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  • php - correct search expression for bbpress

    - by billn
    I have a very purdy styled search box in my wordpress install, and looking for continuity I want the same for my bbpress forum - currently I'm failing. For WP I have: <div id="search"> <form action="<?php bloginfo('home') ?>" method="get"> <div class="hiddenFields"></div> <p><input name="s" id="s" maxlength="100" size="18" /><input class="submit" id="submit-button" type="submit" value="submit" /></p></form> </div> For bbPress The form 'method="get"' gets kicked out and of-course I need another expression. bbpress generally seems to use: <div class="search"><?php search_form(); ?></div> This wrecks everything - I get no styling attributes at all other than position... I can make it look fine (and consistent) with by removing the - but then it's obviously just a dummy with no search - any ideas to fix the latter? Thanks <div id="search"> <div class="hiddenFields"></div> <p><input name="s" id="s" maxlength="100" size="18" /><input class="submit" id="submit-button" type="submit" value="submit" /></p> </div>

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  • Problem with interface implementation in partial classes.

    - by Bas
    I have a question regarding a problem with L2S, Autogenerated DataContext and the use of Partial Classes. I have abstracted my datacontext and for every table I use, I'm implementing a class with an interface. In the code below you can see I have the Interface and two partial classes. The first class is just there to make sure the class in the auto-generated datacontext inherets Interface. The other autogenerated class makes sure the method from Interface is implemented. namespace PartialProject.objects { public interface Interface { Interface Instance { get; } } //To make sure the autogenerated code inherits Interface public partial class Class : Interface { } //This is autogenerated public partial class Class { public Class Instance { get { return this.Instance; } } } } Now my problem is that the method implemented in the autogenerated class gives the following error: - Property 'Instance' cannot implement property from interface 'PartialProject.objects.Interface'. Type should be 'PartialProjects.objects.Interface'. <- Any idea how this error can be resolved? Keep in mind that I can't edit anything in the autogenerated code. Thanks in advance!

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  • Spring factory beans not always initialised before being used.

    - by aos
    Hi, I am using spring to initialise my beans. I have configured a bean which I intend to use as a factory bean. <bean id="jsServicesFactory" class="x.y.z.JSServicesFactory" /> It is a very basic class - which has 4 getter methods. One example is public final PortletRegistry getPortletRegistry() { PortletRegistry registry = (PortletRegistry) JetspeedPortletServices .getSingleton().getService("PortletRegistryComponent"); return registry; } I have a 2nd bean which uses this factory beans to set one of its properties <bean id="batchManagerService" class="x.y.z.BatchManagerService"> ... <property name="portletRegistry"> <bean factory-bean="jsServicesFactory" factory-method="getPortletRegistry" /> </property> ... When I start my server in RAD, this all works perfectly. However when I deploy to Linux I sometimes get the following error ERROR org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoader - Context initialization failed org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name 'batchManagerService' defined in ServletContext resource [/WEB-INF/context/root/batchManagerContext.xml]: Cannot create inner bean 'jsServicesFactory$created#70be70be' while setting bean property 'portletRegistry'; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name 'jsServicesFactory$created#70be70be' defined in ServletContext resource [/WEB-INF/context/root/batchManagerContext.xml]: Instantiation of bean failed; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanDefinitionStoreException: Factory method [public final org.apache.jetspeed.components.portletregistry.PortletRegistry x.y.z.JSServicesFactory.getPortletRegistry()] threw exception; nested exception is java.lang.NullPointerException I have tried adding depends-on="jsServicesFactory" to my bean batchManagerService but it didn't work. Any ideas? Thanks

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  • How to remove view from window?

    - by Wayfarer
    I am using Cocos2D for my main framework. In some cases, I want Cocos2D to load a nib file and have that be the view: window = [[UIWindow alloc] initWithFrame:[[UIScreen mainScreen] bounds]]; TargetPlayerViewController *myController = [[TargetPlayerViewController alloc]initWithNibName:@"TargetPlayerViewController" bundle:nil]; [window addSubview:[myController view]]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; This works as expected, and shows the TargetPlayerViewController. Wonderful! What I need to know is: once that view has been loaded, how can I have the view remove itself? I've tried a few different ways, but all of them result in the program crashing. To test I have a button on the view set up which triggers this method: - (IBAction)GTFOnow:(id)sender { NSLog(@"GFTO"); window = [[UIWindow alloc] initWithFrame:[[UIScreen mainScreen] bounds]]; //[self.view removeFromSuperview]; //[window makeKeyAndVisible]; } In this method the view should remove itself from the view so I can go back to the Cocos2D. How do I do this?

