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  • About local Final varibles in java

    - by Sathish
    In java Program, parameters which is defined as String in method declaration.But in method definition it is accessed as final String variable. Whether it'll lead to some issues (like security, memory problem)? For Example: Method Declaration join(String a,String b); Method definition public void join(final String a,final String b) { Authenticator au = new Authenticator(){ public PasswordAuthentication getPasswordAuthentication(){ return new PasswordAuthentication(a,b)} }; } Please help for me and clarify my doubts. Thanks in advance P.S. I;m accessing a and b as final variable because i've to use it in the inner class.

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  • Modify MySQL INSERT statement to omit the insertion of certain rows

    - by dave
    I'm trying to expand a little on a statement that I received help with last week. As you can see, I'm setting up a temporary table and inserting rows of student data from a recently administered test for a few dozen schools. When the rows are inserted, they are sorted by the score (totpct_stu, high to low) and the row_number is added, with 1 representing the highest score, etc. I've learned that there were some problems at school #9999 in SMITH's class (every student made a perfect score and they were the only students in the district to do so). So, I do not want to import SMITH's class. As you can see, I DELETED SMITH's class, but this messed up the row numbering for the remainder of student at the school (e.g., high score row_number is now 20, not 1). How can I modify the INSERT statement so as to not insert this class? Thanks! DROP TEMPORARY TABLE IF EXISTS avgpct ; CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE avgpct_1 ( sch_code VARCHAR(3), schabbrev VARCHAR(75), teachername VARCHAR(75), totpct_stu DECIMAL(5,1), row_number SMALLINT, dummy VARCHAR(75) ); -- ---------------------------------------- INSERT INTO avgpct SELECT sch_code , schabbrev , teachername , totpct_stu , @num := IF( @GROUP = schabbrev, @num + 1, 1 ) AS row_number , @GROUP := schabbrev AS dummy FROM sci_rpt WHERE grade = '05' AND totpct_stu >= 1 -- has a valid score ORDER BY sch_code, totpct_stu DESC ; -- --------------------------------------- -- select * from avgpct ; -- --------------------------------------- DELETE FROM avgpct_1 WHERE sch_code = '9999' AND teachername = 'SMITH' ;

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  • Visual Studio Debugger Voodoo

    - by LoveMeSomeCode
    Ok, maybe this isn't so amazing considering I don't really understand how the debugger works in the first place, let alone Edit and Continue, which is totally amazing. But I was wondering if anyone knew what the debugger is doing with variable declarations in this scenario. I can be debugging through my code, move the line of execution ahead - past a variables initial declaration and assignment, and the code still runs ok. If it's a value type it will have it's default value, for a ref type, null. So if I create a function that uses a variable before it's declared it won't compile, but if I use the debugger to run it that way it will still run without error. Why is this? And is this related to the fact that you can't put a breakpoint on a declaration?

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  • Saving Abstract and Sub classes to database

    - by bretddog
    Hi, I have an abstract class "StrategyBase", and a set of sub classes, StrategyA/B/C etc. The sub classes use some of the properties of the base class, and have some individual properties. My question is how to save this to a database. I'm currently using SqlCE, and Linq-To-Sql by creating entity classes automatically with SqlMetal.exe. I've seen there are three solutions shown in this question, but I'm not able to see how these solutions will work or not with SqlMetal/entity classes. Though it seems to me the "concrete table inheritance" would probably work without any manual modifying. What about the other two, would they be problematic? For "Single Table Inheritance" wouldn't all classes get all variables, even though they don't need them? And for the "Class table inheritance" solution I can't really see at all how that will map into the entity-classes for a useful purpose. I may note that I extend these partial entity classes for making the classes of my business objects. I may also consider moving to EntityFramework instead of SqlMetal/Linq2Sql, so would be nice also to know if that makes any difference to what schema is easy to implement. One likely important thing to note is that I will constantly be develop new strategies, which makes me have to modify the program code, and probably the database shcema; when adding a new strategy. Sorry the question is a bit "all over the place", but hopefully it's some clear advantages/disadvantages here that you may be able to advice. ? Cheers!

