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  • How do I search & replace all occurrences of a string in a ms word doc with python?

    - by Mark
    Hello there, I am pretty stumped at the moment. Based on http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1045628/can-i-use-win32-com-to-replace-text-inside-a-word-document I was able to code a simple template system that generates word docs out of a template word doc (in Python). My problem is that text in "Text Fields" is not find that way. Even in Word itself there is no option to search everything - you actually have to choose between "Main Document" and "Text Fields". Being new to the Windows world I tried to browse the VBA docs for it but found no help (probably due to "text field" being a very common term). word.Documents.Open(f) wdFindContinue = 1 wdReplaceAll = 2 find_str = '\{\{(*)\}\}' find = word.Selection.Find find.Execute(find_str, False, False, True, False, False, \ True, wdFindContinue, False, False, False) while find.Found: t = word.Selection.Text.__str__() r = process_placeholder(t, answer_data, question_data) if type(r) == dict: errors.append(r) else: find.Execute(t, False, True, False, False, False, \ True, False, False, r, wdReplaceAll) This is the relevant portion of my code. I was able to get around all problems by myself by now (hint: if you want to replace strings with more than 256 chars, you have to do it via clipboard, etc ...) Hope, someone can help me.

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  • Android shared library which is not JNI based

    - by Mondain
    I am developing a library for Android applications which does not use native code (JNI). I have tried suppling the library as an external jar in my Android projects but this method does not include the library contents in the apk and thus throws class not found errors when run in the emulator or device. I have also tried creating the library as an Android project in itself and this does work, but only for public static properties (not methods). With the library and application both being in separate apk's I can see that the VM notices references to the library and can read some properties, but when an attempt to instantiate a class in the library is executed I get class not found even though I can read the public static properties from it (very frustrating!!). I realize that Davlik byte code is not the same as Java byte code but I am having trouble even finding good information about how to solve what would seem to be a very simple issue in Android. I am looking into the old PlatformLibrary stuff right now but I am not convinced this will work either since the sample has been removed from the Android site :( So help me out if you can, if I find the answer before this happens I will share it. viva la Android!

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  • Java: how to have try-catch as conditional in for-loop?

    - by HH
    I know how to solve the problem by comparing size to an upper bound but I want a conditional that look for an exception. If an exception occur in conditinal, I want to exit. import java.io.*; import java.util.*; public class listTest{ public static void main(String[] args){ Stack<Integer> numbs=new Stack<Integer>(); numbs.push(1); numbs.push(2); for(int count=0,j=0;try{((j=numbs.pop())<999)}catch(Exception e){break;}&& !numbs.isEmpty(); ){ System.out.println(j); } // I waited for 1 to be printed, not 2. } } Some Errors javac listTest.java listTest.java:10: illegal start of expression for(int count=0,j=0;try{((j=numbs.pop())<999)}catch(Exception e){break;}&& ^ listTest.java:10: illegal start of expression for(int count=0,j=0;try{((j=numbs.pop())<999)}catch(Exception e){break;}&& ^

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  • Extremely strange glitch in Chrome - parses contents of string!

    - by George Edison
    Okay - this is the dumbest glitch I have seen in a while: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <script type='text/javascript'> var data = "</script>"; </script> </head> <body> This should break! </body> </html> This causes syntax errors because the JavaScript parser is actually reading the contents of the string. How stupid! How can I put </script> in my code. Is there any way? Is there a valid reason for this behavior?

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  • Concurrent Programming:Should I write a sequential program first, then add thread safety?

    - by evthim
    I'm working on a project where we have to create a number of threads(actual number will be inputted in by testers (TA's)). I'm having trouble not only with the programming but also with the design, I can't wrap my head around all of the threads that will be invoked and where I might cause errors. The project is due soon so I don't want to waste time on this if it'll actually set me back, but I was wondering if I should write the program like only one thread will be running and everything should be sequential and then later go back and try to add the thread safety parts of the code? Would that take twice the original amount of time? Project Description: Note:I'm going to be as vague as possible so I don't violate any honor codes, sorry :( your program should accept n number of objectA threads, m number of objectB threads, and r number of objectC objectB threads interact with code in objectA. objectA threads interact with code in objectB and objectC objectB and objectC don't directly interact, but do so indirectly through objectA -ex: objectB needs something from objectA. objectA gets the result for that something by calling objectC my confusion stems mostly from the fact that all of this interactions will be done by m+n threads and there are various restrictions throughout the descriptions, like objectB can request something from objectA, and objectA has to wait for objectC to finish that something before returning it to objectB. Also each objectA thread can only work on one instruction from objectB at a time, etc. etc. I just want to know if I write the code so that there is only 1 objectA, 1 objectB and 1 object C, can I go back and easily modify it so that those 1's can be changed to m, n and r? Sorry again, if my description is a little bit confusing.

