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• retrieve events where uid is the creator and application id is the admin - Facebook API

  - by Anup Parekh

  I would like to know if there is a Facebook API call to retrieve the events (eids) for all the events a user has created using my facebook connect application. The events are created using the following REST api call: https://api.facebook.com/method/events.create?event_info=' . $e_i . '&access_token=' . $cookie['access_token'] $e_i is the event info array where the 'host' value is set to 'Me' as follows $event_info['host'] = 'Me'; On Facebook events under the "Created by:" section it lists "My user name,Application Name", I presume this is because I am the creator and the application is the admin as stated in the REST api documentation http://developers.facebook.com/docs/reference/rest/events.create/ Unfortunately I cannot seem to find out how (neither REST nor GPRAPH API) to return a list of events where I am the creator and the application is the admin as in the above scenario. If this is possible I would really appreciate some assistance with how it is done. So far I have tried: REST API events.get using uid=application_id. This only returns events created by the application not those including the user who created them GRAPH API https://graph.facebook.com/me/events?fields=owner&access_token=... this returns all the events for 'me' but not where the application is also the admin. It seems strange that there's no reference to the linkage between the event creator and the event admin through the API but in Facebook it is able to pull both and display them on the event details.

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• Asp.net MVC error with custom HttpModule

  - by Robert Koritnik

  I have a custom authentication HttpModule that is pretty strait forward. But I want it to run only for managed requests (and not for static ones). Asp.net MVC automatically adds configuration section for IIS7 web server: <system.webServer> <validation validateIntegratedModeConfiguration="false" /> <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="true"> <remove name="ScriptModule" /> <remove name="UrlRoutingModule" /> <add name="ScriptModule" preCondition="managedHandler" type="System.Web.Handlers.ScriptModule,..." /> <add name="UrlRoutingModule" type="System.Web.Routing.UrlRoutingModule,..." /> </modules> <handlers> ... </handlers> </system.webServer> When I add my own module I also set its preCondition="managedHandler", but since there's runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="true" on parent <module> element my preCondition is ignored by design (as I read on MSDN). When I try to set though: <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="false"> I get this error: [image no longer valid] What else (which other module) do I have to set in web.config to make it work with this setting: <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="false">

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• accessing object variables in javascript

  - by user1452370

  So, I just started javascript and everything was working fine till i came to objects. This peace of code is supposed to create a bouncing ball in a html canvas with javascript but it doesn't work. var canvas = document.getElementById("myCanvas"); var ctx = canvas.getContext("2d"); //clear function clear() { ctx.clearRect(0, 0, canvas.width, canvas.height); } here is my ball object //ball var ball = { x: canvas.width / 2, getX: function() { return x; }, setX: function(a) { x = a; }, y: canvas.height / 2, getY: function() { return y; }, setY: function(a) { y = a; }, mx: 2, getMx: function() { return mx; }, my: 4, getMy: function() { return my; }, r: 10, getR: function() { return r; } }; code to draw my ball function drawBall() { ctx.beginPath(); ctx.arc(ball.getX, ball.getY, ball.getR, 0, Math.PI * 2, true); ctx.fillStyle = "#83F52C"; ctx.fill(); } function circle(x, y, r) { ctx.beginPath(); ctx.arc(x, y, r, 0, Math.PI * 2, true); ctx.fillStyle = "#83F52C"; ctx.fill(); } //draws ball and updates x,y cords function draw() { clear(); drawBall(); if (ball.getX() + ball.getMx() >= canvas.width || ball.getX()+ ball.getMx() <= 0) { ball.setMx(-ball.getMx()); } if (ball.getY() + ball.getMy() >= canvas.height|| ball.getY()+ ball.getMy() <= 0) { ball.setMy(-ball.getMy()); } ball.setX(ball.getX() + ball.getMx()); ball.setY(ball.getY() + ball.getMy()); } set interval function init() { return setInterval(draw, 10); } init();

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• How do you clear a CustomValidator Error on a Button click event?

  - by George

  I have a composite User control for entering dates: The CustomValidator will include server sided validation code. I would like the error message to be cleared via client sided script if the user alters teh date value in any way. To do this, I included the following code to hook up the two drop downs and the year text box to the validation control: <script type="text/javascript"> ValidatorHookupControlID("<%= ddlMonth.ClientID%>", document.getElementById("<%= CustomValidator1.ClientID%>")); ValidatorHookupControlID("<%= ddlDate.ClientID%>", document.getElementById("<%= CustomValidator1.ClientID%>")); ValidatorHookupControlID("<%= txtYear.ClientID%>", document.getElementById("<%= CustomValidator1.ClientID%>")); </script> However, I would also like the Validation error to be cleared when the user clicks the clear button. When the user clicks the Clear button, the other 3 controls are reset. To avoid a Post back, the Clear button is a regular HTML button with an OnClick event that resets the 3 controls. Unfortunately, the ValidatorHookupControlID method does not seem to work on HTML controls, so I thought to change the HTML Button to an ASP button and to Hookup to that control instead. However, I cannot seem to eliminate the Postback functionality associated by default with the ASP button control. I tried to set the UseSubmitBehavior to False, but it still submits. I tried to return false in my btnClear_OnClick client code, but the code sent to the browser included a DoPostback call after my call. btnClear.Attributes.Add("onClick", "btnClear_OnClick();") Instead of adding OnClick code, I tried overwriting it, but the DoPostBack code was still included in the final code that was sent to the browser. What do I have to do to get the Clear button to clear the CustomValidator error when clicked and avoid a postback? btnClear.Attributes.Item("onClick") = "btnClear_OnClick();"