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  • jQuery.addClass not adding a class

    - by John Nolan
    Just why is my style not being applied in the jquery below. It aslo only adds the table in FireFox $.each(data.AdvisorPerformances, function(i) { $("#advisorPerfomance").append("<tr>" + "<td>" + data.AdvisorPerformances[i].Advisor + "</td>" + "<td>" + data.AdvisorPerformances[i].PackInCount + "</td>" + "<td>" + data.AdvisorPerformances[i].PacksInValue + "</td>" + "<td>" + data.AdvisorPerformances[i].PacksOutCount + "</td>" + "<td> " + data.AdvisorPerformances[i].PaymentsInCount + "</td>" + "<td>" + data.AdvisorPerformances[i].PaymentsInValue + "</td>" + "</tr>"); }); $("#advisorPerfomance").append("</table>"); $("#advisorPerfomance").addClass("NOTAPPLIEDSTYLE"); Also is there a better way to add a table?

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  • Copying a subset of data to an empty database with the same schema

    - by user193655
    I would like to export part of a database full of data to an empty database. Both databases has the same schema. I want to maintain referential integrity. To simplify my cases it is like this: MainTable has the following fields: 1) MainID integer PK 2) Description varchar(50) 3) ForeignKey integer FK to MainID of SecondaryTable SecondaryTable has the following fields: 4) MainID integer PK (referenced by (3)) 5) AnotherDescription varchar(50) The goal I'm trying to accomplish is "export all records from MainTable using a WHERE condition", for example all records where MainID < 100. To do it manually I shuold first export all data from SecondaryTable contained in this select: select * from SecondaryTable ST outer join PrimaryTable PT on ST.MainID=PT.MainID then export the needed records from MainTable: select * from MainTable where MainID < 100. This is manual, ok. Of course my case is much much much omre complex, I have 200+ tables, so donig it manually is painful/impossible, I have many cascading FKs. Is there a way to force the copy of main table only "enforcing referntial integrity". so that my query is something like: select * from MainTable where MainID < 100 WITH "COPYING ALL FK sources" In this cases also the field (5) will be copied. ====================================================== Is there a syntax or a tool to do this? Table per table I'd like to insert conditions (like MainID <100 is only for MainTable, but I have also other tables).

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  • Help with HTML hyperlink please

    - by liz
    Hello, Can someone help me with this problem: I have a table in a jsp page, with the text in one column being hyperlinks. Whenever anyone of these hyperlinks is clicked the whole table should refresh and repopulate based on the value of the hyperlink clicked. My problem is currently when the hyperlink is clicked the page refreshes with an empty table. I have the following line of HTML code for performing this in my jsp page: <TD><A href="http://localhost:8080/pmweb/gui.jsp" onclick="getResults(param)">hyperlinktext</A></TD>; Below is my getResults function in javascript in the same JSP page: <script type="text/javascript"> var httpRequest; function getResults(param) { var url = "http://localhost:8080/pmweb/api/GetResultsByParam?param=" + param; httpRequest = new XMLHttpRequest(); httpRequest.open("GET", url, true); httpRequest.onreadystatechange = function() {processRequest(); } ; httpRequest.send(null); } I have verified that the getResults function above is working fine itself. When I debugged it I noticed that this getResults function is not entered when the hyperlink is clicked. Anyone know how to get the hyperlink calling the javascript function properly? Thanks very much in advance!

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  • Pls help working with Dropdownlist in scroll window.

    - by Rahul
    Hi all, Data is stored in the database table with the field document type and document id. And displayed in the scrollwindow, scrollwindow is editable. Data displayed like this: In scrollwindow dropdown items are quote, order, invoice etc. And suppose for Quote type document id is QTE100, and for order is ORD100 etc. In this format data is displayed in the scrollwindow. Here my query is at run time when user change the document type say for Quote to Order warning message should display like “This range is not valid”. And since the scrollwindow editable when user select any new document type from dropdown list system should allow to add that new document type and should not display any message. Pls somebody help me how can I achieve this???pls………pls…......pls For this I have written this code in dropdown document change event. Document Type Site_Scroll Document Type_CHG: warning "The range entered isn't valid."; clear window 'Document Type Site_Scroll'; fill window 'Document Type Site_Scroll' table sop_site_line_temp; But whenever I am changing any document from existing one getting the warning message like “This range is not valid” this is expected, but after changing when the window is filled again by temp table focus is setting to document type dropdown list. One more thing whenever I am going to select any new document type from document type I am getting the same warning message which is not expected, system should allow user to select new document type without giving any warning message. Pls….somebody give me some idea or pls modify my code….