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  • using jquery growl with php/mysql

    - by jeansymolanza
    on my database i am planning to create a table storing messages to alert users of anything they need to do. i am looking at using a jQuery growl like notification method but im confused at how i would begin building it. the data would be added into the database using the standard MYSQL insert method from a form but how would i select messages from the database to display using the jQuery growl. would this require the use of ajax? this is the javascript code i have so far, i was wondering how i would implement the php code alongside it so that i can pull out data from my tables to display as notifications: <script type="text/javascript"> // In case you don't have firebug... if (!window.console || !console.firebug) { var names = ["log", "debug", "info", "warn", "error", "assert", "dir", "dirxml", "group", "groupEnd", "time", "timeEnd", "count", "trace", "profile", "profileEnd"]; window.console = {}; for (var i = 0; i < names.length; ++i) window.console[names[i]] = function() {}; } (function($){ $(document).ready(function(){ // This specifies how many messages can be pooled out at any given time. // If there are more notifications raised then the pool, the others are // placed into queue and rendered after the other have disapeared. $.jGrowl.defaults.pool = 5; var i = 1; var y = 1; setInterval( function() { if ( i < 3 ) { $.jGrowl("Message " + i, { sticky: true, log: function() { console.log("Creating message " + i + "..."); }, beforeOpen: function() { console.log("Rendering message " + y + "..."); y++; } }); } i++; } , 1000 ); }); })(jQuery); </script> <p> thanking you in advance and God bless

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  • how can i insert a new sitemap with google gdata api? it returns 400 bad request

    - by wingoo
    i try to insert a new sitemap to google using api, but i can't do it successful-_- this is the method var fullDomainUrl = "http://www.example.com/"; var entry = new SitemapsEntry(); entry.Id = new AtomId(fullDomainUrl + "sitemap.xml"); entry.Categories.Add(new AtomCategory("http://schemas.google.com/webmasters/tools/2007#site-info", new AtomUri("http://schemas.google.com/g/2005#kind"))); entry.SitemapType = "WEB"; myService.Insert(new Uri(string.Format("https://www.google.com/webmasters/tools/feeds/{0}/sitemaps/", HttpUtility.UrlEncode(fullDomainUrl))), entry); this will retuen a 400 bad requestand i try another method var settings = new RequestSettings("TesterApp1", domain.GoogleAuthToken, CommonService.GetRsaPrivateKey(Context)); var request = new WebmasterToolsRequest(settings); var sitemap = new Sitemap(); sitemap.Id = fullDomainUrl + "sitemap.xml"; sitemap.Categories.Add(new AtomCategory("http://schemas.google.com/webmasters/tools/2007#site-info", new AtomUri("http://schemas.google.com/g/2005#kind"))); sitemap.SitemapType = "WEB"; //request.AddSitemap(fullDomainUrl, sitemap); request.Insert(new Uri(string.Format("https://www.google.com/webmasters/tools/feeds/{0}/sitemaps/", HttpUtility.UrlEncode(fullDomainUrl))), sitemap); this also return a 400 bad request and then i try to use HttpWebRequest to post the atom to google,but it also return a 400 bad request(???") i can insert/update site successful,but can;t insert a new sitemap.. does any can give a right code with .net?

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  • validation control unable to find its control to validate

