely no other way to handle this through mysql directly.

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• Why is the 'var' keyword bad? Or am I just old school?

  - by WaggingSiberian

  Recently I overheard junior developer ask "why do you use 'var' so much?". The mid-level developer responded "I use VAR all the time. I love it! I don't have to figure out the type." I didn't have the time or energy to get into a religious war and hey, I'm still the new guy here :-) I understand var has its place. LINQ comes to mind. But I have also always been told the use of var represents lazy programming and I should just use the correct type to begin with. If it's an int, define it as an int, not a var. When reviewing code, seeing the type makes it easier to follow. My opinion is, it's just lazy but there are exception. Var also reminds me of the VB/VBA variant type. It also had its place. I recall (from many years ago) its usage being less-than-desirable type and it was rather resource hungry. Am I just being stuck in my ways? Should we start using var all the time as my co-worker does?

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• [C++] Parent-Child scheme

  - by rubenvb

  I'm writing a class that holds a pointer to a parent object of the same type (think Qt's QObject system). Each object has one parent, and the parent should not be destroyed when a child is destroyed (obviously). class MyClass { public: MyClass(const MyClass* ptr_parent): parent(parent){}; ~MyClass(){ delete[] a_children; }; private: const MyClass* ptr_parent; // go to MyClass above MyClass* a_children; // go to MyClass below size_t sz_numChildren; // for iterating over a_children } (Excuse my inline coding, it's only for brevity) Will destroying the "Master MyClass" take care of all children? No child should be able to kill it's parent, because I would then have pointers in my main program to destroyed objects, correct? Why might you ask? I need a way to "iterate" through all subdirectories and find all files on a platform independent level. The creation of this tree will be handled by native API's, the rest won't. Is this a good idea to start with? Thanks!

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• How to document an existing small web site (web application), inside and out?

  - by Ricket

  We have a "web application" which has been developed over the past 7 months. The problem is, it was not really documented. The requirements consisted of a small bulleted list from the initial meeting 7 months ago (it's more of a "goals" statement than software requirements). It has collected a number of features which stemmed from small verbal or chat discussions. The developer is leaving very soon. He wrote the entire thing himself and he knows all of the quirks and underlying rules to each page, but nobody else really knows much more than the user interface side of it; which of course is the easy part, as it's made to be intuitive to the user. But if someone needs to repair or add a feature to it, the entire thing is a black box. The code has some minimal comments, and of course the good thing about web applications is that the address bar points you in the right direction towards fixing a problem or upgrading a page. But how should the developer go about documenting this web application? He is a bit lost as far as where to begin. As developers, how do you completely document your web applications for other developers, maintainers, and administrative-level users? What approach do you use, where do you start, do you have a template? An idea of magnitude: it uses PHP, MySQL and jQuery. It has about 20-30 main (frontend) files, along with about 15 included files and a couple folders of some assets. So overall it's a pretty small application. It interfaces with 7 MySQL tables, each one well-named, so I think the database end is pretty self-explanatory. There is a config.inc.php file with definitions of consts like the MySQL user details, some from/to emails, and URLs which PHP uses to insert into emails and pages (relative and absolute paths, basiecally). There is some AJAX via jQuery. Please comment if there is any other information that would help you help me and I will be glad to edit it in.

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• Best practice when removing entity regarding mappedBy collections?

  - by Daniel Bleisteiner

  I'm still kind of undecided which is the best practice to handle em.remove(entity) with this entity being in several collections mapped using mappedBy in JPA. Consider an entity like a Property that references three other entities: a Descriptor, a BusinessObject and a Level entity. The mapping is defined using @ManyToOne in the Property entity and using @OneToMany(mappedBy...) in the other three objects. That inverse mapping is defined because there are some situations where I need to access those collections. Whenever I remove a Property using em.remove(prop) this element is not automatically removed from managed entities of the other three types. If I don't care about that and the following page load (webapp) doesn't reload those entities the Property is still found and some decisions might be taken that are no longer true. The inverse mappings may become quite large and though I don't want to use something like descriptor.getProperties().remove(prop) because it will load all those properties that might have been lazy loaded until then. So my currently preferred way is to refresh the entity if it is managed: if (em.contains(descriptor)) em.refresh(descriptor) - which unloads a possibly loaded collection and triggers a reload upon the next access. Is there another feasible way to handle all those mappedBy collections of already loaded entites?