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  • Hibernate MapKeyManyToMany gives composite key where none exists

    - by larsrc
    I have a Hibernate (3.3.1) mapping of a map using a three-way join table: @Entity public class SiteConfiguration extends ConfigurationSet { @ManyToMany @MapKeyManyToMany(joinColumns=@JoinColumn(name="SiteTypeInstallationId")) @JoinTable( name="SiteConfig_InstConfig", joinColumns = @JoinColumn(name="SiteConfigId"), inverseJoinColumns = @JoinColumn(name="InstallationConfigId") ) Map<SiteTypeInstallation, InstallationConfiguration> installationConfigurations = new HashMap<SiteTypeInstallation, InstallationConfiguration>(); ... } The underlying table (in Oracle 11g) is: Name Null Type ------------------------------ -------- ---------- SITECONFIGID NOT NULL NUMBER(19) SITETYPEINSTALLATIONID NOT NULL NUMBER(19) INSTALLATIONCONFIGID NOT NULL NUMBER(19) The key entity used to have a three-column primary key in the database, but is now redefined as: @Entity public class SiteTypeInstallation implements IdResolvable { @Id @GeneratedValue(generator="SiteTypeInstallationSeq", strategy= GenerationType.SEQUENCE) @SequenceGenerator(name = "SiteTypeInstallationSeq", sequenceName = "SEQ_SiteTypeInstallation", allocationSize = 1) long id; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="SiteTypeId") SiteType siteType; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="InstalationRoleId") InstallationRole role; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="InstallationTypeId") InstType type; ... } The table for this has a primary key 'Id' and foreign key constraints+indexes for each of the other columns: Name Null Type ------------------------------ -------- ---------- SITETYPEID NOT NULL NUMBER(19) INSTALLATIONROLEID NOT NULL NUMBER(19) INSTALLATIONTYPEID NOT NULL NUMBER(19) ID NOT NULL NUMBER(19) For some reason, Hibernate thinks the key of the map is composite, even though it isn't, and gives me this error: org.hibernate.MappingException: Foreign key (FK1A241BE195C69C8:SiteConfig_InstConfig [SiteTypeInstallationId])) must have same number of columns as the referenced primary key (SiteTypeInstallation [SiteTypeId,InstallationRoleId]) If I remove the annotations on installationConfigurations and make it transient, the error disappears. I am very confused why it thinks SiteTypeInstallation has a composite key at all when @Id is clearly defining a simple key, and doubly confused why it picks exactly just those two columns. Any idea why this happens? Is it possible that JBoss (5.0 EAP) + Hibernate somehow remembers a mistaken idea of the primary key across server restarts and code redeployments? Thanks in advance, -Lars

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  • Prevent Jcarousel from resetting to beginning position on page postback?

    - by lbholland
    I have a nice looking jarousel running from an asp:listview element, with asp:imagebuttons for the images. When clicked, the images in the carousel send the image id to querystring, and the new page is loaded with a larger version of the image and some asp:labels are filled in to describe the image. It looks and works great, except once the page reloads the jcarousel resets to original position, which is confusing to the user. What's the best way to prevent this? I tried using an UpdatePanel but couldn't figure out how to pass the querystring variable with the partial page update. I could pass the variable in a hidden field, but this wouldn't be very SEO friendly.

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  • @property, setter and getter question?