    - by nat
    i have a repeater that is bound to a number of custom dataitems/types on the itemdatabound event for the repeater the code calls a renderedit function that depending on the custom datatype will render a custom control. it will also (if validation flag is set) render a validation control for the appropriate rendered edit control the edit control overrides the CreateChildControls() method for the custom control adding a number of literalControls thus protected override void CreateChildControls() { //other bits removed - but it is this 'hidden' control i am trying to validate this.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl(string.Format( "<input type=\"text\" name=\"{0}\" id=\"{0}\" value=\"{1}\" style=\"display:none;\" \">" , this.UniqueID , this.MediaId.ToString()) )); //some other bits removed } the validation control is rendered like this: where the passed in editcontrol is the control instance of which the above createchildcontrols is a method of.. public override Control RenderValidationControl(Control editControl) { Control ctrl = new PlaceHolder(); RequiredFieldValidator req = new RequiredFieldValidator(); req.ID = editControl.ClientID + "_validator"; req.ControlToValidate = editControl.UniqueID; req.Display = ValidatorDisplay.Dynamic; req.InitialValue = "0"; req.ErrorMessage = this.Caption + " cannot be blank"; ctrl.Controls.Add(req); return ctrl; } the problem is, altho the validation controls .ControlToValidate property is set to the uniqueid of the editcontrol. when i hit the page i get the following error: Unable to find control id 'FieldRepeater$ctl01$ctl00' referenced by the 'ControlToValidate' property of 'FieldRepeater_ctl01_ctl00_validator'. i have tried changing the literal in the createchildcontrols to a new TextBox(), and then set the id etc then, but i get a similar problem. can anyone enlighten me? is this because of the order the controls are rendered in? ie the validation control is written before the editcontrol? or... anyhow any help much appreciated thanks nat

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  • Is there a disassembler + debugger for java (ala OllyDbg / SoftICE for assembler)?

    - by Ran Biron
    Is there a utility similar to OllyDbg / SoftICE for java? I.e. execute class (from jar / with class path) and, without source code, show the disassembly of the intermediate code with ability to step through / step over / search for references / edit specific intermediate code in memory / apply edit to file... If not, is it even possible to write something like this (assuming we're willing to live without hotspot for the debug duration)? Edit: I'm not talking about JAD or JD or Cavaj. These are fine decompilers, but I don't want a decompiler for several reasons, most notable is that their output is incorrect (at best, sometimes just plain wrong). I'm not looking for a magical "compiled bytes to java code" - I want to see the actual bytes that are about to be executed. Also, I'd like the ability to change those bytes (just like in an assembly debugger) and, hopefully, write the changed part back to the class file. Edit2: I know javap exists - but it does only one way (and without any sort of analysis). Example (code taken from the vmspec documentation): From java code, we use "javac" to compile this: void setIt(int value) { i = value; } int getIt() { return i; } to a java .class file. Using javap -c I can get this output: Method void setIt(int) 0 aload_0 1 iload_1 2 putfield #4 5 return Method int getIt() 0 aload_0 1 getfield #4 4 ireturn This is OK for the disassembly part (not really good without analysis - "field #4 is Example.i"), but I can't find the two other "tools": A debugger that goes over the instructions themselves (with stack, memory dumps, etc), allowing me to examine the actual code and environment. A way to reverse the process - edit the disassembled code and recreate the .class file (with the edited code).

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  • String Comparison containing hyphens not matching

    - by Christo Fur
    I have a method in a url rewriting module that looks like this public bool Match(Uri url) { string x = url.PathAndQuery.ToLowerInvariant(); string y = RuleData.ToLowerInvariant(); return x.Contains(y); } However, it is not returning true for the following values: x = "/xx09-02-09xx"; y = "09-02-09"; but if I write a unit test with the raw strings, like below, it does return true [Test] public void Contains() { string x = "/xx09-02-09xx"; string y = "09-02-09"; Assert.IsTrue(x.Contains(y)); // this returns true } What could be the difference? The encoding? The culture? Have tried removing the ToLowerInvarient(), but that makes no difference have tried all the following in the Match method bool contains = x.Contains(y); bool contains1 = x.IndexOf(y) != -1; bool contains2 = x.IndexOf(y, StringComparison.OrdinalIgnoreCase) != -1; bool contains3 = x.IndexOf(y, StringComparison.InvariantCultureIgnoreCase) != -1; bool contains4 = x.IndexOf(y, StringComparison.CurrentCultureIgnoreCase) != -1; but none return true for those values, when run in the rewrite module. But they do in the unit test. So something about the strings is clearly different any ideas?

