Search Results

Search found 15206 results on 609 pages for 'identity map pattern'.

Page 547/609 | < Previous Page | 543 544 545 546 547 548 549 550 551 552 553 554  | Next Page >

  • WHMCS - Mapping of a Manually Created Invoice with its Corresponding Domain

    - by Knowledge Craving
    I am using WHMCS version 4.2.1 for maintaining domain registration & website hosting services, in one of my websites. Currently, the automatic domain registration process is working great for both the existing & new clients. The main way to register domains automatically is to mark the respective invoices as paid, and automatically the domains get registered through my selected registrar. Recently, I am facing a major problem in domain renewals, where the domain has been already registered by us in the past. The problem is that some of the corresponding invoices are not already generated for the domains & so I have to manually create invoice for each of those domain renewals. However, I am unable to map that invoice with the corresponding domain. This is required because unless the domain knows that for its renewal, an invoice has been created, the marking of the invoice as paid will not instantiate the automatic renewal process through my registrar. Can anybody please tell me the probable way of mapping the invoice with its corresponding domain? I've tried to explain the problem as it is occurring in the best way possible. Still, if any more information regarding this is required, please ask. Any help is greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Best practice for writing ARRAYS

    - by Douglas
    I've got an array with about 250 entries in it, each their own array of values. Each entry is a point on a map, and each array holds info for: name, another array for points this point can connect to, latitude, longitude, short for of name, a boolean, and another boolean The array has been written by another developer in my team, and he has written it as such: names[0]=new Array; names[0][0]="Campus Ice Centre"; names[0][1]= new Array(0,1,2); names[0][2]=43.95081811364498; names[0][3]=-78.89848709106445; names[0][4]="CIC"; names[0][5]=false; names[0][6]=false; names[1]=new Array; names[1][0]="Shagwell's"; names[1][1]= new Array(0,1); names[1][2]=43.95090307839151; names[1][3]=-78.89815986156464; names[1][4]="shg"; names[1][5]=false; names[1][6]=false; Where I would probably have personally written it like this: var names = [] names[0] = new Array("Campus Ice Centre", new Array[0,1,2], 43.95081811364498, -78.89848709106445, "CIC", false, false); names[1] = new Array("Shagwell's", new Array[0,1], 43.95090307839151, -78.89815986156464, 'shg", false, false); They both work perfectly fine of course, but what I'm wondering is: 1) does one take longer than the other to actually process? 2) am I incorrect in assuming there is a benefit to the compactness of my version of the same thing? I'm just a little worried about his 3000 lines of code versus my 3-400 to get the same result. Thanks in advance for any guidance.

    Read the article

  • Alternative to Galileo GWS

    - by Anton Gogolev
    Please note that this Galileo is absolutely not related to Java. Galileo is basically a set of web services which can be used to book airline tickets. Originally, it was supposed to be used via Galileo Desktop, whereby operators would enter various commands to perform required operations. For example, SA*AZ610J20JULFCOJFK will "Display seat availability map for specified flight and class". Granted, humans can get used to it and be very efficient, but here comes a problem of integrating this with other systems. For that, folks at TravelPort basically slapped a SOAP interface to this system (which must have been written in COBOL or something), without even thinking about actually embracing XML. For example, it can contain <Ind1>N</Ind1> <Ind2>N</Ind2> <Ind3>N</Ind3> ... <Ind72>N</Ind72> <!-- Yes! 72! --> or, better yet <Text>P/RU/4xxx24528/RU/11MAY67/M/23DEC12/AxxxxxxV/MxxxM</Text> In light of this, my question is as follows: are there any sane airline tickets booking systems we can integrate with? Or are there companies which have products that can abstract away all this?