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• How can i Execute a Controller's ActionMethod programatically?

  - by Pure.Krome

  Hi folks, I'm trying to execute a controller's Action Method programatically and I'm not sure how. Scenario: When my ControllerFactory fails to find the controller, I wish it to manually execute a single action method which i have on a simple, custom controller. I don't want to rely on using any route data to determine the controller/method .. because that route might not have been wired up. Eg. // NOTE: Error handling removed from this example. public class MyControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { protected override IController GetControllerInstance(Type controllerType) { IController result = null; // Try and load the controller, based on the controllerType argument. // ... snip // Did we retrieve a controller? if (controller == null) { result = new MyCustomController(); ((MyCustomController)result).Execute404NotFound(); // <-- HERE! } return result; } } .. and that method is .. public static void Execute404NotFound(this Controller controller) { result = new 404NotFound(); // Setup any ViewData.Model stuff. result.ExecuteResult(controller.ControllerContext); // <-- RUNTIME // ERROR's HERE } Now, when I run the controller factory fails to find a controller, i then manually create my own basic controller. I then call the extension method 'Execute404NotFound' on this controller instance. That's fine .. until it runs the ExecuteResult(..) method. Why? the controller has no ControllerContext data. As such, the ExecuteResult crashes because it requires some ControllerContext. So - can someone out there help me? see what I'm doing wrong. Remember - i'm trying to get my controller factory to manually / programmatically call a method on a controller which of course would return an ActionResult. Please help!

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• handling java exception

  - by Noona

  This questions is related to java exception, why are there some cases that when an exception thrown the program exits even though the exception was caught and there was no exit() statement? my code looks something like this void bindProxySocket(DefaultHttpClientConnection proxyConnection, String hostName, HttpParams params) { if (!proxyConnection.isOpen()) { Socket socket = null; try { socket = new Socket(hostName, 80); } catch (UnknownHostException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } try { proxyConnection.bind(socket, params); } catch(IOException e) { System.err.println ("couldn't bind socket"); e.printStackTrace(); } } } and then I call this method like this: bindProxySocket(proxyConn, hostName, params1); but, the program exits, although I want to handle the exception by doing something else, can it be because I didn't enclose the method call within a try catch clause? what happens if I catch the exception again even though it's already in the method? and what should I do if i want to clean resources only if an exception occurs and otherwise I want to continue with the program? I am guessing in this case I have to include the whole piece of code until I can clean the resources with in a try statement or can I do it in the handle exception statement? some of these questions are on this specific case, but I would like to get a thorough answer to all my questions for future reference. thanks

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• WMI Query Script as a Job

  - by Kenneth

  I have two scripts. One calls the other with a list of servers as parameters. The second query is designed to execute a WMI query. When I run it manually, it does this perfectly. When I try to run it as a job it hangs forever and I have to remove it. For the sake of space here is the relevant part of the calling script: ProcessServers.ps1 Start-Job -FilePath .\GetServerDetailsLight.ps1 -ArgumentList $sqlsrv,$destdb,$server,$instance GetServerDetailsLight.ps1 param($sqlsrv,$destdb,$server,$instance) $password = get-content C:\SQLPS\auth.txt | convertto-securestring $credentials = new-object -typename System.Management.Automation.PSCredential -argumentlist "DOMAIN\MYUSER",$password [System.Reflection.Assembly]::LoadWithPartialName('Microsoft.SqlServer.SMO') $box_id = 0; if ($sqlsrv.length -eq 0) { write-output "No data passed" break } function getinfo { param( [string]$svr, [string]$inst ) "Entered GetInfo with: $svr,$inst" $cs = get-wmiobject win32_operatingsystem -computername $svr -credential $credentials -authentication 6 -Verbose -Debug | select Name, Model, Manufacturer, Description, DNSHostName, Domain, DomainRole, PartOfDomain, NumberOfProcessors, SystemType, TotalPhysicalMemory, UserName, Workgroup write-output "WMI Results: $cs" } getinfo $server $instance write-output "Complete" Executed as a job it will show as 'running' forever: PS C:\sqlps> Start-Job -FilePath .\GetServerDetailsLight.ps1 -ArgumentList DBSERVER,LOGDB,SERVER01,SERVER01 Id Name State HasMoreData Location Command -- ---- ----- ----------- -------- ------- 21 Job21 Running True localhost param($sqlsrv,$destdb,... GAC Version Location --- ------- -------- True v2.0.50727 C:\WINDOWS\assembly\GAC_MSIL\Microsoft.SqlServer.Smo\10.0.0.0__89845dcd8080cc91\Microsoft.SqlServer.Smo.dll getinfo MSDCHR01 MSDCHR01 Entered GetInfo with: SERVER01,SERVER01 The last output I ever get is the 'Entered GetInfo with: SERVER01,SERVER01'. If I run it manually like so: PS C:\sqlps> .\GetServerDetailsLight.ps1 DBSERVER LOGDB SERVER01 SERVER01 The WMI query executes just as expected. I am trying to determine why this is, or at least a useful way to trap errors from within jobs. Thanks!