    - by fuzzygoat
    NSString *statusValue; NSString *currentValue; @property(retain, nonatomic) NSString *statusValue; @property(retain, nonatomic) NSString *currentValue; @synthesize statusValue; @sythnesize currentValue; Given the above, if I am setting one variable to another is it work doing ... [self setStatusValue: currentValue]; or should I use the property again and use [self setStatusValue: [self currentValue]]; I suppose the latter (although maybe overkill) does tell the reader that we are using one of the objects instance variables and not some local variable. just curious really ... gary

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  • how to retrieve informatin from deleted row

    - by JM
    How can I retrie infromation from delete rows. I delete some rows from table in dataset, then I use method GetChanges(DataRowState.Deleted) to get deleted rows. I try delete rows in original table on server side, but it finished with this errors. System.Data.DeletedRowInaccessibleException: Deleted row information cannot be accessed through the row. What is correct way? Here is my code, any advice? Thank you everybody Dataset ds = //get dataset from client side //get changes DataTable delRows = ds.Tables[0].GetChanges(DataRowState.Deleted); //try delete rows in table in DB if (delRows != null) { string connStr = WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["Employees"].ConnectionString; conn = new SqlConnection(connStr); conn.Open(); for (int i = 0; i < delRows.Rows.Count; i++) { string cmdText = string.Format("DELETE Tab1 WHERE Surname=@Surname"); cmd = new SqlCommand() { Connection = conn, CommandText = cmdText }; //here is problem, I need get surnames from rows which was deleted var sqlParam = new SqlParameter(@"Surname", SqlDbType.VarChar) { Value = delRows.Rows[i][1].ToString() }; cmd.Parameters.Add(sqlParam); cmd.CommandText = cmdText; cmd.Connection = conn; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } }

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  • possible bug in geom_ribbon

    - by tomw
    i was hoping to plot two time series and shade the space between the series according to which series is larger at that time. here are the two series-- first in a data frame with an indicator for whichever series is larger at that time d1 <- read.csv("https://dl.dropbox.com/s/0txm3f70msd3nm6/ribbon%20data.csv?dl=1") And this is the melted series. d2 <- read.csv("https://dl.dropbox.com/s/6ohwmtkhpsutpig/melted%20ribbon%20data.csv?dl=1") which I plot... ggplot() + geom_line(data = d2, aes(x = time, y = value, group = variable, color = variable)) + geom_hline(yintercept = 0, linetype = 2) + geom_ribbon(data = d1[d1$big == "B",], aes(x = time, ymin = csa, ymax = csb), alpha = .25, fill = "#9999CC") + geom_ribbon(data = d1[d1$big == "A",], aes(x = time, ymin = csb, ymax = csa), alpha = .25, fill = "#CC6666") + scale_color_manual(values = c("#CC6666" , "#9999CC")) which results in... why is there a superfluous blue band in the middle of the plot?

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  • jquery change event not working with IE6

    - by manivineet
    It is indeed quite unfortunate that my client still uses IE6. using jquery 1.4.2 The problem is that I open a window using a click event and do some edit operation in the new window. I have a 'change' event attached to the row of a table which has input fields. Now when the window loads for the first time and I make a change in the input for the FIRST time, the change event does not fire. however, on a second try it starts working. I have noticed that I e.g. I run a dummy page, i.e. create a new page(i work with visual studio) and run that page individually , the 'change' event works just fine. what it going on? and what can i do, besides going back to 1.3.2 (by the way that doesn't work either, but haven't fully tested it yet) <!--HTML--> <table id="tbReadData"> <tr class="nenDataRow" id="nenDr2"> <td> <input type="text" class="nenMeterRegister" value="1234" /> </td> <tr /> <table> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('#tbReadData').find('tr').change(function() { alert('this works'); } }); </script>

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  • Atomically maintaining a counter using Sub-sonic ActiveRecord

    - by cantabilesoftware
    I'm trying to figure out the correct way to atomically increment a counter in one table and use that incremented value as an pseudo display-only ID for a record in another. What I have is a companies table and a jobs table. I want each company to have it's own set of job_numbers. I do have an auto increment job_id, but those numbers are shared across all companies. ie: the job numbers should generally increment without gaps for each company. ie: companies(company_id, next_job_number) jobs(company_id, job_id, job_number) Currently I'm doing this (as a method on the partial job class): public void SaveJob() { using (var scope = new System.Transactions.TransactionScope()) { if (job_id == 0) { _db.Update<company>() .SetExpression("next_job_number").EqualTo("next_job_number+1") .Where<company>(x => x.company_id == company_id) .Execute(); company c = _db.companies.SingleOrDefault(x => x.company_id == company_id); job_number = c.next_job_number; } // Save the job this.Save(); scope.Complete(); } } It seems to work, but I'm not sure if there are pitfalls here? It just feels wrong, but I'm not sure how else to do it. Any advice appreciated.