    Read the article

  • Translating Where() to sql

    - by MBoros
    Hi. I saw DamienG's article (http://damieng.com/blog/2009/06/24/client-side-properties-and-any-remote-linq-provider) in how to map client properties to sql. i ran throgh this article, and i saw great potential in it. Definitely mapping client properties to SQL is an awesome idea. But i wanted to use this for something a bit more complicated then just concatenating strings. Atm we are trying to introduce multilinguality to our Business objects, and i hoped we could leave all the existing linq2sql queries intact, and just change the code of the multilingual properties, so they would actually return the given property in the CurrentUICulture. The first idea was to change these fields to XMLs, and then try the Object.Property.Elements().Where(...), but it got stuck on the Elements(), as it couldnt translate it to sql. I read somewhere that XML fields are actually regarded as strings, and only on the app server they become XElements, so this way the filtering would be on the app server anyways, not the DB. Fair point, it wont work like this. Lets try something else... SO the second idea was to create a PolyGlots table (name taken from http://weblogic.sys-con.com/node/102698?page=0,1), a PolyGlotTranslations table and a Culture table, where the PolyGlots would be referenced from each internationalized property. This way i wanted to say for example: private static readonly CompiledExpression<Announcement, string> nameExpression = DefaultTranslationOf<Announcement> .Property(e => e.Name) .Is(e=> e.NamePolyGlot.PolyGlotTranslations .Where(t=> t.Culture.Code == Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture.Name) .Single().Value ); now unfortunately here i get an error that the Where() function cannot be translated to sql, what is a bit disappointing, as i was sure it will go through. I guess it is failing, cause the IEntitySet is basically an IEnumerable, not IQueryable, am i right? Is there another way to use the compiledExpressions class to achieve this goal? Any help appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Query Level 2 Caching throwing ClassCastException

    - by Sameer Malhotra
    Hi, I am using JPA and Hibernate for the database. I have configured (EHCacache) second level cache and query level cache, but just to make sure that caching is working I was trying to get the statistics which is throwing class cast exception.Any help will be highly appreciated. My main goal is to see all the objects which have been cached to make sure that the caching is working properly. Here is the code: public List<CodeValue> findByCodetype(String propertyName) { try { final String queryString = "select model from CodeValue model where model.codetype" + "= :propertyValue" + " order by model.code"; Query query = em.createQuery(queryString); query.setHint("org.hibernate.cacheable", true); query.setHint("org.hibernate.cacheRegion", "query.findByCodetype"); query.setParameter("propertyValue", propertyName); List resultList = query.getResultList(); org.hibernate.Session session = (Session) em.getDelegate(); SessionFactory sessionFactory = session.getSessionFactory(); Map cacheEntries = sessionFactory.getStatistics() .getSecondLevelCacheStatistics("query.findByCodetype") .getEntries(); logger.info("The statistics are: " + cacheEntries); return resultList; } catch (RuntimeException re) { logger.error("findByCodetype failed in trauma patient", re); throw re; } } The error is existing right when I am trying to print the statistics. Below is exception: [6/7/10 19:23:17:059 GMT] 00000034 SystemOut O java.lang.ClassCastException: org.hibernate.cache.QueryKey incompatible with org.hibernate.cache.CacheKey at org.hibernate.stat.SecondLevelCacheStatistics.getEntries(SecondLevelCacheStatistics.java:51) at com.idph.trauma.registry.service.TraumaPatientDAO.findByCodetype(TraumaPatientDAO.java:439) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:64) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:43) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:615) at org.springframework.aop.support.AopUtils.invokeJoinpointUsingReflection(AopUtils.java:307) at org.springframework.aop.framework.ReflectiveMethodInvocation.invokeJoinpoint(ReflectiveMethodInvocation.java:182) at org.springframework.aop.framework.ReflectiveMethodInvocation.proceed(ReflectiveMethodInvocation.java:149) at org.springframework.transaction.interceptor.TransactionInterceptor.invoke(TransactionInterceptor.java:106) at org.springframework.aop.framework.ReflectiveMethodInvocation.proceed(ReflectiveMethodInvocation.java:171) at org.springframework.aop.framework.JdkDynamicAopProxy.invoke(JdkDynamicAopProxy.java:204) at $Proxy209.findByCodetype(Unknown Source) Do you know what's going on?