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• Senior programming 'guru' who can't program - should I find a different career?

  - by confess

  Background: According to my resume I'm supposed to be pretty good at programming. I've worked on a ton of big projects at big companies over many years. When I go for an interview and someone looks at my resume they immediately assume I really know what I'm talking about. I generally communicate well, present myself well, know the 'jargon' and know a lot about technology at a high level, which makes matters worse because after talking to me for a while an interviewer really believes that what my resume says is probably true. The Problem: The problem arises when someone asks me to code something. I choke. As a programmer I have almost no capacity to come up with creative solutions of my own. I can't think through solutions to a programming problem the way good programmers are usually able to. I read questions on StackOverflow and the answer is obvious to me after I read other people's answers but if I am the first person to look at a question with no hints from anyone else I usually don't know where to start. At work it's the same thing. I'm fine if I'm correcting other people's code. I can identify the source of a bug quicker than anyone I work with. But if you ask me to sit down and code up a new application from scratch I will spend ten times longer than programmers who are much more junior than me. Question: Now that I am looking for work this is raising its ugly head in interview situations and making me feel desperately that I'm in the wrong career. I don't know if this problem is incompetence, laziness or some combination of these. Does anyone have any ideas about what I might be dealing with - are there books or exercises that could help me with this basic problem?

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• How can I call a function in a parent movieclip from an externally-loaded child?

  - by Doug Wolfgram

  I have a swf file that is my 'shell' program that contains many functions. This shell program loads child movies. In the root timeline of the child movie, I have the following code: function putresponse(q,r) { trace (r); _root.debug(r); } _root.debug("foo"); Debug is a function that writes some text to the screen. When I run this locally, the putresponse function gets called and the trace happens. When I run it remotely (inside the shell) the first debug happens immediately on load (as you'd expect) but then later when putresponse is called, the debug(r) is not executed. The external clip is at the same url as the shell so I don't think it is a security issue. Also, as I said, the debug("foo") works fine. This one really has me perplexed. Can anyone shed some light as to why I can't call the debug from _root when called from a function rather than on the first-level timeline? EDIT: The call to putresponse is coming form two layers deep in local (within the child MC) MCs. The actual call is: _parent._parent.putrepsonse(q,r);

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• Reload a UITable on the fly when editing a UITextField inside one of the cells

  - by Saze

  I have a UITable containing some customs UITableCells. Those cells contain a few UILabels and a UITextField. The datasource of the table comes from a main controller's property. (This controller is also the delegate and the dataSource for the table). Here's a simplified screenshot of the UI: Now, I need to update "on the fly" the content of all the UILabels when the user edits one of the UITextFields. To do so, at the I am listening to the "Editing Changed" event at the UITextField level. This triggers the following action: - (IBAction) editChangeHandler: (id) sender { MyAppDelegate *delegate = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; [[delegate.viewController.myDataSourceArray objectAtIndex:self.rowIndex] setANumber: [theTextField.text intValue]]; [delegate.viewController reloadRows]; } The reloadRows method in the viewController is as such: - (void) reloadRows { NSLog(@"called reloadRows"); //perform some calculations on the data source objects here... [theUITable reloadData]; } My problem here is that whenever the user changes the value in the field, the reloadRows method is successfully called, so is apparently the reloadData but it also causes the keyboard to be dismissed. So in the end, the user can only touch one key when editing the TextField before the keyboard is dismissed and the table reloaded. Does anybody knows a solution to this or have experienced the same issue?

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• What is a good solution to log the deletion of a row in MySQL?