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  • target-action uicontrolevents

    - by Fabrizio Farinelli
    I must be missing something obvious here but ... UIControl has a method - (void)addTarget:(id)target action:(SEL)action forControlEvents: (UIControlEvents)controlEvents which lets you add an action to be called when any of the given controlEvents occur. ControlEvents are a bitmask of events which tell you if a touch went down, or up inside, or was dragged etc., there's about 16 of them, you or them together and get called when any of them occur. The selector can have one of the following signatures - (void)action - (void)action:(id)sender - (void)action:(id)sender forEvent:(UIEvent *) none of those tell you what the control event bitmask was. The UIEvent is something slightly different, it's related to the actual touch event and doesn't (I think) contain the UIControlEvent. The sender (UIControl) doesn't have a way to find the control events either. I'd like to have one method which deals with a number of control events as I have some common code regardless of which event or events happened but I still need to know what the UIControlEvents were for some specific processing. Am I missing a way to find out what UIControlEvents were used when the action was called or do I really have to separate my code into -(void)actionWithUIControlEventX; -(void)actionWithUIControlEventY;

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  • C# Using Enumerable Range and Except with custom class to determine missing sequence number

    - by Jon
    I have a List<MyClass> The class is like this: private class MyClass { public string Name{ get; set; } public int SequenceNumber { get; set; } } I want to work out what Sequence numbers might be missing. I can see how to do this here however because this is a class I am unsure what to do? I think I can handle the except method ok with my own IComparer but the Range method I can't figure out because it only excepts int so this doesn't compile: Enumerable.Range(0, 1000000).Except(chqList, MyEqualityComparer<MyClass>); Here is the IComparer: public class MyEqualityComparer<T> : IEqualityComparer<T> where T : MyClass { #region IEqualityComparer<T> Members public bool Equals(T x, T y) { return (x == null && y == null) || (x != null && y != null && x.SequenceNumber.Equals(y.SequenceNumber)); } /// </exception> public int GetHashCode(T obj) { if (obj == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("obj"); } return obj.GetHashCode(); } #endregion }

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  • MVC design question for forms

    - by kenny99
    Hi, I'm developing an app which has a large amount of related form data to be handled. I'm using a MVC structure and all of the related data is represented in my models, along with the handling of data validation from form submissions. I'm looking for some advice on a good way to approach laying out my controllers - basically I will have a huge form which will be broken down into manageable categories (similar to a credit card app) where the user progresses through each stage/category filling out the answers. All of these form categories are related to the main relation/object, but not to each other. Does it make more sense to have each subform/category as a method in the main controller class (which will make that one controller fairly massive), or would it be better to break each category into a subclass of the main controller? It may be just for neatness that the second approach is better, but I'm struggling to see much of a difference between either creating a new method for each category (which communicates with the model and outputs errors/success) or creating a new controller to handle the same functionality. Thanks in advance for any guidance!

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  • JQuery Post-Request question - FF doesn't get the result of the referenced php page

    - by OlliD
    Dear community, I just want to have my question posted here but just from the beginning: For a personal web project I use PHP + JQuery. Now I got stuck when I try to use the ajax posting method to send data to another php-page. I planned to have some navigational elements like next + previous on the bottom of the page by saving the user input / user given data. The code looks as follows: <div id="bottom_nav"> <div id="prev" class="flt_l"><a href="?&step=<?= $pages[$step-1] ?>">next</a></div> <div id="next" class="flt_r"><a href="?&step=<?= $pages[$step+1] ?>">previous</a></div> </div> The functionality of the page works fine. Lateron, I use the following code to sent data over via POST: $("#bottom_nav a").click( function() { alert("POST-Link: Parameter=" + $("#Parameter").val()); $.ajax( { type:"post", url:"saveParameter.php", data:"Parameter=" + $("#Parameter").val(), success: function(result) { alert(result); //$("#test").text(result); } }); }); The request itself work perfectly on IE, but on FF I'm not able to get back any result. within the PHP page, there just written: <? echo $_POST['Parameter']; ?> As IE returns the correct value, FF just provide an empty message box. I assumed that the behaviour on the -Link is different. While IE seems to handle the click event after the JS-Code execution, FF will interpret it before. My question was whether you has a solution on this regarding restructuring the code itself or using another method to reach the intened behaviour. Thanks for your assistance and recommendations, Olli

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  • find(:all) and then add data from another table to the object