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• Bootstrapper (setup.exe) says ".NET 3.5 not found" but launching .msi directly installs application

  - by Marek

  Our installer generates a bootstrapper (setup.exe) and a MSI file - a pretty common scenario. One of the production machines reports a strange problem during install: If the user launches the bootstrapper (setup.exe), it reports that .NET 3.5 is not installed. This happens with account under administator group. No matter if they launch it as administrator or not, same behavior. the application installs fine when application.msi or OurInstallLauncher.exe (see below for explanation) is started directly no matter if run as administrator is applied. We have checked that .NET is installed on the machine (both 64bit and 32bit "versions" = under both C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework64 and C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework there is a folder named v3.5. This happens on a 64 bit Windows 7. I can not reproduce it on my development 64 bit Windows 7. On Windows XP and Vista, it has worked without any problem for a long time so far. Part of our build script that declares the GenerateBootStrapper task (nothing special): <ItemGroup> <BootstrapperFile Include="Microsoft.Windows.Installer.3.1"> <ProductName>Microsoft Windows Installer 3.1</ProductName> </BootstrapperFile> <BootstrapperFile Include="Microsoft.Net.Framework.3.5"> <ProductName>Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5</ProductName> </BootstrapperFile> </ItemGroup> <GenerateBootstrapper ApplicationFile=".\Files\OurInstallLauncher.exe" ApplicationName="App name" Culture="en" ComponentsLocation ="HomeSite" CopyComponents="True" Validate="True" BootstrapperItems="@(BootstrapperFile)" OutputPath="$(OutSubDir)" Path="$(SdkBootstrapperPath)" /> Note: OurInstallLauncher.exe is language selector that applies a transform to the msi based on user selection. This is not relevant to the question at all because the installer never gets as far as launching this exe! It displays that .NET 3.5 is missing right after starting setup.exe. Has anyone seen this behavior before?

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• Restrict access to connection pool in Weblogic?

  - by Andrew White

  In short, how can I restrict access to connection pool X based on application name or JAR name? A simple use case might help... A business web-app (call it WEB_APP_A) uses pool Y to do basic look-up SQL. Some users of this web-app have access to also update some sensitive data in the database. This code is provided by a JAR file (call it HR_JAR) that can be dropped in where needed. This JAR uses pool X for all of it's connections. We don't want developers of WEB_APP_A using pool X. We only want HR_JAR using pool X. This is to keep devs of WEB_APP_A from accidentally or intentionally abusing the access pool X provides. Some considerations: This is legacy code so HR_JAR is here to stay We are running on Weblogic 9.2 We can not keep passwords in any from in the source code We have researched weblogic user level authn/authz for JDBC resources but then this begs the question; how do we secure the user creds we use to become a user per app/jar? Ideas? Thoughts? I can elaborate more on what I have tried, but I wanted fresh ideas.

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• Help me understand entity framework 4 caching for lazy loading

  - by Chris

  I am getting some unexpected behaviour with entity framework 4.0 and I am hoping someone can help me understand this. I am using the northwind database for the purposes of this question. I am also using the default code generator (not poco or self tracking). I am expecting that anytime I query the context for the framework to only make a round trip if I have not already fetched those objects. I do get this behaviour if I turn off lazy loading. Currently in my application I am breifly turning on lazy loading and then turning it back off so I can get the desired behaviour. That pretty much sucks, so please help. Here is a good code example that can demonstrate my problem. Public Sub ManyRoundTrips() context.ContextOptions.LazyLoadingEnabled = True Dim employees As List(Of Employee) = context.Employees.Execute(System.Data.Objects.MergeOption.AppendOnly).ToList() 'makes unnessesary round trip to the database, I just loaded the employees' MessageBox.Show(context.Employees.Where(Function(x) x.EmployeeID < 10).ToList().Count) context.Orders.Execute(System.Data.Objects.MergeOption.AppendOnly) For Each emp As Employee In employees 'makes unnessesary trip to database every time despite orders being pre loaded.' Dim i As Integer = emp.Orders.Count Next End Sub Public Sub OneRoundTrip() context.ContextOptions.LazyLoadingEnabled = True Dim employees As List(Of Employee) = context.Employees.Include("Orders").Execute(System.Data.Objects.MergeOption.AppendOnly).ToList() MessageBox.Show(employees.Where(Function(x) x.EmployeeID < 10).ToList().Count) For Each emp As Employee In employees Dim i As Integer = emp.Orders.Count Next End Sub Why is the first block of code making unnessesary round trips?