    Read the article

  • iphone SDK buttons control views

    - by mangnv
    Hi, all I'v just started to learn SDK. I have several questions. First. I will do the project about university APP. if u clike the app, then u can c several buttons on one page, then each button( eg: event, BBS,courses, map....) has specific function...each one connect to anohter view. Are they buttons on the main page? Second, how to deal with one view has several buttons, one button connect to other view? Third, how to deal with controller classes? I'd like to make a app like this way. Main Page has 6 buttonss(event, community, directory...), take community for eg: community has two functions( Notices and BBS). if i clike Notices, then i can read notices, and if i clike BBS, then i could also read BBS. The thing that i do not get is..how to deal with classes. I mean main Page has one controller classes that control 6 buttons? If my question is not so clearly, then let me know....I really need help~

    Read the article

  • Routing trouble for RESTful API - Rails

    - by aressidi
    I'm building out an API for web app that I've been working on for some time. I've started with the User model. The user portion of the API will allow remote clients to a) retrieve user data, b) update user information and c) create new users. I've gotten all of this to work, but it doesn't seem like its setup correctly. Here are my questions: Should the API endpoint be users or user? What's the best practice? I have to add the action to the end, which I would expect to be picked up instead by the request type so I don't have to specify it explicitly. How do I get my routes setup properly as not to have to include the method for protected actions? Let me give some examples: Get request for show - want it to work without the "show" curl -u rmbruno:blah http://app.local/api/users/show Put request for update - want it to work without the "update" curl -X put -F 'user[forum_notifications]=true' -u rmbruno:blah http://app.local/api/users/update Create - works with or without 'create' which is what I want for all these actions curl -X post -F 'user[login]=mamafatta' -F 'user[email][email protected]' -F 'user[password]=12345678' http://twye.local/api/users/ How do I structure routes to not require the action name? Isn't that the common way to to RESTful APIs? Here is my route for the API now: map.namespace :api do |route| route.resources :users route.resources :weight end I'm using restful authentication which is handling the http auth in curl. Any guidance on the routes issues and best practice on singular versus plural would be really helpful. Thanks! -A

    Read the article

  • Why delete-orphan needs "cascade all" to run in JPA/Hibernate ?

    - by Jerome C.
    Hello, I try to map a one-to-many relation with cascade "remove" (jpa) and "delete-orphan", because I don't want children to be saved or persist when the parent is saved or persist (security reasons due to client to server (GWT, Gilead)) But this configuration doesn't work. When I try with cascade "all", it runs. Why the delete-orphan option needs a cascade "all" to run ? here is the code (without id or other fields for simplicity, the class Thread defines a simple many-to-one property without cascade): when using the removeThread function in a transactional function, it does not run but if I edit cascade.Remove into cascade.All, it runs. @Entity public class Forum { private List<ForumThread> threads; /** * @return the topics */ @OneToMany(mappedBy = "parent", cascade = CascadeType.REMOVE, fetch = FetchType.LAZY) @Cascade(org.hibernate.annotations.CascadeType.DELETE_ORPHAN) public List<ForumThread> getThreads() { return threads; } /** * @param topics the topics to set */ public void setThreads(List<ForumThread> threads) { this.threads = threads; } public void addThread(ForumThread thread) { getThreads().add(thread); thread.setParent(this); } public void removeThread(ForumThread thread) { getThreads().remove(thread); } } thanks.

    Read the article

  • Extand legacy site with another server-side programming platform best practice

    - by Andrew Florko
    Company I work for have a site developed 6-8 years ago by a team that was enthusiastic enough to use their own private PHP-based CMS. I have to put dynamic data from one intranet company database on this site in one week: 2-3 pages. I contacted company site administrator and she showed me administrative part - CMS allows only to insert html blocks & manage site map (site is deployed on machine that is inside company & fully accessible & upgradable). I'm not a PHP-guy & I don't want to dive into legacy hardly-who-ever-heard-about CMS engine I also don't want to contact developers team, 'cos I'm not sure they are still present and capable enough to extend this old days site and it'll take too much time anyway. I am about to deploy helper asp.net site on iis with 2-3 pages required & refer helper site via iframe from present site. New pages will allow to download some dynamic content from present site also. Is it ok and what are the pitfalls with iframe approach?