    - by Koning Baard XIV
    I have two tables: create_table "friendships", :force => true do |t| t.integer "user1_id" t.integer "user2_id" t.boolean "hasaccepted" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" end and create_table "users", :force => true do |t| t.string "email" t.string "password" t.string "phone" t.boolean "gender" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" t.string "firstname" t.string "lastname" t.date "birthday" end I need to show the user a list of Friendrequests, so I use this method in my controller: def getfriendrequests respond_to do |format| case params[:id] when "to_me" @friendrequests = Friendship.find(:all, :conditions => { :user2_id => session[:user], :hasaccepted => false }) when "from_me" @friendrequests = Friendship.find(:all, :conditions => { :user1_id => session[:user], :hasaccepted => false }) end format.xml { render :xml => @friendrequests } format.json { render :json => @friendrequests } end end I do nearly everything using AJAX, so to fetch the First and Last name of the user with UID user2_id (the to_me param comes later, don't worry right now), I need a for loop which make multiple AJAX calls. This sucks and costs much bandwidth. So I'd rather like that getfriendrequests also returns the First and Last name of the corresponding users, so, e.g. the JSON response would not be: [ { "friendship": { "created_at": "2010-02-19T13:51:31Z", "user1_id": 2, "updated_at": "2010-02-19T13:51:31Z", "hasaccepted": false, "id": 11, "user2_id": 3 } }, { "friendship": { "created_at": "2010-02-19T16:31:23Z", "user1_id": 2, "updated_at": "2010-02-19T16:31:23Z", "hasaccepted": false, "id": 12, "user2_id": 4 } } ] but rather: [ { "friendship": { "created_at": "2010-02-19T13:51:31Z", "user1_id": 2, "updated_at": "2010-02-19T13:51:31Z", "hasaccepted": false, "id": 11, "user2_id": 3, "firstname": "Jon", "lastname": "Skeet" } }, { "friendship": { "created_at": "2010-02-19T16:31:23Z", "user1_id": 2, "updated_at": "2010-02-19T16:31:23Z", "hasaccepted": false, "id": 12, "user2_id": 4, "firstname": "Mark", "lastname": "Gravell" } } ] I thought of a for loop in the getfriendrequests method, but I don't know how to implement this, and maybe there is an easier way. It must also work for XML. Can anyone help me? Thanks

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  • Can a function return an object? Objective-C and NSMutableArray

    - by seaworthy
    I have an NSMutableArray. It's members eventually become members of an array instance in a class. I want to put the instantiantion of NSMutable into a function and to return an array object. If I can do this, I can make some of my code easier to read. Is this possible? Here is what I am trying to figure out. //Definition: > function Objects (float a, float b) { > NSMutableArray *array = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; > [array addObject:[NSNumber numberWithFloat:a]]; > [array addObject:[NSNumber numberWithFloat:b]]; > //[release array]; ???????? return array; > } //Declaration: Math *operator = [[Math alloc] init]; [operator findSum:Objects(20.0,30.0)]; My code compiles if I instantiate NSMutableArray right before I send the message to the receiver. I know I can have an array argument along with the method. What I have problem seeing is how to use a function and to replace the argument with a function call. Any help is appreciated. I am interested in the concept not in suggestions to replace the findSum method.

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  • Drawing to the canvas

    - by Mattl
    I'm writing an android application that draws directly to the canvas on the onDraw event of a View. I'm drawing something that involves drawing each pixel individually, for this I use something like: for (int x = 0; x < xMax; x++) { for (int y = 0; y < yMax; y++){ MyColour = CalculateMyPoint(x, y); canvas.drawPoint(x, y, MyColour); } } The problem here is that this takes a long time to paint as the CalculateMyPoint routine is quite an expensive method. Is there a more efficient way of painting to the canvas, for example should I draw to a bitmap and then paint the whole bitmap to the canvas on the onDraw event? Or maybe evaluate my colours and fill in an array that the onDraw method can use to paint the canvas? Users of my application will be able to change parameters that affect the drawing on the canvas. This is incredibly slow at the moment.

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  • Saving twice don't update my object in JDO

    - by Javi
    Hello I have an object persisted in the GAE datastore using JDO. The object looks like this: public class MyObject implements Serializable, StoreCallback { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) @Extension(vendorName="datanucleus", key="gae.encoded-pk", value="true") private String id; @Persistent private String firstId; ... } As usually when the object is stored for the first time a new id value is generated for the identifier. I need that if I don't provide a value for firstId it sets the same value as the id. I don't want to solve it with a special getter which checks for null value in firstId and then return the id value because I want to make queries relating on firstId. I can do it in this way by saving the object twice (Probably there's a better way to do this, but I'll do it in this way until I find a better one). But it is not working. when I debug it I can see that result.firstId is set with the id value and it seems to be persisted, but when I go into the datastore I see that firstId is null (as it was saved the first time). This save method is in my DAO and it is called in another save method in the service annotated with @Transactional. Does anyone have any idea why the second object in not persisted properly? @Override public MyObject save(MyObject obj) { PersistenceManager pm = JDOHelper.getPersistenceManagerFactory("transactions-optional"); MyObject result = pm.makePersistent(obj); if(result.getFirstId() == null){ result.setFirstId(result.getId()); result = pm.makePersistent(result); } return result; } Thanks.