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  • javascript error handeling

    - by pankaj
    I have a javascript function for checking errors which i am callin on OnClicentClick event of a button. Once it catch a error i want to stop execution of click event . But in my case it always it always executes the onclick event. Following is my function: function DisplayError() { if (document.getElementById('<%=txtPassword.ClientID %>').value.length < 6 || document.getElementById('<%=txtPassword.ClientID %>').value.length > 12) { document.getElementById('<%=lblError.ClientID %>').innerText = "Password length must be between 6 to 12 characters"; return false; } var str = <%=PhoneNumber()%>; if(str.length <10) { alert('<%=phoneNum%>'.length); document.getElementById('<%=lblError.ClientID %>').innerText = "Phone Number not in correct format"; return false; } } button html code: <asp:Button runat="server" Text="Submit" ID="btnSubmit" ValidationGroup="submit" onclick="btnSubmit_Click" OnClientClick="DisplayError()"/> It should not execute the button click event once it satisfies any of the IF condition in javascript function.

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  • Best way to catch a WCF exception in Silverlight?

    - by wahrhaft
    I have a Silverlight 2 application that is consuming a WCF service. As such, it uses asynchronous callbacks for all the calls to the methods of the service. If the service is not running, or it crashes, or the network goes down, etc before or during one of these calls, an exception is generated as you would expect. The problem is, I don't know how to catch this exception. Because it is an asynchronous call, I can't wrap my begin call with a try/catch block and have it pick up an exception that happens after the program has moved on from that point. Because the service proxy is automatically generated, I can't put a try/catch block on each and every generated function that calls EndInvoke (where the exception actually shows up). These generated functions are also surrounded by External Code in the call stack, so there's nowhere else in the stack to put a try/catch either. I can't put the try/catch in my callback functions, because the exception occurs before they would get called. There is an Application_UnhandledException function in my App.xaml.cs, which captures all unhandled exceptions. I could use this, but it seems like a messy way to do it. I'd rather reserve this function for the truly unexpected errors (aka bugs) and not end up with code in this function for every circumstance I'd like to deal with in a specific way. Am I missing an obvious solution? Or am I stuck using Application_UnhandledException? [Edit] As mentioned below, the Error property is exactly what I was looking for. What is throwing me for a loop is that the fact that the exception is thrown and appears to be uncaught, yet execution is able to continue. It triggers the Application_UnhandledException event and causes VS2008 to break execution, but continuing in the debugger allows execution to continue. It's not really a problem, it just seems odd.

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  • duplicate rows in join table with has_many => through and accepts_nested_attributes_for

    - by shalako
    An event has many artists, and an artist has many events. The join of an artist and an event is called a performance. I want to add artists to an event. This works except that I'm getting duplicate entries into my join table when creating a new event. This causes problems elsewhere. event.rb has_many :performances, :dependent => :destroy has_many :artists, :through => :performances accepts_nested_attributes_for :artists, :reject_if => proc {|a| a['name'].blank?} accepts_nested_attributes_for :performances, :reject_if => proc { |a| a['artist_id'].blank? }, :allow_destroy => true artist.rb has_many :performances, :dependent => :destroy has_many :artists, :through => :performances performance.rb belongs_to :artist belongs_to :event events_controller.rb def new @event = Event.new @event.artists.build respond_to do |format| format.html # new.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @event } end end def create @event = Event.new(params[:event]) respond_to do |format| if @event.save flash[:notice] = 'Event was successfully created.' format.html { redirect_to(admin_events_url) } format.xml { render :xml => @event, :status => :created, :location => @event } else format.html { render :action => "new" } format.xml { render :xml => @event.errors, :status => :unprocessable_entity } end end end output Performance Create (0.2ms) INSERT INTO `performances` (`event_id`, `artist_id`) VALUES(7, 19) Performance Create (0.1ms) INSERT INTO `performances` (`event_id`, `artist_id`) VALUES(7, 19)

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  • How do I create a simple Windows form to access a SQL Server database?