    Read the article

  • how to set SqlMapClient outside of spring xmls

    - by Omnipresent
    I have the following in my xml configurations. I would like to convert these to my code because I am doing some unit/integration testing outside of the container. xmls: <bean id="MyMapClient" class="org.springframework.orm.ibatis.SqlMapClientFactoryBean"> <property name="configLocation" value="classpath:sql-map-config-oracle.xml"/> <property name="dataSource" ref="IbatisDataSourceOracle"/> </bean> <bean id="IbatisDataSource" class="org.springframework.jndi.JndiObjectFactoryBean"> <property name="jndiName" value="jdbc/my/mydb"/> </bean> code I used to fetch stuff from above xmls: this.setSqlMapClient((SqlMapClient)ApplicationInitializer.getApplicationContext().getBean("MyMapClient")); my code (for unit testing purposes): SqlMapClientFactoryBean bean = new SqlMapClientFactoryBean(); UrlResource urlrc = new UrlResource("file:/data/config.xml"); bean.setConfigLocation(urlrc); DriverManagerDataSource dataSource = new DriverManagerDataSource(); dataSource.setDriverClassName("oracle.jdbc.OracleDriver"); dataSource.setUrl("jdbc:oracle:thin:@123.210.85.56:1522:ORCL"); dataSource.setUsername("dbo_mine"); dataSource.setPassword("dbo_mypwd"); bean.setDataSource(dataSource); SqlMapClient sql = (SqlMapClient) bean; //code fails here when the xml's are used then SqlMapClient is the class that sets up then how come I cant convert SqlMapClientFactoryBean to SqlMapClient

    Read the article

  • php - replace array elements with another array's elements?

    - by Simpson88Keys
    Not sure how to go about this... But, I have two arrays, one with updated information, another with outdated information... There are a lot more elements in the second array, but I'm looking to "update" the outdated one with the updated information. Here's what the arrays look like: //Outdated Array ( [0] => Array ( [anum] => 3236468462 [cid] => 4899097762 [mid] => 1104881401 [na_title] => [na_fname] => JOHN [m_initial] => [na_lname] => DOE [na_suffix] => [na_addr1] => 1234 SAMPLE AVENUE [na_addr2] => [na_city] => NORWALK [state] => OH [zip] => [zip_plus_4] => [route] => R002 [dma_code] => 510334 ) ) //Updated Array ( [1] => Array ( [0] => YUD990 [1] => 98 [2] => 1234 Sample Avenue [3] => [4] => Norwalk [5] => OH [6] => 44857-9215 [7] => 3236468462 ) ) To clarify, I want to: (1) Match up the value for [7] from the updated array with the value for [anum] in the outdated array, and then update [na_addr1], [na_addr2], [na_city], [state], [zip], [zip_plus_4] in the outdated array with the values for [2],[3],[4],[5],[6] (I know I'll need to split the updated [6] in order to get it to map corrected to the outdated) Feel like I'm making this very confusing... sorry about that...

    Read the article

  • In IIS6, how to provide authenticated access to static files on remote server

    - by frankadelic
    We have a library of ZIP files that we would like to make available for download at an ASP.NET site. The files are sitting on a NAS device that is accessible from out web farm. Here is our initial strategy: Map an IIS virtual directory to the shared drive at path /zipfiles Users can download the zip files when given the URL However, if users share links to the files, anyone can download them. We would instead like to make use of the ASP.NET forms authentication in our site to validate users' requests before initiating the file transfer. A few problems: A request for a zip file is handled by IIS, not ASP.NET. So it is not subject to forms authentication. In addition, we don't want ASP.NET to handle the request, because it uses up an ASP.NET thread and is not scalable for download of large files. So, configuring the asp.net dll to handle *.zip requests is not an option. Any ideas on this? One idea we've tossed around is this: Initial request for download will be for an ashx handler. This handler will, after authentication, generate a download token which is saved to a database. Then, the user is redirected to the file with token appended in QueryString (e.g. /files/xyz.zip?token=123456789). An ISAPI plugin will be used to check the token. Also, the token will expire after x amount of time. Any thoughts on this? I have not implemented an ISAPI plugin so I'm not sure if this will even work. I would like to avoid custom coding since security is an issue and I'd prefer to use a time-tested solution.