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  • how to pass values from one page to another on jquery form submit

    - by andy787899
    I'm trying to build a form using php & jquery, but I'm a little confused as to what to do with the jquery portion of it... Basically, when the user submits the first form, I want to direct them to the "next step" form, but I want to retain the values submitted from the first one in a hidden input field... If someone can either show me how or point me to a good tutorial, I'd appreciate it... I don't have any of the php or jquery yet, and this is just a simplified version of the html markup... //first.php <form name="form1" method="post" action="second.php"> <input type="text" name="name" value="" />Name <input type="submit" name="step1" value="Next" /> </form> //second.php <form name="form2" method="post" action="process.php"> <input type="hidden" name="name" value="{$_POST['name']}" /> <input type="text" name="message" value="" />message <input type="submit" name="step2" value="Finish" /> </form>

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  • how to pass values from one page to another on jquery form submit

    - by andy787899
    I'm trying to build a form using php & jquery, but I'm a little confused as to what to do with the jquery portion of it... Basically, when the user submits the first form, I want to direct them to the "next step" form, but I want to retain the values submitted from the first one in a hidden input field... If someone can either show me how or point me to a good tutorial, I'd appreciate it... I don't have any of the php or jquery yet, and this is just a simplified version of the html markup... //first.php <form name="form1" method="post" action="second.php"> <input type="text" name="name" value="" />Name <input type="submit" name="step1" value="Next" /> </form> //second.php <form name="form2" method="post" action="process.php"> <input type="hidden" name="name" value="{$_POST['name']}" /> <input type="text" name="message" value="" />message <input type="submit" name="step2" value="Finish" /> </form>

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  • JavaScript keeps returning ambigious error

    - by Erx_VB.NExT.Coder
    this is my function (with other lines ive tried/abandoned)... function DoClicked(eNumber) { //obj.style = 'bgcolor: maroon'; var eid = 'cat' + eNumber; //$get(obj).style.backgroundColor = 'maroon'; //var nObj = $get(obj); var nObj = document.getElementById(eid) //alert(nObj.getAttribute("style")); nObj.style.backgroundColor = 'Maroon'; alert(nObj.style.backgroundColor); //nObj.setAttribute("style", "backgroundcolor: Maroon"); }; This error keeps getting returned even after the last line in the function runs: Microsoft JScript runtime error: Sys.ArgumentUndefinedException: Value cannot be undefined. Parameter name: method this function is called with an "OnSuccess" set in my Ajax.ActionLink call (ASP.NET MVC)... anyone any ideas on this? i have these referenced... even when i remove the 'debug' versions for normal versions, i still get an error but the error just has much less information and says 'b' is undefined (probably a ms js library internal variable)... <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftAjax.debug.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftMvcValidation.debug.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftMvcAjax.debug.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/jquery-1.4.1.js" type="text/javascript"></script> also, this is how i am calling the actionlink method: Ajax.ActionLink(item.CategoryName, "SubCategoryList", "Home", New With {.CategoryID = item.CategoryID}, New AjaxOptions With {.UpdateTargetId = "SubCat", .HttpMethod = "Post", .OnSuccess = "DoClicked(" & item.CategoryID.ToString & ")"}, New With {.id = "cat" & item.CategoryID.ToString})

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  • EC2 SSH access from fedora