    - by NoCatharsis
    I believe this is a very novice question, and if I'm using the wrong forum to ask, please advise. I have a basic understanding of databasing with MS SQL Server, and programming with C++ and C#. I'm trying to teach myself more by setting up my own database with MS SQL Server Express 2008 R2 and accessing it via Windows forms created in C# Express 2010. At this point, I just want to keep it to free or Express dev tools (not necessarily Microsoft though). Anyway, I created a database using the instructions provided here and I set the data types appropriately for each column (no errors in setup at least). Now I'm designing the GUI in C# Express but I've kind of hit a wall as far as the database connection. Is there a simple way to access the database I created locally using C# Express? Can anyone suggest a guide that has all this spelled out already? I am a self-learner so I look forward to teaching myself how to use these applications, but any pointers to start me off in the right direction would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Is this WPF error handling a good idea ?

    - by Adiel
    I have a multi threaded wpf application with various HW interfaces. I want to react to several HW failures that can happen. For example : one of the interfaces is a temperature sensor and i want that from a certain temp. a meesage would appear and notify the user that it happened. i came up with the follwing design : /// <summary> /// This logic reacts to errors that occur during the system run. /// The reaction is set by the component that raised the error. /// </summary> public class ErrorHandlingLogic : Logic { } the above class would consume ErrorEventData that holds all the information about the error that occurred. public class ErrorEventData : IEventData { #region public enum public enum ErrorReaction { } #endregion public enum #region Private Data Memebers and props private ErrorReaction m_ErrorReaction; public ErrorReaction ErrorReactionValue { get { return m_ErrorReaction; } set { m_ErrorReaction = value; } } private string m_Msg; public string Msg { get { return m_Msg; } set { m_Msg = value; } } private string m_ComponentName; public string ComponentName { get { return m_ComponentName; } set { m_ComponentName = value; } } #endregion Private Data Memebers and props public ErrorEventData(ErrorReaction reaction, string msg, string componenetName) { m_ErrorReaction = reaction; m_Msg = msg; m_ComponentName = componenetName; } } the above ErrorHandlingLogic would decide what to do with the ErrorEventData sent to him from various components of the application. if needed it would be forwarded to the GUI to display a message to the user. so what do you think is it a good design ? thanks, Adiel.

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  • MS Access (Jet) transactions, workspaces & scope

    - by Eric G
    I am having trouble with committing a transaction (using Access 2003 DAO). It's acting as if I never had called BeginTrans -- I get error 3034 on CommitTrans, "You tried to commit or rollback a transaction without first beginning a transaction"; and the changes are written to the database (presumably because they were never wrapped in a transaction). However, BeginTrans is run, if you step through it. I am running it within the Access environment using the DBEngine(0) workspace. The tables I'm updating are all opened via a Jet database connection (to the same database) and updated using DAO.Recordset.update. The connection is opened before starting BeforeTrans. I'm not doing anything weird in the middle of the transaction like closing/opening connections or multiple workspaces etc. There is one nested transaction level (basically it's wrapping multiple transacted updates in an outer transaction, so if any fail they all fail). The inner transactions run without errors, it's the outer transaction that doesn't work. Here are a few things I've looked into and ruled out: The transaction is spread across several methods and BeginTrans and CommitTrans (and Rollback) are all in different places. But when I tried a simple test of running a transaction this way, it doesn't seem like this should matter. I thought maybe the database connection gets closed when it goes out of local scope, even though I have another 'global' reference to it (I'm never sure what DAO does with dbase connections to be honest). But this seems not to be the case -- right before the commit, the connection and its recordsets are alive (I can check their properties, EOF = False, etc.) My CommitTrans and Rollback are done within event callbacks. (Very basically, a parser program is throwing an 'onLoad' or 'onLoadFail' event at the end of parsing, which I am handling by either committing or rolling back the inserts I made during processing.) However, again, trying a simple test, it doesn't seem like this should matter. Any ideas why this isn't working for me? Thanks.