    Read the article

  • Custom rowsetClass does not return values

    - by Wesley
    Hi, I'm quite new to Zend and the database classes from it. I'm having problems mapping a Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract to my rows. The problem is that whenever I try to map it to a class (Job) that extends the Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract class, the database data is not receivable anymore. I'm not getting any errors, trying to get data simply returns null. Here is my code so far: Jobs: class Jobs extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = 'jobs'; protected $_rowsetClass = "Job"; public function getActiveJobs() { $select = $this->select()->where('jobs.jobDateOpen < UNIX_TIMESTAMP()')->limit(15,0); $rows = $this->fetchAll($select); return $rows; } } Job: class Job extends Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract { public function getCompanyName() { //Gets the companyName } } Controller: $oJobs = new Jobs(); $aActiveJobs = $oJobs->getActiveJobs(); foreach ($aActiveJobs as $value) { var_dump($value->jobTitle); } When I remove the "protected $_rowsetClass = "Job";" line, so that the table row is not mapped to my own class, I get all the jobTitles perfectly. What am I doing wrong here? Thanks in advance, Wesley

    Read the article

  • Type conversion between PHP client and Java webservice

    - by a1ex07
    I have a web service implemented as EJB. One of it's methods returns Map<String,String>. On client side I use php : $client = new SoapClient($wsdl,array("cache_wsdl"=>WSDL_CACHE_NONE)); $result = $client->foo($params); Everything works fine, but I would like $result-return to be an associative array. Now it looks like array(10) { [0]=> object(stdClass)#46 (2) { ["key"]=> string(4) "key1" ["value"]=> string(4) "val1" } .... I want array(10) {"key1"=>"value1", "key2"=>"value2", .... } The obvious solution is to iterate through this array and create a new array $arr = array(); foreach ($result->return as $val) $arr[$val->key] = $val->value; But I wonder if there is a better way to get an assosicative array ? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Fluent Nhibernate Mapping Single class on two database tables

    - by nabeelfarid
    Hi guys, I am having problems with Mapping. I have two tables in my database as follows: Employee and EmployeeManagers Employee EmployeeId int Name nvarchar EmployeeManagers EmployeeIdFk int ManagerIdFk int So the employee can have 0 or more Managers. A manager itself is also an Employee. I have the following class to represent the Employee and Managers public class Employee { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual IList<Employee> Managers { get; protected set; } public Employee() { Managers = new List<Employee>(); } } I don't have any class to represent Manager because I think there is no need for it, as Manager itself is an Employee. I am using autoMapping and I just can't figure out how to map this class to these two tables. I am implementing IAutoMappingOverride for overriding automappings for Employee but I am not sure what to do in it. public class NodeMap : IAutoMappingOverride { public void Override(AutoMapping<Node> mapping) { //mapping.HasMany(x => x.ValidParents).Cascade.All().Table("EmployeeManager"); //mapping.HasManyToMany(x => x.ValidParents).Cascade.All().Table("EmployeeManager"); } } I also want to make sure that an employee can not be assigned the same manager twice. This is something I can verify in my application but I would like to put constraint on the EmployeeManager table (e.g. a composite key) so a same manager can not be assigned to an employee more than once. Could anyone out there help me with this please? Awaiting Nabeel

    Read the article

  • How would the 'Model' in a Rails-type webapp be implemented in a functional programming langauge?