    - by Randika Rathugama
    I'm trying to connect to existing instance of EC2 with a new PEM. But I get this error when I try to connect. Here is what I did so far. I created the PEM on EC2 and saved it to ~/.ssh/my-fedora.pem and ran this command; is there anything else I should do? [randika@localhost ~]$ ssh -v -i ~/.ssh/my-fedora.pem [email protected] OpenSSH_5.3p1, OpenSSL 1.0.0-fips-beta4 10 Nov 2009 debug1: Reading configuration data /etc/ssh/ssh_config debug1: Applying options for * debug1: Connecting to ec2-xx-xxx-xxx-xx.compute-1.amazonaws.com [xx-xx-xx-xx] port 22. debug1: Connection established. debug1: identity file /home/randika/.ssh/saberion-fedora.pem type -1 debug1: Remote protocol version 2.0, remote software version OpenSSH_4.7 debug1: match: OpenSSH_4.7 pat OpenSSH_4* debug1: Enabling compatibility mode for protocol 2.0 debug1: Local version string SSH-2.0-OpenSSH_5.3 debug1: SSH2_MSG_KEXINIT sent debug1: SSH2_MSG_KEXINIT received debug1: kex: server->client aes128-ctr hmac-md5 none debug1: kex: client->server aes128-ctr hmac-md5 none debug1: SSH2_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_REQUEST(1024<1024<8192) sent debug1: expecting SSH2_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_GROUP debug1: SSH2_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_INIT sent debug1: expecting SSH2_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_REPLY debug1: Host 'ec2-xx-xxx-xxx-xx.compute-1.amazonaws.com' is known and matches the RSA host key. debug1: Found key in /home/randika/.ssh/known_hosts:5 debug1: ssh_rsa_verify: signature correct debug1: SSH2_MSG_NEWKEYS sent debug1: expecting SSH2_MSG_NEWKEYS debug1: SSH2_MSG_NEWKEYS received debug1: SSH2_MSG_SERVICE_REQUEST sent debug1: SSH2_MSG_SERVICE_ACCEPT received debug1: Authentications that can continue: publickey,gssapi-with-mic debug1: Next authentication method: gssapi-with-mic debug1: Unspecified GSS failure. Minor code may provide more information Credentials cache file '/tmp/krb5cc_500' not found debug1: Unspecified GSS failure. Minor code may provide more information Credentials cache file '/tmp/krb5cc_500' not found debug1: Unspecified GSS failure. Minor code may provide more information debug1: Next authentication method: publickey debug1: Offering public key: [email protected] debug1: Authentications that can continue: publickey,gssapi-with-mic debug1: Offering public key: [email protected] debug1: Authentications that can continue: publickey,gssapi-with-mic debug1: Trying private key: /home/randika/.ssh/saberion-fedora.pem debug1: read PEM private key done: type RSA debug1: Authentications that can continue: publickey,gssapi-with-mic debug1: No more authentication methods to try. Permission denied (publickey,gssapi-with-mic).

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  • CascadingDropDown taking two parameters...

    - by WeeShian
    I have a page with 3 dropdownlist, 2nd and 3rd dropdownlist are added with CascadingDropDown. 3rd dropdownlist will take parameters from 1st and 2nd dropdownlist. So, in current example for CascadingDropDown i have found from google, they are only passing one parameter to the WebService method. How can pass two parameters to the service method, so that my 3rd dropdownlist will based on the SelectedValue of 1st and 2nd dropdownlist? <WebMethod()> _ Public Function GetTeams(ByVal knownCategoryValues As String, ByVal category As String) As CascadingDropDownNameValue() Dim strConnection As String = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings("nerdlinessConnection").ConnectionString Dim sqlConn As SqlConnection = New SqlConnection(strConnection) Dim strTeamQuery As String = "SELECT * FROM TEAM WHERE conf_id = @confid" Dim cmdFetchTeam As SqlCommand = New SqlCommand(strTeamQuery, sqlConn) Dim dtrTeam As SqlDataReader Dim kvTeam As StringDictionary = CascadingDropDown.ParseKnownCategoryValuesString(knownCategoryValues) Dim intConfId As Integer If Not kvTeam.ContainsKey("Conference") Or Not Int32.TryParse(kvTeam("Conference"), intConfId) Then Return Nothing End If cmdFetchTeam.Parameters.AddWithValue("@confid", intConfId) Dim myTeams As New List(Of CascadingDropDownNameValue) sqlConn.Open() dtrTeam = cmdFetchTeam.ExecuteReader While dtrTeam.Read() Dim strTeamName As String = dtrTeam("team_name").ToString Dim strTeamId As String = dtrTeam("team_id").ToString myTeams.Add(New CascadingDropDownNameValue(strTeamName, strTeamId)) End While Return myTeams.ToArray End Function This is the sample code i found! As you can see in the code, '@confid' will be passed from 2nd dropdownlist! So, hw do i modify this code to get the selected value from 1st dropdownlist as well??