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• TimeoutException when WCF Host and Client are in the same process

  - by Pharao2k

  I've ran into a really weird problem. I am building a heavily distributed application where each app instance can either be a Host and/or Client to a WCF-Service (very p2p-like). Everything works fine, as long as the Client and the targeted Host (By which I mean the app, not the Host, since currently everything runs on a single computer (so no Firewall problems etc.)) are NOT the same. IF they are the same, then the app hangs for exactly 1 Minute and then throws a TimeoutException. WCF-Logging did not produce anything helpful. Here is a small app which demonstrates the Problem: public partial class MainWindow : Window { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { var binding = new NetTcpBinding(); var baseAddress = new Uri(@"net.tcp://localhost:4000/Test"); ServiceHost host = new ServiceHost(typeof(TestService), baseAddress); host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(ITestService), binding, baseAddress); var debug = host.Description.Behaviors.Find<ServiceDebugBehavior>(); if (debug == null) host.Description.Behaviors.Add(new ServiceDebugBehavior { IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults = true }); else debug.IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults = true; host.Open(); var clientBinding = new NetTcpBinding(); var testProxy = new TestProxy(clientBinding, new EndpointAddress(baseAddress)); testProxy.Test(); } } [ServiceContract] public interface ITestService { [OperationContract] void Test(); } public class TestService : ITestService { public void Test() { MessageBox.Show("foo"); } } public class TestProxy : ClientBase<ITestService>, ITestService { public TestProxy(NetTcpBinding binding, EndpointAddress remoteAddress) : base(binding, remoteAddress) { } public void Test() { Channel.Test(); } } What am I doing wrong? Regards, Pharao2k

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• Jquery Date Picker: Append Start Date to End Date and display dates in the future only.

  - by Tim

  Hello, I am using Jquery Date pickers to get Start and End Dates for an application I am building. I have two datepickers, one for a start date and one for an end date. When someone clicks a date in the start date picker I need that date to be appended automatically to the end date picker. I also need the end date picker to select future dates only from the date that has been appended to it. There are two demos on the jquery datepicker site that do what I want, but I am unsure how to combine them to both do what I want. Example One: This example shows how you can tie two date pickers together so that the date selected in one influences the dates that can be selected in the other $(function() { $('.date-pick').datePicker() $('#start-date').bind( 'dpClosed', function(e, selectedDates) { var d = selectedDates[0]; if (d) { d = new Date(d); $('#end-date').dpSetStartDate(d.addDays(1).asString()); } } ); $('#end-date').bind( 'dpClosed', function(e, selectedDates) { var d = selectedDates[0]; if (d) { d = new Date(d); $('#start-date').dpSetEndDate(d.addDays(-1).asString()); } } ); }); Example Two: An example showing inline date pickers which are linked together and trigger behaviour in each other... $(function() { $('#date-view1') .datePicker({inline:true}) .bind( 'dateSelected', function(e, selectedDate, $td) { $('#date1').val(selectedDate.asString()); $('#date-view2, #date-view3').dpSetSelected(selectedDate.addDays(3).asString()); } ); $('#date-view2') .datePicker({inline:true}) .bind( 'dateSelected', function(e, selectedDate, $td) { $('#date2').val(selectedDate.asString()); } ); $('#date-view3').datePicker(); $('#form-check') .bind( 'click', function() { alert('date1=' + $('#date1').val() + '\n' + 'date2=' + $('#date2').val()); } ); }); I have tried many combinations of the codes listed above, but I have not been able to get the desired results. Thanks for all your help, Tim

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• Customize a WCF RIA Services Endpoint

  - by Andrew Garrison

  Is it possible to customize the parameters of a WCF RIA Services endpoint? Specifically, I would like to create a custom binding for the endpoint and increase the maxReceivedMessageSize to allow sending the contents of a file that is a few megabytes in size. I've tried meddling in the web.config, but I'm getting the following error: [InvalidOperationException]: The contract name MyNamespace.MyService could not be found in the list of contracts implemented by the service MyNamespace.MyService web.config <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <customBinding> <binding name="CustomBinaryHttpBinding"> <binaryMessageEncoding /> <httpTransport maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647" maxBufferSize="2147483647" /> </binding> </customBinding> </bindings> <services> <service name="MyNamespace.MyService"> <endpoint address="" binding="wsHttpBinding" contract="MyNamespace.MyService" /> <endpoint address="/binary" binding="customBinding" bindingConfiguration="CustomBinaryHttpBinding" contract="MyNamespace.MyService" /> </service> </services> <serviceHostingEnvironment aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true" multipleSiteBindingsEnabled="true" /> </system.serviceModel>