  - by hobodave

  Background I am currently logging deletion of rows from my tickets table at the application level. When a user deletes a ticket the following SQL is executed: INSERT INTO alert_log (user_id, priority, priorityName, timestamp, message) VALUES (9, 4, 'WARN', NOW(), "TICKET: David A. deleted ticket #6 from Foo"); Please do not offer schema suggestions for the alert_log table. Fields: user_id - User id of the logged in user performing the deletion priority - Always 4 priorityName - Always 'WARN' timestamp - Always NOW() message - Format: "[NAMESPACE]: [FullName] deleted ticket #[TicketId] from [CompanyName]" NAMESPACE - Always TICKET FullName - Full name of user identified by user_id above TicketId - Primary key ID of the ticket being deleted CompanyName - Ticket has a Company via tickets.company_id Situation/Questions Obviously this solution does not work if a ticket is deleted manually from the mysql command line client. However, now I need to. The issues I'm having are as follows: Should I use a PROCEDURE, FUNCTION, or TRIGGER? -- Analysis: TRIGGER - I don't think this will work because I can't pass parameters to it, and it would trigger when my application deleted the row too. PROCEDURE or FUNCTION - Not sure. Should I return the number of deleted rows? If so, that would require a FUNCTION right? How should I account for the absence of a logged in user? -- Possibilities: Using either a PROC or FUNC, require the invoker to pass in a valid user_id Require the user to pass in a string with the name Use the CURRENT_USER - meh Hard code the FullName to just be "Database Administrator" Could the name be an optional parameter? I'm rather green when it comes to sprocs. Assuming I went with the PROC/FUNC approach, is it possible to outright restrict regular DELETE calls to this table, yet still allow users to call this PROC/FUNC to do the deletion for them? Ideally the solution is usable by my application as well, so that my code is DRY.

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• Can it be done?

  - by bzarah

  We are in design phase of a project whose goal is replatforming an ASP classic application to ASP.Net 4.0. The system needs to be entirely web based. There are several new requirements for the new system that make this a challenging project: The system needs to be database independent. It must, at version 1.0, support MS SQL Server, Oracle, MySQL, Postgres and DB2. The system must be able to allow easy reporting from the database by third party reporting packages. The system must allow an administrative end user to create their own tables in the database through the web based interface. The system must allow an administrative end user to design/configure a user interface (web based) where they can select tables and fields in the system (either our system's core tables or their own custom tables created in #3) The system must allow an administrative end user to create and maintain relationships between these custom created tables, and also between these tables and our system's core tables. The system must allow an administrative end user to create business rules that will enforce validation, show/hide UI elements, block certain actions based on the identity of specific users, specific user groups or privileges. Essentially it's a system that has some core ticket tracking functionality, but allows the end user to extend the interface, business rules and the database. Is this possible to build in a .Net, Web based environment? If so, what do you think the level of effort would be to get this done? We are currently a 6 person shop, with 2.5 full time developers.

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• How to efficiently use LOCK_ESCALATION mssql 2008

  - by Avias

  I'm currently having troubles with frequent deadlocks with a specific user table in MS SQL 2008. Here are some facts about this particular table: Has a large amount of rows (1 to 2 million) All the indexes used on this table only has "use row lock" ticked on its option rows are frequently updated by multiple transactions but are unique (e.g. probably a thousand or more update statements are executed to different unique rows every hour) the table does not use partitions. Upon checking the table on sys.tables, I found that the lock_escalation is set to TABLE I'm very tempted to turn the lock_escalation for this table to DISABLE but I'm not really sure what side effect this would incur. From What I understand, using DISABLE will minimize escalating locks to TABLE level which if combined with the row lock settings of the indexes should theoretically minimize the deadlocks I am encountering.. From what I have read in Determining threshold for lock escalation it seems that locking automatically escalates when a single transaction fetches 5000 rows.. What does a single transaction mean in this sense? A single session/connection getting 5000 rows thru individual update/select statements? Or is it a single sql update/select statement that fetches 5000 or more rows? Any insight is appreciated, btw, n00b DBA here Thanks

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• Removing index.php on MAMP