    - by ceptorial
    In MVC web development frameworks such as Ruby on Rails, Django, and CakePHP, HTTP requests are routed to controllers, which fetch objects which are usually persisted to a backend database store. These objects represent things like users, blog posts, etc., and often contain logic within their methods for permissions, fetching and/or mutating other objects, validation, etc. These frameworks are all very much object oriented. I've been reading up recently on functional programming and it seems to tout tremendous benefits such as testability, conciseness, modularity, etc. However most of the examples I've seen for functional programming implement trivial functionality like quicksort or the fibonnacci sequence, not complex webapps. I've looked at a few 'functional' web frameworks, and they all seem to implement the view and controller just fine, but largely skip over the whole 'model' and 'persistence' part. (I'm talking more about frameworks like Compojure which are supposed to be purely functional, versus something Lift which conveniently seems to use the OO part of Scala for the model -- but correct me if I'm wrong here.) I haven't seen a good explanation of how functional programming can be used to provide the metaphor that OO programming provides, i.e. tables map to objects, and objects can have methods which provide powerful, encapsulated logic such as permissioning and validation. Also the whole concept of using SQL queries to persist data seems to violate the whole 'side effects' concept. Could someone provide an explanation of how the 'model' layer would be implemented in a functionally programmed web framework?

    Read the article

  • Python multiprocessing doesn't play nicely with uuid.uuid4().

    - by yig
    I'm trying to generate a uuid for a filename, and I'm also using the multiprocessing module. Unpleasantly, all of my uuids end up exactly the same. Here is a small example: import multiprocessing import uuid def get_uuid( a ): ## Doesn't help to cycle through a bunch. #for i in xrange(10): uuid.uuid4() ## Doesn't help to reload the module. #reload( uuid ) ## Doesn't help to load it at the last minute. ## (I simultaneously comment out the module-level import). #import uuid ## uuid1() does work, but it differs only in the first 8 characters and includes identifying information about the computer. #return uuid.uuid1() return uuid.uuid4() def main(): pool = multiprocessing.Pool( 20 ) uuids = pool.map( get_uuid, range( 20 ) ) for id in uuids: print id if __name__ == '__main__': main() I peeked into uuid.py's code, and it seems to depending-on-the-platform use some OS-level routines for randomness, so I'm stumped as to a python-level solution (to do something like reload the uuid module or choose a new random seed). I could use uuid.uuid1(), but only 8 digits differ and I think there are derived exclusively from the time, which seems dangerous especially given that I'm multiprocessing (so the code could be executing at exactly the same time). Is there some Wisdom out there about this issue?

    Read the article

  • F# List SelectMany

    - by Tuomas Hietanen
    This is quite simple question but I didn't find an answer: Is there any Seq/List operation in F# to match the LINQ SelectMany? I know I can use System.Linq in F# if I want to. I know I can make a recursive method and use F# Computation Expressions (and make even more powerful things). But if I try to prove that F# List operations are more powerful than LINQ... .Where = List.filter .Select = List.map .Aggregate = List.fold ... In C# SelectMany usage syntax is pretty simple: var flattenedList = from i in items1 from j in items2 select ... Is there any easy direct match, List.flatten, List.bind or something like that? SelectMany has a couple of signatures, but the most complex one seems to be: IEnumerable<TResult> SelectMany<TSource, TCollection, TResult>( this IEnumerable<TSource> source, Func<TSource, IEnumerable<TCollection>> collectionSelector, Func<TSource, TCollection, TResult> resultSelector ); In F# terms this would be: ('a -> 'b list) -> ('a -> 'b -> 'c) -> 'a list -> 'c list

    Read the article

  • What's the standard convention for creating a new NSArray from an existing NSArray?