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• Multiple database with NHibernate

  - by Flint

  Hi, I have two databases. One from Oracle 10g. Another from Mysql. I have configured my web application with Nhibernate for Oracle and now I am in need of using the MySQL database. So how can i configure the hibernate.cfg.xml so that i can use both of the database at the same application? My current hibernate.cfg.xml is: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-configuration xmlns="urn:nhibernate-configuration-2.2"> <session-factory> <property name="connection.provider">NHibernate.Connection.DriverConnectionProvider</property> <property name="connection.driver_class">NHibernate.Driver.OracleClientDriver</property> <property name="connection.connection_string">Data Source=xe;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=hr;Password=hr;Unicode=True</property> <property name="show_sql">false</property> <property name="dialect">NHibernate.Dialect.Oracle9Dialect</property> <!-- mapping files --> <mapping assembly="DataTransfer" /> </session-factory> </hibernate-configuration>

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• find(:all) and then add data from another table to the object

  - by Koning Baard XIV

  I have two tables: create_table "friendships", :force => true do |t| t.integer "user1_id" t.integer "user2_id" t.boolean "hasaccepted" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" end and create_table "users", :force => true do |t| t.string "email" t.string "password" t.string "phone" t.boolean "gender" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" t.string "firstname" t.string "lastname" t.date "birthday" end I need to show the user a list of Friendrequests, so I use this method in my controller: def getfriendrequests respond_to do |format| case params[:id] when "to_me" @friendrequests = Friendship.find(:all, :conditions => { :user2_id => session[:user], :hasaccepted => false }) when "from_me" @friendrequests = Friendship.find(:all, :conditions => { :user1_id => session[:user], :hasaccepted => false }) end format.xml { render :xml => @friendrequests } format.json { render :json => @friendrequests } end end I do nearly everything using AJAX, so to fetch the First and Last name of the user with UID user2_id (the to_me param comes later, don't worry right now), I need a for loop which make multiple AJAX calls. This sucks and costs much bandwidth. So I'd rather like that getfriendrequests also returns the First and Last name of the corresponding users, so, e.g. the JSON response would not be: [ { "friendship": { "created_at": "2010-02-19T13:51:31Z", "user1_id": 2, "updated_at": "2010-02-19T13:51:31Z", "hasaccepted": false, "id": 11, "user2_id": 3 } }, { "friendship": { "created_at": "2010-02-19T16:31:23Z", "user1_id": 2, "updated_at": "2010-02-19T16:31:23Z", "hasaccepted": false, "id": 12, "user2_id": 4 } } ] but rather: [ { "friendship": { "created_at": "2010-02-19T13:51:31Z", "user1_id": 2, "updated_at": "2010-02-19T13:51:31Z", "hasaccepted": false, "id": 11, "user2_id": 3, "firstname": "Jon", "lastname": "Skeet" } }, { "friendship": { "created_at": "2010-02-19T16:31:23Z", "user1_id": 2, "updated_at": "2010-02-19T16:31:23Z", "hasaccepted": false, "id": 12, "user2_id": 4, "firstname": "Mark", "lastname": "Gravell" } } ] I thought of a for loop in the getfriendrequests method, but I don't know how to implement this, and maybe there is an easier way. It must also work for XML. Can anyone help me? Thanks

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• How can I improve this design?

  - by klausbyskov

  Let's assume that our system can perform actions, and that an action requires some parameters to do its work. I have defined the following base class for all actions (simplified for your reading pleasure): public abstract class BaseBusinessAction<TActionParameters> : where TActionParameters : IActionParameters { protected BaseBusinessAction(TActionParameters actionParameters) { if (actionParameters == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("actionParameters"); this.Parameters = actionParameters; if (!ParametersAreValid()) throw new ArgumentException("Valid parameters must be supplied", "actionParameters"); } protected TActionParameters Parameters { get; private set; } protected abstract bool ParametersAreValid(); public void CommonMethod() { ... } } Only a concrete implementation of BaseBusinessAction knows how to validate that the parameters passed to it are valid, and therefore the ParametersAreValid is an abstract function. However, I want the base class constructor to enforce that the parameters passed are always valid, so I've added a call to ParametersAreValid to the constructor and I throw an exception when the function returns false. So far so good, right? Well, no. Code analysis is telling me to "not call overridable methods in constructors" which actually makes a lot of sense because when the base class's constructor is called the child class's constructor has not yet been called, and therefore the ParametersAreValid method may not have access to some critical member variable that the child class's constructor would set. So the question is this: How do I improve this design? Do I add a Func<bool, TActionParameters> parameter to the base class constructor? If I did: public class MyAction<MyParameters> { public MyAction(MyParameters actionParameters, bool something) : base(actionParameters, ValidateIt) { this.something = something; } private bool something; public static bool ValidateIt() { return something; } } This would work because ValidateIt is static, but I don't know... Is there a better way? Comments are very welcome.