  - by djeetee

  this questions was asked before and has had many responses. The problem is nothing i tried worked. Background: i use MAMP and all of my web project are located under WebProjects which I relocated out of its standard location within the MAMP folder in Applications. so my structure is something like this: Documents/WebProjects/GreatSite/Application/... What happened so far: my understanding is that removing index.php can be done either through httpd.conf or .htaccess. anytime i touched httpd.conf, Apache refuses to start. I tried various edits to .htaccess including the one in codeigniter.com/wiki/mod-rewrite and the last one from a post on SO which is this: RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /index.php?/$1 [L] this give me the following error when i access the site: An Error Was Encountered Unable to determine what should be displayed. A default route has not been specified in the routing file. I have updated config.php to have $config['index_page'] = ''; and i have placed the .htaccess file in the GreatSite folder. One other note, my CI system folder is up a level from GreatSite. Not sure if this has any impact. also, apache has the module loaded. so, I'm hoping someone has successfully done this on MAMP and could provide direction specifically around the content of their .htaccess (or even httpd.conf), it's location and any other mods they had to make to get this going. thanks

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• Stored Procedure, 'incorrect syntax error'

  - by jacksonSD

  Attempting to figure out sp's, and I'm getting this error: "Msg 156, Level 15, State 1, Line 5 Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'Procedure'." the error seems to be on the if, but I can drop other existing tables with stored procedures the exact same way so I'm not clear on why this isn't working. can anyone shed some light? Begin Set nocount on Begin Try Create Procedure uspRecycle as if OBJECT_ID('Recycle') is not null Drop Table Recycle create table Recycle (RecycleID integer constraint PK_integer primary key, RecycleType nchar(10) not null, RecycleDescription nvarchar(100) null) insert into Recycle (RecycleID,RecycleType,RecycleDescription) values ('1','Compost','Product is compostable, instructions included in packaging') insert into Recycle (RecycleID,RecycleType,RecycleDescription) values ('2','Return','Product is returnable to company for 100% reuse') insert into Recycle (RecycleID,RecycleType,RecycleDescription) values ('3','Scrap','Product is returnable and will be reclaimed and reprocessed') insert into Recycle (RecycleID,RecycleType,RecycleDescription) values ('4','None','Product is not recycleable') End Try Begin Catch DECLARE @ErrMsg nvarchar(4000); SELECT @ErrMsg = ERROR_MESSAGE(); Throw 50001, @ErrMsg, 1; End Catch -- checking to see if table exists and is loaded: If (Select count(*) from Recycle) >1 begin Print 'Recycle table created and loaded '; Print getdate() End set nocount off End

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• Get notified when UITableView has finished asking for data?

  - by kennethmac2000

  Hi everyone, Is there some way to find out when a UITableView has finished asking for data from its data source? None of the viewDidLoad/viewWillAppear/viewDidAppear methods of the associated view controller (UITableViewController) are of use here, as they all fire too early. None of them (entirely understandably) guarantee that queries to the data source have finished for the time being (eg, until the view is scrolled). One workaround I have found is to call reloadData in viewDidAppear, since, when reloadData returns, the table view is guaranteed to have finished querying the data source as much as it needs to for the time being. However, this seems rather nasty, as I assume it is causing the data source to be asked for the same information twice (once automatically, and once because of the reloadData call) when it is first loaded. The reason I want to do this at all is that I want to preserve the scroll position of the UITableView - but right down to the pixel level, not just to the nearest row. When restoring the scroll position (using scrollRectToVisible:animated:), I need the table view to already have sufficient data in it, or else the scrollRectToVisible:animated: method call does nothing (which is what happens if you place the call on its own in any of viewDidLoad, viewWillAppear or viewDidAppear). Thanks in advance for your assistance!

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• How do I deal with different requests that map to the same response?