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  • what is a RoR best practice? match by id or different column?

    - by Omnipresent
    I had a terrible morning. Lots of emails floating around about why things don't work. Upon investigating I found that there is a data mismatch which is causing errors. Scenario Customer and Address are two tables. Customer contains class Customer < ActiveRecord::Base has_one :address, :foreign_key => "id" end Address Contains class Address < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :customer, :foreign_key => "cid" end So the two tables match on id which is the default and that column is auto incremented. Problem on the edit Page we have some code like this. params[:line1] = @customer.first.address.line1 It fails because no matching record is found for a customer in the address table. I don't know why this is happening. It seems that over time a lot of records did not get added to Address table. Now problem is that when a new Customer is added (say with id 500) the Address will be added with some other id (say 425) ...now you don't know which address belongs to which customer. Question Being new to Rails, I am asking whether it is always considered good to create an extra column for joining of the records, rather than depending on the column that is automatically incremented? If I had a seperate column in Address table where I would manually insert the recently added customers id then this issue would not have come up.

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  • Conversion failed when converting the varchar value to int

    - by onedaywhen
    Microsoft SQL Server 2008 (SP1), getting an unexpected 'Conversion failed' error. Not quite sure how to describe this problem, so below is a simple example. The CTE extracts the numeric portion of certain IDs using a search condition to ensure a numeric portion actually exists. The CTE is then used to find the lowest unused sequence number (kind of): CREATE TABLE IDs (ID CHAR(3) NOT NULL UNIQUE); INSERT INTO IDs (ID) VALUES ('A01'), ('A02'), ('A04'), ('ERR'); WITH ValidIDs (ID, seq) AS ( SELECT ID, CAST(RIGHT(ID, 2) AS INTEGER) FROM IDs WHERE ID LIKE 'A[0-9][0-9]' ) SELECT MIN(V1.seq) + 1 AS next_seq FROM ValidIDs AS V1 WHERE NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM ValidIDs AS V2 WHERE V2.seq = V1.seq + 1 ); The error is, 'Conversion failed when converting the varchar value 'RR' to data type int.' I can't understand why the value ID = 'ERR' should be being considered for conversion because the predicate ID LIKE 'A[0-9][0-9]' should have removed the invalid row from the resultset. When the base table is substituted with an equivalent CTE the problem goes away i.e. WITH IDs (ID) AS ( SELECT 'A01' UNION ALL SELECT 'A02' UNION ALL SELECT 'A04' UNION ALL SELECT 'ERR' ), ValidIDs (ID, seq) AS ( SELECT ID, CAST(RIGHT(ID, 2) AS INTEGER) FROM IDs WHERE ID LIKE 'A[0-9][0-9]' ) SELECT MIN(V1.seq) + 1 AS next_seq FROM ValidIDs AS V1 WHERE NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM ValidIDs AS V2 WHERE V2.seq = V1.seq + 1 ); Why would a base table cause this error? Is this a known issue? UPDATE @sgmoore: no, doing the filtering in one CTE and the casting in another CTE still results in the same error e.g. WITH FilteredIDs (ID) AS ( SELECT ID FROM IDs WHERE ID LIKE 'A[0-9][0-9]' ), ValidIDs (ID, seq) AS ( SELECT ID, CAST(RIGHT(ID, 2) AS INTEGER) FROM FilteredIDs ) SELECT MIN(V1.seq) + 1 AS next_seq FROM ValidIDs AS V1 WHERE NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM ValidIDs AS V2 WHERE V2.seq = V1.seq + 1 );