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  • Spring 2.5 managed servlets: howto?

    - by EugeneP
    Correct me if anything is wrong. As I understand, all Spring functionality, namely DI works when beans are got thru Spring Context, ie getBean() method. Otherwise, none can work, even if my method is marked @Transactional and I will create the owning class with a new operator, no transaction management will be provided. I use Tomcat 6 as a servlet container. So, my question is: how to make Servlet methods managed by Spring framework. The issue here is that I use a framework, and its servlets extend the functionality of basic java Servlets, so they have more methods. Still, web.xml is present in an app as usual. The thing is that I do not control the servlets creation flow, I can only override a few methods of each servlet, the flow is basically written down in some xml file, but I control this process using a graphical gui. So, basically, I only add some code to a few methods of each Servlet. How to make those methods managed by Spring framework? The basic thing I need to do is making these methods transactional (@Transactional).

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  • What's the best way to read a UDT from a database with Java?

    - by Lukas Eder
    I thought I knew everything about UDTs and JDBC until someone on SO pointed out some details of the Javadoc of java.sql.SQLInput and java.sql.SQLData JavaDoc to me. The essence of that hint was (from SQLInput): An input stream that contains a stream of values representing an instance of an SQL structured type or an SQL distinct type. This interface, used only for custom mapping, is used by the driver behind the scenes, and a programmer never directly invokes SQLInput methods. This is quite the opposite of what I am used to do (which is also used and stable in productive systems, when used with the Oracle JDBC driver): Implement SQLData and provide this implementation in a custom mapping to ResultSet.getObject(int index, Map mapping) The JDBC driver will then call-back on my custom type using the SQLData.readSQL(SQLInput stream, String typeName) method. I implement this method and read each field from the SQLInput stream. In the end, getObject() will return a correctly initialised instance of my SQLData implementation holding all data from the UDT. To me, this seems like the perfect way to implement such a custom mapping. Good reasons for going this way: I can use the standard API, instead of using vendor-specific classes such as oracle.sql.STRUCT, etc. I can generate source code from my UDTs, with appropriate getters/setters and other properties My questions: What do you think about my approach, implementing SQLData? Is it viable, even if the Javadoc states otherwise? What other ways of reading UDT's in Java do you know of? E.g. what does Spring do? what does Hibernate do? What does JPA do? What do you do? Addendum: UDT support and integration with stored procedures is one of the major features of jOOQ. jOOQ aims at hiding the more complex "JDBC facts" from client code, without hiding the underlying database architecture. If you have similar questions like the above, jOOQ might provide an answer to you.

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  • In asp.Net, writing code in the control tag generates compile error

    - by Nour Sabouny
    Hi this is really strange !! But look at the following asp code: <div runat="server" id="MainDiv"> <%foreach (string str in new string[]{"First#", "Second#"}) { %> <div id="<%=str.Replace("#","div") %>"> </div> <%} %> </div> now if you put this code inside any web page (and don't worry about the moral of this code, I made it just to show the idea) you'll get this error : Compiler Error Message: CS1518: Expected class, delegate, enum, interface, or struct Of course the error has nothing to do with the real problem, I searched for the code that was generated by asp.net and figured out the following : private void @__RenderMainDiv(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriter @__w, System.Web.UI.Control parameterContainer) { @__w.Write("\r\n "); #line 20 "blabla\blabla\Default.aspx" foreach (string str in new string[] { "First#", "Second#" }) { #line default #line hidden @__w.Write("\r\n <div id=\""); #line 22 "blabla\blabla\Default.aspx" @__w.Write(str.Replace("#", "div")); #line default #line hidden @__w.Write("\">\r\n "); } This is the code that was generated from the asp page and this is the method that is meant to render our div (MainDiv), I found out that there is a missing bracket "}" that closes the method or the (for loop). now the problem has three parts: 1- first you should have a server control (in our situation is the MainDiv) and I'm not sure if it is only the div tag. 2- HTML control inside the server control and a code inside it using the double quotation mark ( for example <div id="<%=str instead of <div id='<%=str. 3-Any keyword which has block brackets e.g.:for{},while{},using{}...etc. now removing any part, will solve the problem !!! how is this happening ?? any ideas ? BTW: please help me to make the question more obvious, because I couldn't find the best words to describe the problem.

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