  - by daxim

  I'm designing a Web service. The request is idempotent, so I chose the GET method. The response is relatively expensive to calculate and not small, so I want to get caching (on the protocol level) right. (Don't worry about memoisation at my part, I have that already covered; my question here is actually also paying attention to the Web as a whole.) There's only one mandatory parameter and a number of optional parameter with default values if missing. For example, the following two map to the same representation of the response. (If this is a dumb way to go about it the interface, propose something better.) GET /service?mandatory_parameter=some_data HTTP/1.1 GET /service?mandatory_parameter=some_data;optional_parameter=default1;another_optional_parameter=default2;yet_another_optional_parameter=default3 HTTP/1.1 However, I imagine clients do not know this and would treat them separate and therefore waste cache storage. What should I do to avoid violating the golden rule of caching? Make up a canonical form, document it (e.g. all parameters are required after all and need to be sorted in a specific order) and return a client error unless the required form is met? Instead of an error, redirect permanently to the canonical form of a request? Or is it enough to not mind how the request looks like, and just respond with the same ETag for same responses?

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• Framework or CMS for php web development?

  - by rocknroll

  Hi all, I am a C++,Unix developer who has never dabbled in web development apart from creating simple HTML pages. I am going to change that and develop a website at a personal level soon. I am going to use php,mysql on a linux machine. In this regard I am browsing through relevant literature. The language isn't a problem but reading about CMS's and frameworks is confusing. And since I am new to web development, the number of CMS's and Frameworks are overwhelming. ? My question is do I need to have knowledge of one or more CMS' and/or Frameworks like Drupal,Joomla,Zend,Wordpress etc. If yes which is the best open source CMS' and/or Framework suggested for a newbie. ?? If the answer to the above question is yes, does the choice changes if one delves into the realms of commercial web development? Note:- I will be developing on a Linux machine, using open source tools. Thanks in advance

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• changing the intensity of lighten/darken on bitmaps using PorterDuffXfermode in the Android Paint class

  - by user1116836

  Ok my orignal question has changed. How do i change the intensity of how something like this is effected? DayToNight.setXfermode(new PorterDuffXfermode(Mode.DST_IN)); in my dream world it would have worked like this DayToNight.setXfermode(new PorterDuffXfermode(Mode.DST_IN(10))); the 10 being a level of intensity. An example would be if I had a flickering candle, when the candle burns bright I want the bitmaps I am drawing to the screen to retain their origanol color and brightness, when it flickers I want the bitmaps to be almost blacked out, and I want to darken the Bitmaps as the light dims. I have equations, timers and all that figured out, just not how to actually apply it to change the color/brightness. Maybe burning the images is what im looking for? I just want to change the lightness lol. I feel like using paint.setShader might be a solution, but the information in this area is pretty limited from what i have been able to find. Any help would be appreciated. edit: to be crystal clear, i am looking for a way to lighten/darken bitmaps as I draw them to the canvas

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• MySQL table doesn't update, can't find the error message

  - by mobius1ski

  My knowledge level here is like zilch, but please bear with me. I have a site built in PHP/MySQL that uses the Smarty template engine. There's a registration form that, for some reason, isn't posting the data to the DB. Here's the function: $u = new H_User; $u->setFrom($p); $smarty->assign('user', $u); $val = $u->validate(); if ($val === true) { $temp = new H_User; $temp->orderBy('user_id desc'); $temp->find(true); $next_id = $temp->user_id + 1; $u->user_id = $next_id; $u->user_password = md5($p['user_password']); $u->user_regdate = mktime(); $u->user_active = 0; $u->insert(); $hash = md5($u->user_email . $u->user_regdate); $smarty->assign('hash', $hash); $smarty->assign('user', $u); $smarty->assign('registration_complete', true); $d = new H_Demographic; $d->setFrom($p); $d->insert(); How can I figure out what's wrong here? I don't get any PHP errors and I don't know how to get MySQL to display the errors that might indicate what's wrong with that syntax.