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  • Nhibernate - stuck with detached criteria (asp.net mvc 1 with nhibernate 2) c#

    - by Jen
    OK so I can't find a good example of this so I can better understand how to use detached criteria (assuming that's what I want to use in the first place). I have 2 tables. Placement and PlacementSupervisor My PlacementSupervisor table has a FK of PlacementID which relates to Placement.PlacementID - though my nhibernate model class has PlacementSupervisor . Placement (rather than specifically specifying a property of placement ID - not sure if this is important). What I am trying to do is - if values are passed through for the supervisor ID I want to restrict placements with that supervisor id. Have tried: ICriteria query = m_PlacementRepository.QueryAlias("p") .... if (criteria.SupervisorId > 0 && !string.IsNullOrEmpty(criteria.SupervisorTypeId)) { DetachedCriteria entityQuery = DetachedCriteria.For<PlacementSupervisor>("sup") .Add(Restrictions.And( Restrictions.Eq("sup.supervisorId", criteria.SupervisorId), Restrictions.Eq("sup.supervisorTypeId", criteria.SupervisorTypeId) )) .SetProjection(Projections.ProjectionList() .AddPropertyAlias("Placement.PlacementId", "PlacementId") ); query.Add(Subqueries.PropertyIn("p.PlacementId", entityQuery)); } Which just gives me the error: Could not find a matching criteria info provider to: (sup.supervisorId = 5 and sup.supervisorTypeId = U) Firstly supervisorTypeId is a string. Secondly I don't understand how to achieve what I'm trying to do so have just been trying various combinations of projections, and property aliases and subquery options..as I don't get how I'm supposed to join to another table/entity when the FK key sits in the second table. Can someone point me in the right direction. It seems like such an easy thing to do from a data perspective that hopefully I'm just missing something obvious!!

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  • SQL Query Math Gymnastics

    - by keruilin
    I have two tables of concern here: users and race_weeks. User has many race_weeks, and race_week belongs to User. Therefore, user_id is a fk in the race_weeks table. I need to perform some challenging math on fields in the race_weeks table in order to return users with the most all-time points. Here are the fields that we need to manipulate in the race_weeks table. races_won (int) races_lost (int) races_tied (int) points_won (int, pos or neg) recordable_type(varchar, Robots can race, but we're only concerned about type 'User') Just so that you fully understand the business logic at work here, over the course of a week a user can participate in many races. The race_week record represents the summary results of the user's races for that week. A user is considered active for the week if races_won, races_lost, or races_tied is greater than 0. Otherwise the user is inactive. So here's what we need to do in our query in order to return users with the most points won (actually net_points_won): Calculate each user's net_points_won (not a field in the DB). To calculate net_points, you take (1000 * count_of_active_weeks) - sum(points__won). (Why 1000? Just imagine that every week the user is spotted a 1000 points to compete and enter races. We want to factor-out what we spot the user because the user could enter only one race for the week for 100 points, and be sitting on 900, which we would skew who actually EARNED the most points.) This one is a little convoluted, so let me know if I can clarify further.

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  • Problem with Active Record

    - by kshchepelin
    Hello everyone. Lets assume we have a User model. And user can plan some activities. The number of types of activities is about 50. All activities have common properties, such as start_time, end_time, user_id, etc. But each of them has some unique properties. Now we have each activity living in its own table in DB. And thats why we have such terrible sql queries like SELECT * FROM `first_activities_table` WHERE (`first_activity`.`id` IN (17,18)) SELECT * FROM `second_activities_table` WHERE (`second_activity`.`id` = 17) ..... SELECT * FROM `n_activities_table` WHERE (`n_activity`.`id` = 44) About 50 queries. That's terrible. There are different ways to solve this. Choose the activity type with the biggest number of properties, create the table 'Activities' and have STI model. But this way we must name our columns in uncomfortable way and often the record in that table would have some NULL fields. Also STI model, but having columns, common for all of activity types and some blob column with serialized properties. But we have to do some search on activities - there can be a problem. And serialization is quite slow. Please help me dealing with this. Maybe my problem has quite different solution that will fit my needs. Thanks for help.