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• How do I get multimonth plugin of the jQuery datePicker to load with certain dates already selected?

  - by imHavoc

  well im using this script right here: http://www.kelvinluck.com/assets/jquery/datePicker/v2/demo/ and I have a multiMonth plugin and multiple select enabled. I want to be able to on load have certain dates already selected and those dates come from a database I found two possible clues to help me out, but since I have not strictly learned JS yet, I can not made heads or tails. http://www.kelvinluck.com/assets/jquery/datePicker/v2/demo/renderCalendarBankHolidays.html http://www.kelvinluck.com/assets/jquery/datePicker/v2/demo/datePickerDefaultToday.html here's the code right now im using: <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> jQuery(function() { jQuery('#multimonth').datePickerMultiMonth({ numMonths: 12, inline: true, selectMultiple: true, startDate: '01/09/2009', // DD/MM/YY month: 8, // 0=JAN 1=FEB ... year: 2009 }).bind( 'dpMonthChanged', function(event, displayedMonth, displayedYear) { //uncomment if you have firebug and want to confirm this works as expected... //console.log('dpMonthChanged', arguments); }).bind( 'dateSelected', function(event, date, jQuerytd, status) { //uncomment if you have firebug and want to confirm this works as expected... //console.log('dateSelected', arguments); }).val( new Date().asString()).trigger('change'); jQuery('#getSelected').bind( 'click', function(e) { alert(jQuery('#multimonth').dpmmGetSelected()); return false; }); }); </script> and this part is not being selected, I took it from the select todays date demo .val(new Date().asString()).trigger('change');

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• What is the best way to automatically transpose a LilyPond source file into multiple keys?

  - by Michael Steele

  problem I'm using LilyPond to typeset sheet music for a church choir to perform. Depending on who is available on any given week, songs will be played in various keys. We have an amazing pianist who can play anything we throw at her and the guitarists will typically pencil in alternate chords, but I want to make things easier by having beautifully typeset sheet music available in any key we want. So say we're going to sing our ABCs. First I'll take whatever source transcriptions available and enter it into a LilyPond script: melody = \relative c' { c c g g a a g2 f f e e d d c2 } I want the ability to transpose this automatically, so if I want the whole thing in 'G' I wrap the song in a \transpose call like so: melody = \transpose c g \relative c' { c c g g a a g2 f f e e d d c2 } What I really want is to substitute something for the 'g' and generate the output for melody multiple times. Simple LilyPond variables don't seem to work here, and so far I've been unsuccessful in defining a scheme function to do this. What I've resorted to for the moment is taking the above file, call it twinkle.ly and turning it into an M4 script called twinkle.ly.m4, the contents of which look like this: melody = \transpose c _key \relative c' { c c g g a a g2 f f e e d d c2 } I then compile the while thing by executing the following line: > m4 -D _key=g twinkle.ly.m4 > twinkle_g.ly && lilypond twinkle_g.ly I've written a Makefile to do this for me, defining rules for every song I have and every key I'm interested in. question There's got to be a better way of going about this. Given that Lilypond supports embedded scheme, I would prefer to not use a macro preprocessed on it. Has anybody else come up with a solution to this same problem?

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• Why is it assumed that send may return with less than requested data transmitted on a blocking socke

  - by Ernelli

  The standard method to send data on a stream socket has always been to call send with a chunk of data to write, check the return value to see if all data was sent and then keep calling send again until the whole message has been accepted. For example this is a simple example of a common scheme: int send_all(int sock, unsigned char *buffer, int len) { int nsent; while(len 0) { nsent = send(sock, buffer, len, 0); if(nsent == -1) // error return -1; buffer += nsent; len -= nsent; } return 0; // ok, all data sent } Even the BSD manpage mentions that ...If no messages space is available at the socket to hold the message to be transmitted, then send() normally blocks... Which indicates that we should assume that send may return without sending all data. Now I find this rather broken but even W. Richard Stevens assumes this in his standard reference book about network programming, not in the beginning chapters, but the more advanced examples uses his own writen (write all data) function instead of calling write. Now I consider this still to be more or less broken, since if send is not able to transmit all data or accept the data in the underlying buffer and the socket is blocking, then send should block and return when the whole send request has been accepted. I mean, in the code example above, what will happen if send returns with less data sent is that it will be called right again with a new request. What has changed since last call? At max a few hundred CPU cycles have passed so the buffer is still full. If send now accepts the data why could'nt it accept it before? Otherwise we will end upp with an inefficient loop where we are trying to send data on a socket that cannot accept data and keep trying, or else? So it seems like the workaround, if needed, results in heavily inefficient code and in those circumstances blocking sockets should be avoided at all an non blocking sockets together with select should be used instead.