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• two view controllers and reusability with delegate

  - by netcharmer

  Newbie question about design patterns in objC. I'm writing a functionality for my iphone app which I plan to use in other apps too. The functionality is written over two classes - Viewcontroller1 and Viewcontroller2. Viewcontroller1 is the root view of a navigation controller and it can push Viewcontroller2. Rest of the app will use only ViewController1 and will never access Viewcontroller2 directly. However, triggered by user events, Viewcontroller2 has to send a message to the rest of the app. My question is what is the best way of achieving it? Currently, I use two level of delegation to send the message out from Viewcontroller2. First send it to Viewcontroller1 and then let Viewcontroller1 send it to rest of the app or the application delegate. So my code looks like - //Viewcontroller1.h @protocol bellDelegate -(int)bellRang:(int)size; @end @interface Viewcontroller1 : UITableViewController <dummydelegate> { id <bellDelegate> delegate; @end //Viewcontroller1.m @implementation Viewcontroller1 -(void)viewDidLoad { //some stuff here Viewcontroller2 *vc2 = [[Viewcontroller2 alloc] init]; vc2.delegate = self; [self.navigationController pushViewController:vc2 animated:YES]; } -(int)dummyBell:(int)size { return([self.delegate bellRang:size]); } //Viewcontroller2.h @protocol dummyDelegate -(int)dummyBell:(int)size; @end @interface Viewcontroller2 : UITableViewController { id <dummyDelegate> delegate; @end //Viewcontroller2.m @implementation Viewcontroller2 -(int)eventFoo:(int)size { rval = [self.delegate dummyBell:size]; } @end

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• Struts2 Value Stack

  - by vipul12389

  I want to understand Struts 2 value stack vs request scope. I want the struts2 value stack to work same as request scope. for e.g. i have invoked action1 in struts 2, the action performs some db task and gets back. it performs some operation on a object called cases (type Cases, where Cases is bean class with getters and setters). cases object is declared at class level. action1 led a view to be rendered say jsp1. jsp1 again has some action called as action2. action2 leads to the same java file as of action1 but has different method. Now, i want to access the object which was used in action1. during action1 cases was pushed to Value Stack and was accessed on jsp1. I simply tried accessing its getter methods, but it returns a null value....!! any solution on how to do ??? or is it possible ?? i know if its possible then what is the difference between vs and request scope...

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• Conceptual data modeling: Is RDF the right tool? Other solutions?

  - by paprika

  I'm planning a system that combines various data sources and lets users do simple queries on these. A part of the system needs to act as an abstraction layer that knows all connected data sources: the user shouldn't [need to] know about the underlying data "providers". A data provider could be anything: a relational DBMS, a bug tracking system, ..., a weather station. They are hooked up to the query system through a common API that defines how to "offer" data. The type of queries a certain data provider understands is given by its "offer" (e.g. I know these entities, I can give you aggregates of type X for relationship Y, ...). My concern right now is the unification of the data: the various data providers need to agree on a common vocabulary (e.g. the name of the entity "customer" could vary across different systems). Thus, defining a high level representation of the entities and their relationships is required. So far I have the following requirements: I need to be able to define objects and their properties/attributes. Further, arbitrary relations between these objects need to be represented: a verb that defines the nature of the relation (e.g. "knows"), the multiplicity (e.g. 1:n) and the direction/navigability of the relation. It occurs to me that RDF is a viable option, but is it "the right tool" for this job? What other solutions/frameworks do exist for semantic data modeling that have a machine readable representation and why are they better suited for this task? I'm grateful for every opinion and pointer to helpful resources.

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• How can I save a file on an http server using just http requests and javascript?

  - by user170902

  hi all, I'm trying to understand some of the basics of web servers/html/javasacript etc. I'm not interested in any of the various frameworks like php/asp, i'm just trying to get a low level look at things (for now). At the moment I'm trying to understand how data can be sent to/saved on the backend, but i must admit that i'm getting a bit lost under the various specs/technical stuff on w3 at the moment! If I have some data, say xml, that I want to save on the backend how do I go about it? I assume that I would have to use something like an HTTP PUT or POST Request to an html doc that contains some javascript that in turn would process the data, e.g. save it somewhere. Now from googling around I can see that this doesn't seem to be the case, so my assumptions are completely wrong! So how is it done? Can it be done, or do I have to use something like php or asp? TIA. bg

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