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  • overwrite a file which is already used by another process

    - by Ahmy
    I have a web site and i am showing videos to visitors, at the admin side i am filling the form of video and upload video file and sometimes i need to change(update) the video so i update the video by uploading another one, when i create the video in the first time i concatenate a datetime variable with the video name to avoid repeatition(file already exist) and when updatting the video the problem appears.... as if i upload the new video with the previous name so it will replace the previous one and in this case if the video is used by another process it will fail and the second option(which i am already using) is to upload a new video and concatenating new datetime variable with video title, so the previous and the new video will exist in the same directory and in this case i will lose too much space in my server directory as i have unused videos which takes space which in future will cause problem to me in the disk space so how can i solve this problem ? Hope that my question is clear....thanks in advance for any try

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  • Why is the colspan not working properly in this script? js bug or IE ?

    - by Perpetualcoder
    This question is related to this question I asked a little while back. The updated code is posted here. This to note is that i am looking to create a HTML table dynamically that looks similar to this: <table> <tbody> <tr> <td colspan="3" align="right">Header</td> </tr> <tr> <td colspan="3" align="right">Header</td> </tr> <tr> <td colspan="3" align="right">Header</td> </tr> <tr> <td>Col1</td> <td>Col3</td> <td>Col4</td> </tr> <tr> <td>Col1</td> <td>Col3</td> <td>Col4</td> </tr> </tbody> </table> I can get this done in markup but when I do it in js the colspan does not seem to work in IE7. Any hep will be greatly appreciated.

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  • Find order of data inside an array

    - by user271619
    I have a simple array of stuff: $array = array("apples","oranges","strawberries"); I am trying to find the order of the stuff inside the array. (sometimes the order changes, and so do the items) I'm expecting to get something like this: "apples" = 0, "oranges = 1, "strawberries = 2 The end result has something to do with database sorting. Something like this, inside a foreach loop: UPDATE tbl SET sortorder = $neworder WHERE fruit = '$fruitname' The $neworder variable would be populated with the new order, inside the array. While the $fruit variable comes from the item inside the array.

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  • Quick question regarding this issue, Why doesnt it print out the second value(converted second value

    - by sil3nt
    Quick question, What have I done wrong here. The purpose of this code is to get the input into a string, the input being "12 34", with a space in between the "12" and "32" and to convert and print the two separate numbers from an integer variable known as number. Why doesn't the second call to the function copyTemp, not produce the value 34?. I have an index_counter variable which keeps track of the string index and its meant to skip the 'space' character?? what have i done wrong? thanks. #include <stdio.h> #include <string.h> int index_counter = 0; int number; void copyTemp(char *expr,char *temp); int main(){ char exprstn[80]; //as global? char tempstr[80]; gets(exprstn); copyTemp(exprstn,tempstr); printf("Expression: %s\n",exprstn); printf("Temporary: %s\n",tempstr); printf("number is: %d\n",number); copyTemp(exprstn,tempstr); //second call produces same output shouldnt it now produce 34 in the variable number? printf("Expression: %s\n",exprstn); printf("Temporary: %s\n",tempstr); printf("number is: %d\n",number); return 0; } void copyTemp(char *expr,char *temp){ int i; for(i = index_counter; expr[i] != '\0'; i++){ if (expr[i] == '0'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '1'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '2'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '3'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '4'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '5'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '6'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '7'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '8'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '9'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == ' '){ temp[i] = '\0'; sscanf(temp,"%d",&number); index_counter = i+1; //skips? } } // is this included here? temp[i] = '\0'; }

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  • The C++ 'new' keyword and C

    - by Florian
    In a C header file of a library I'm using one of the variables is named 'new'. Unfortunately, I'm using this library in a C++ project and the occurence of 'new' as a variable names freaks out the compiler. I'm already using extern "C" { #include<... }, but that doesn't seem to help in this respect. Do I have to aks the library developer to change the name of that variable even though from his perspective, as a C developer, the code is absolutely fine, as 'new' is not a C keyword?

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