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• Flash as3 smooth threshold

  - by arkzai

  hello, I'm building a flash app that pulls images from flickr and removes the white background I'm dong this using threshold and i get a really ragged outcome is there any way to get a better and smoother color key? thanks photoNumber = Math.floor(Math.random() * (photos.length)); loader.load(new URLRequest(photos[photoNumber].path)); loader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE,draw); trace ( "trying to load photo " + photoNumber ); function draw(e:Event) { trace ("show photo " + photoNumber) var W:int=e.target.content.width; var H:int=e.target.content.height; bitmapdata=new BitmapData(W,H); bitmap=new Bitmap(bitmapdata); bitmapdata.draw(e.target.content); var threshold:uint = 0xF9F8F800; var color:uint = 0x00000000; var maskColor:uint = 0x00FF0000; bitmapdata.threshold(bitmapdata,new Rectangle(0,0,W,H),new Point(0,0),">", threshold, color, maskColor, true); bitmap.smoothing = true; //bitmap.scaleX = bitmap.scaleY = 0.99; // <---- imgHolder.addChild(bitmap); } }

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• Buttons OnClick Event not firing when it causes a textboxes onChange event to fire first

  - by user48408

  I have a few textboxes and button to save their values on a webpage. The onchange event of the textboxes fires some js which adds the changed text to a js array. The ok button when clicked flushes this to the database via a webservice. This works fine except when the onchange event is caused by clicking the ok button. In this scenario the onchange of the textboxes still fires but the onClick event of the button does not. Any ideas? textboxes look something like <input name="ctrlJPView$tbcTabContainer$Details$JP_Details_Address2Text" type="text" value="test" id="ctrlJPView_tbcTabContainer_Details_JP_Details_Address2Text" onchange="addSaveDetails('Jobs###' + document.getElementById('ctrlJPView_tbcTabContainer_Details_JP_Details_Address2Text').value + ');" style="font-size:8pt;Left:110px;Top:29px;Width:420px;Height:13px;Position:absolute;" /> My save button <input type="button" name="ctrlJPView$btnOk" value="OK" onclick="saveAmendments();refreshJobGrids();return false;__doPostBack('ctrlJPView$btnOk','')" id="ctrlJPView_btnOk" class="ControlText" style="width:60px;" /> UPDATE: I guess this comes down to one of two things. 1) Something is happening before the onClick of the button gets called to surpress that call such as an inadvertent return false; or 2) the onClick event isn't firing at all. Now I've rem'd out everything actually inside the functions that are being called beforehand but the problem persists. But if i remove the call altogether it works (???)

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• instantiate python object within a c function called via ctypes

  - by gwk

  My embedded Python 3.3 program segfaults when I instantiate python objects from a c function called by ctypes. After setting up the interpreter, I can successfully instantiate a python Int (as well as a custom c extension type) from c main: #import <Python/Python.h> #define LOGPY(x) \ { fprintf(stderr, "%s: ", #x); PyObject_Print((PyObject*)(x), stderr, 0); fputc('\n', stderr); } // c function to be called from python script via ctypes. void instantiate() { PyObject* instance = PyObject_CallObject((PyObject*)&PyLong_Type, NULL); LOGPY(instance); } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { Py_Initialize(); instantiate(); // works fine // run a script that calls instantiate() via ctypes. FILE* scriptFile = fopen("emb.py", "r"); if (!scriptFile) { fprintf(stderr, "ERROR: cannot open script file\n"); return 1; } PyRun_SimpleFileEx(scriptFile, scriptPath, 1); // close on completion return 0; } I then run a python script using PyRun_SimpleFileEx. It appears to run just fine, but when it calls instantiate() via ctypes, the program segfaults inside PyObject_CallObject: import ctypes as ct dy = ct.CDLL('./emb') dy.instantiate() # segfaults lldb output: instance: 0 Process 52068 stopped * thread #1: tid = 0x1c03, 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69, stop reason = EXC_BAD_ACCESS (code=1, address=0x18) frame #0: 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69 Python`PyObject_Call + 69: -> 0x10000d3f5: movl 24(%rax), %edx 0x10000d3f8: incl %edx 0x10000d3fa: movl %edx, 24(%rax) 0x10000d3fd: leaq 2069148(%rip), %rax ; _Py_CheckRecursionLimit (lldb) bt * thread #1: tid = 0x1c03, 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69, stop reason = EXC_BAD_ACCESS (code=1, address=0x18) frame #0: 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69 frame #1: 0x00000001000d5197 Python`PyEval_CallObjectWithKeywords + 87 frame #2: 0x0000000201100d8e emb`instantiate + 30 at emb.c:9 Why does the call to instantiate() fail from ctypes only? The function only crashes when it calls into the python lib, so perhaps some interpreter state is getting munged by the ctypes FFI call?