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  • Passing information safely between Wicket and Hibernate in long running conversations

    - by Peter Tillemans
    We are using Wicket with Hibernate in the background. As part of out UI we have quite long running conversations spanning multiple requests before the updated information is written back to the database. To avoid getting hibernate errors with detached objects we are now using value objects to transfer info from the service layer to Wicket. However we now end up with an explosion of almost the same objects : e.g. Answer (mapped entity saved in hibernate) AnswerVO (immutable value object) AnswerModel (A mutable bean in the session domain) IModel wrapped Wicket Model and usually this gets wrapped in a CompoundPropertyModel This plumbing becomes exponentially worse when collections to other objects are involved in the objects. There has to be a better way to organize this. Can anyone share tips to make this less onerous? Maybe make the value objects mutable so we can remove the need for a seaprate backing bean in Wicket? Use the entity beans but absolutely make dead-certain they are detached from hibernate. (easier said than done)? Some other tricks or patterns?

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  • jQuery > Update inline script on form submission

    - by Andrew Kirk
    I am using the ChemDoodle Web Components to display molecules on a web page. Basically, I can just insert the following script in my page and it will create an HTML5 canvas element to display the molecule. <script> var transform1 = new TransformCanvas('transform1', 200, 200, true); transform1.specs.bonds_useJMOLColors = true; transform1.specs.bonds_width_2D = 3; transform1.specs.atoms_useJMOLColors = true; transform1.specs.atoms_circles_2D = true; transform1.specs.backgroundColor = 'black'; transform1.specs.bonds_clearOverlaps_2D = true; transform1.loadMolecule(readPDB(molecule)); </script> In this example, "molecule" is a variable that I have defined in an external script by using the jQuery.ajax() function to load a PDB file. This is all fine and good. Now, I would like to include a form on the page that will allow a user to paste in a PDB molecule definition. Upon submitting the form, I want to update the "molecule" variable with the form data so that the ChemDoodle Web Components script will work its magic and display molecule defined by the PDB definition pasted into the form. I am using the following jQuery code to process the the form submission. $(".button").click(function() { // validate and process form here //hide previous errors $('.error').hide(); //validate pdb textarea field var pdb = $("textarea#pdb").val(); if (pdb == "") { $("label#pdb_error").show(); $("textarea#pdb").focus(); return false; } molecule = pdb; }); This code is setting the "molecule" variable upon the form submission but it is not being passed back to the inline script as I had hoped. I have tried a number of variations on this but can't seem to get it right. Any clues as to where I might be going wrong would be much appreciated.

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  • CakePHP adding columns to a table

    - by vette982
    I have a Profile model/controller in my cake app as well as an index.ctp view in /views/profiles. Now, when I go to add a column to my table that is already filled with data, and then add the corresponding code to the view to pick up this column's data, it just gives me an empty result. My model: <?php class Profile extends AppModel { var $name = 'Profile'; } ?> My controller: <?php class ProfilesController extends AppController { var $name = 'Profiles'; function index() { $this->set('profiles', $this->Profile->find('all')); } } ?> My views printing (stripped down): <?php foreach ($profiles as $profile): ?> <?php echo $profile['Profile']['id']; ?> <?php echo $profile['Profile']['username']; ?> <?php echo $profile['Profile']['created']; ?> <?php echo $profile['Profile']['thumbnail'];?> <?php echo $profile['Profile']['account'];?> <?php endforeach; ?> Basically, the columns id, username, column, thumbnail always have been printing fine, but when I add a column called accountit returns no information (nothing prints, but no errors). Any suggestions?