    - by Prairiedogg
    Let's say I have an NSArray of NSDictionaries that is 10 elements long. I want to create a second NSArray with the values for a single key on each dictionary. The best way I can figure to do this is: NSMutableArray *nameArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:[array count]]; for (NSDictionary *p in array) { [nameArray addObject:[p objectForKey:@"name"]]; } self.my_new_array = array; [array release]; [nameArray release]; } But in theory, I should be able to get away with not using a mutable array and using a counter in conjunction with [nameArray addObjectAtIndex:count], because the new list should be exactly as long as the old list. Please note that I am NOT trying to filter for a subset of the original array, but make a new array with exactly the same number of elements, just with values dredged up from the some arbitrary attribute of each element in the array. In python one could solve this problem like this: new_list = [p['name'] for p in old_list] or if you were a masochist, like this: new_list = map(lambda p: p['name'], old_list) Having to be slightly more explicit in objective-c makes me wonder if there is an accepted common way of handling these situations.

    Read the article

  • Using ControllerClassNameHandlerMapping with @Controller and extending AbstractController

    - by whiskerz
    Hey there, actually I thought I was trying something really simple. ControllerClassNameHandlerMapping sounded great to produce a small spring webapp using a very lean configuration. Just annotate the Controller with @Controller, have it extend AbstractController and the configuration shouldn't need more than this <context:component-scan base-package="test.mypackage.controller" /> <bean id="urlMapping" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.support.ControllerClassNameHandlerMapping" /> to resolve my requests and map them to my controllers. I've mapped the servlet to "*.spring", and calling <approot>/hello.spring All I ever get is an error stating that no mapping was found. If however I extend the MultiActionController, and do something like <approot>/hello/hello.spring it works. Which somehow irritates me, as I would have thought that if that is working, why didn't my first try? Does anyone have any idea? The two controllers I used looked like this @Controller public class HelloController extends AbstractController { @Override protected ModelAndView handleRequestInternal(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws Exception { ModelAndView modelAndView = new ModelAndView("hello"); modelAndView.addObject("message", "Hello World!"); return modelAndView; } } and @Controller public class HelloController extends MultiActionController { public ModelAndView hello(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws Exception { ModelAndView modelAndView = new ModelAndView("hello"); modelAndView.addObject("message", "Hello World!"); return modelAndView; } }

    Read the article

  • Mapping composite foreign keys in a many-many relationship, with overlapping components.

    - by Kirk Broadhurst
    I have a Page table and a View table. There is a many-many relationship between these two via a PageView table. Unfortunately all of these tables need to have composite keys (for business reasons). Page has a primary key of (PageCode, Version), View has a primary key of (ViewCode, Version). PageView obviously enough has PageCode, ViewCode, and Version. The FK to Page is (PageCode, Version) and the FK to View is (ViewCode, Version) Makes sense and works, but when I try to map this in Entity framework I get Error 3021: Problem in mapping fragments...: Each of the following columns in table PageView is mapped to multiple conceptual side properties: PageView.Version is mapped to (PageView_Association.View.Version, PageView_Association.Page.Version) So clearly enough, EF is having a complain about the Version column being a common component of the two foreign keys. Obviously I could create a PageVersion and ViewVersion column in the join table, but that kind of defeats the point of the constraint, i.e. the Page and View must have the same Version value. Has anyone encountered this, and is there anything I can do get around it? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to output KML by GAE

    - by Niklas R
    Hi I use KML for a google map where entities have a geopt.db coordinate and soft memory limit was exceeded with 213.465 MB after servicing 1 requests total. The log says /list.kml 200 13130ms 10211cpu_ms 4238api_cpu_ms The file list.kml which outputs about 455,7 KB is a template as follows <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?><kml xmlns="http:// www.opengis.net/kml/2.2" xmlns:gx="http://www.google.com/kml/ext/2.2" xmlns:kml="http://www.opengis.net/kml/2.2" xmlns:atom="http:// www.w3.org/2005/Atom"> <Document>{% for a in list %} <Placemark> <name> </name> <description> <![CDATA[<a href="http://{{host}}/{{a.key.id}}"> {{ a.title }} </a> <br/>{{a.text}}]]> </description> <Style> <IconStyle> <Icon> <href> http://www.google.com/intl/en_us/mapfiles/ms/icons/green-dot.png </href> </Icon> </IconStyle> </Style> <Point> <coordinates> {{a.geopt.lon|floatformat:2}},{{a.geopt.lat|floatformat:2}} </coordinates> </Point> </Placemark> {% endfor %} </Document> </kml> Is there a memory leak in the template or the python that passes the list variable? Can I improve using other template engine or other framework than default? Is kmz compression a good idea in this case? Thanks in advance for any suggestion where or how to change the code.