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• Using Build Manager Class to Load ASPX Files and Populate its Controls

  - by Sandhurst

  I am using BuildManager Class to Load a dynamically generated ASPX File, please note that it does not have a corresponding .cs file. Using Following code I am able to load the aspx file, I am even able to loop through the control collection of the dynamically created aspx file, but when I am assigning values to controls they are not showing it up. for example if I am binding the value "Dummy" to TextBox control of the aspx page, the textbox remains empty. Here's the code that I am using protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { LoadPage("~/Demo.aspx"); } public static void LoadPage(string pagePath) { // get the compiled type of referenced path Type type = BuildManager.GetCompiledType(pagePath); // if type is null, could not determine page type if (type == null) throw new ApplicationException("Page " + pagePath + " not found"); // cast page object (could also cast an interface instance as well) // in this example, ASP220Page is a custom base page System.Web.UI.Page pageView = (System.Web.UI.Page)Activator.CreateInstance(type); // call page title pageView.Title = "Dynamically loaded page..."; // call custom property of ASP220Page //pageView.InternalControls.Add( // new LiteralControl("Served dynamically...")); // process the request with updated object ((IHttpHandler)pageView).ProcessRequest(HttpContext.Current); LoadDataInDynamicPage(pageView); } private static void LoadDataInDynamicPage(Page prvPage) { foreach (Control ctrl in prvPage.Controls) { //Find Form Control if (ctrl.ID != null) { if (ctrl.ID.Equals("form1")) { AllFormsClass cls = new AllFormsClass(); DataSet ds = cls.GetConditionalData("1"); foreach (Control ctr in ctrl.Controls) { if (ctr is TextBox) { if (ctr.ID.Contains("_M")) { TextBox drpControl = (TextBox)ctr; drpControl.Text = ds.Tables[0].Rows[0][ctr.ID].ToString(); } else if (ctr.ID.Contains("_O")) { TextBox drpControl = (TextBox)ctr; drpControl.Text = ds.Tables[1].Rows[0][ctr.ID].ToString(); } } } } } } }

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• Linq to SQL generates StackOverflowException in tight Insert loop

  - by ChrisW

  I'm parsing an XML file and inserting the rows into a table (and related tables) using LinqToSQL. I parse the XML file using LinqToXml into IEnumerable. Then, I create a foreach loop, where I build my LinqToSQL objects and call InsertOnSubmit and SubmitChanges at the end of each loop. Nothing special here. Usually, I make it through around 4,100 records before receiving a StackOverflowException from LinqToSql, right as I call SubmitChanges. It's not always on 4,100... sometimes it's 4102, sometimes, less, etc. I've tried inserting the records that generate the failure individually, but putting them in their own Xml file, but that inserts fine... so it's not the data. I'm running the whole process from an MVC2 app that is uploading the Xml file to the server. I've adjusted my WebRequest timeouts to appropriate values, and again, I'm not getting timeout errors, just StackOverflowExceptions. So is there some pattern that I should follow for times when I have to do many insertions into the database? I never encounter this exception on smaller Xml files, just larger ones.

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• Rails fields_for parameters for a has_many relation don't yield an Array in params

  - by user1289061

  I have a model Sensor with has_many and accepts_nested_attributes_for relationships to another model Watch. In a form to update a Sensor, I have something like the following <%= sensor_form.fields_for :watches do |watches_form| %> <%= watches_form.label :label %><br /> <%= watches_form.text_field :label %> <% end %> This is indended to allow editting of the already-created Watches belonging to a Sensor. This call spits form inputs as so: <input name="sensor[watches_attributes][0][label]" ... /> <input name="sensor[watches_attributes][0][id]" ... /> When this gets submitted, the params object in the Sensor controller gets an assoc like "sensor" => { "id"=>"1", "watches_attributes"=> { "0"=>{"id" => "1", "label" => "foo"}, "1"=>{"id" => "2", "label" => "bar"} } } For a has_many, accepts_nested_attributes_for update to work upon the @sensor.update_attributes call, it seems that that attributes key really must map to an Array. From what I've seen in the examples, the combination of has_many, accepts_nested_attributes_for, and sensor_form.fields_for should allow me to pass the resulting params object directly to @sensor.update_attributes and update each related object as intended. Instead the Sensor takes place, with no errors, but the Watch objects are not updated (since "watches_attributes" maps to a Hash instead of an Array?) Have I missed something?

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