    Read the article

  • Passing options in autospec with Cucumber in Ruby on Rails Development

    - by TK
    I always run autospec to run features and RSpec at the same time, but running all the features is often time-consuming on my local computer. I would run every feature before committing code. I would like to pass the argument in autospec command. autospec doesn't obviously doesn't accept the arguments directly. Here's the output of autospec -h: autotest [options] options: -h -help You're looking at it. -v Be verbose. Prints files that autotest doesn't know how to map to tests. -q Be more quiet. -f Fast start. Doesn't initially run tests at start. I do have a cucumber.yml in config directory. I also have rerun.txt in the Rails root directory. cucumber -h gives me a lot of information about arguments. How can I run autospec against features that are tagged as @wip? I think I can make use of config/cucumber.yml. There are profile definitions. I can run cucumber -p wip to run only @wip-tagged features, but I'd like to do this with autospec. I would appreciate any tips for working with many spec and feature files.

    Read the article

  • Using DTOs and BOs

    - by ryanzec
    One area of question for me about DTOs/BOs is about when to pass/return the DTOs and when to pass/return the BOs. My gut reaction tells me to always map NHibernate to the DTOs, not BOs, and always pass/return the DTOs. Then whenever I needed to perform business logic, I would convert my DTO into a BO. The way I would do this is that my BO would have a have a constructor that takes a parameter that is the type of my interface (that defines the required fields/properties) that both my DTO and BO implement as the only argument. Then I would be able to create my BO by passing it the DTO in the constructor (since both with implement the same interface, they both with have the same properties) and then be able to perform my business logic with that BO. I would then also have a way to convert a BO to a DTO. However, I have also seen where people seem to only work with BOs and only work with DTOs in the background where to the user, it looks like there are no DTOs. What benefits/downfalls are there with this architecture vs always using BO's? Should I always being passing/returning either DTOs or BOs or mix and match (seems like mixing and matching could get confusing)?

    Read the article

  • Asymptotic runtime of list-to-tree function

    - by Deestan
    I have a merge function which takes time O(log n) to combine two trees into one, and a listToTree function which converts an initial list of elements to singleton trees and repeatedly calls merge on each successive pair of trees until only one tree remains. Function signatures and relevant implementations are as follows: merge :: Tree a -> Tree a -> Tree a --// O(log n) where n is size of input trees singleton :: a -> Tree a --// O(1) empty :: Tree a --// O(1) listToTree :: [a] -> Tree a --// Supposedly O(n) listToTree = listToTreeR . (map singleton) listToTreeR :: [Tree a] -> Tree a listToTreeR [] = empty listToTreeR (x:[]) = x listToTreeR xs = listToTreeR (mergePairs xs) mergePairs :: [Tree a] -> [Tree a] mergePairs [] = [] mergePairs (x:[]) = [x] mergePairs (x:y:xs) = merge x y : mergePairs xs This is a slightly simplified version of exercise 3.3 in Purely Functional Data Structures by Chris Okasaki. According to the exercise, I shall now show that listToTree takes O(n) time. Which I can't. :-( There are trivially ceil(log n) recursive calls to listToTreeR, meaning ceil(log n) calls to mergePairs. The running time of mergePairs is dependent on the length of the list, and the sizes of the trees. The length of the list is 2^h-1, and the sizes of the trees are log(n/(2^h)), where h=log n is the first recursive step, and h=1 is the last recursive step. Each call to mergePairs thus takes time (2^h-1) * log(n/(2^h)) I'm having trouble taking this analysis any further. Can anyone give me a hint in the right direction?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 543 544 545 546 547 548 549 550 551 552 553 554  | Next Page >