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  • Why do I get "mysql_query(): supplied argument is not a valid"

    - by Brian Ojeda
    Why do I get a "mysql_query(): supplied argument is not a valid" for the first... $r = mysql_query($q, $connection); In the following code... $bId = trim($_POST['bId']); $title = trim($_POST['title']); $story = trim($_POST['story']); $q = "SELECT * "; $q .= "FROM " . DB_NAME . ".`blog` "; $q .= "WHERE `blog`.`id` = {$bId}"; $r = mysql_query($q, $connection); //confirm_query($r); if (mysql_num_rows($r) == 1) { $q = "UPDATE " . DB_NAME . ".`blog` SET `title` = '{$title}', `story` = '{$story}' WHERE `id` = {$bId}"; $r = mysql_query($q, $connection); if (mysql_affected_rows() == 1) { //Successful $data['success'] = true; $date['errors'] = false; $date['message'] = "You are the Greatest!"; } else { //Fail $data['success'] = false; $data['error'] = true; $date['message'] = "You can't do it fool!"; } } I also get an "mysql_num_rows(): supplied argument is not a valid MySQL result resource" error too. Side notes: I am using 1&1 Hosting (worst hosting ever), custom .htaccess file with one line text to enable PHP 5.2 (only why with 1&1 Hosting).

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  • NUnit for VS has suddenly bombed.. Anyone else experience this?

    - by Ian P
    I'm getting the following set of errors in a project, that previously worked fine, from NUnit for VS when I try to run either individual or all of the tests in a given solution. Error loading C:\Path to Application\Application\Application.ApplicationTests\bin\Debug\Application.ApplicationTests.dll: The method or operation is not implemented. Error loading C:\Path to Application\Application\Application.FileDetectorTests\bin\Debug\FileDetectorTests.dll: The method or operation is not implemented. Error loading C:\Path to Application\Application\Application.PresentationTests\bin\Debug\Application.PresentationTests.dll: The method or operation is not implemented. Error loading C:\Path to Application\Application\Application.DomainTests\bin\Debug\Application.DomainTests.dll: The method or operation is not implemented. I've verified that each project is setup with the appropriate ProjectTypeGuids for a test project in the Project file. I've tried uninstalling / reinstalling NUnit for VS, but have had no luck. Does anyone have any advice as to how I might start troubleshooting this? If I open each individual test project outside of the main solution (that includes all projects, by the way,) and save it as it's own solution, they run just fine. Nothing of note has changed since this stopped working. Thanks! Ian

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  • what is a root directory in IIS 6 and How do I make one of my subfolder in ASP.NET website the root directory?

    - by R_Coder
    I need to integrate a third party plugin in my asp.net website. To install the plugin, they have mentioned this sentence, "Create an application through your IIS control panel with root directory at -(some path from my website folder)?". I am not much aware with IIS and rarely worked with it. Though I tried every possible way i could do in IIS, I am not able to work it out. After installation, there is a test page provided by plugin which i have to run to check but when I run it, it shows this error. "It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level. This error can be caused by a virtual directory not being configured as an application in IIS." I searched this error too and found that it is because the two Web.Config file, one from the main project and another from plugin folder. The only way to work with this is to make the plugin folder they specified as root directory in IIS. Someone kindly tell me some easy steps to do this. What I was doing is, in IIS6, I added New website with the main folder of my asp.net website, then I right clickadd application and choosed the gievn path, thought it would become root directory but it ain't. Help would be appreciated. ALso note that, i have to put the plugin folder in my main website folder only. So, there are two web.config. I tried to rename one of them too, it solved the above error but gave another errors but I think main problem is of root directory. P.S they show me above error on web.config file of plugin folder on this sentence- "Line 51: < authentication mode="Windows" />"

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  • How do I tweak columns in a Flat File Destination in SSIS?

    - by theog
    I have an OLE DB Data source and a Flat File Destination in the Data Flow of my SSIS Project. The goal is simply to pump data into a text file, and it does that. Where I'm having problems is with the formatting. I need to be able to rtrim() a couple of columns to remove trailing spaces, and I have a couple more that need their leading zeros preserved. The current process is losing all the leading zeros. The rtrim() can be done by simple truncation and ignoring the truncation errors, but that's very inelegant and error prone. I'd like to find a better way, like actually doing the rtrim() function where needed. Exploring similar SSIS questions & answers on SO, the thing to do seems to be "Use a Script Task", but that's ususally just thrown out there with no details, and it's not at all an intuitive thing to set up. I don't see how to use scripting to do what I need. Do I use a Script Task on the Control Flow, or a Script Component in the Data Flow? Can I do rtrim() and pad strings where needed in a script? Anybody got an example of doing this or similar things? Many thanks in advance.

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  • Account activation PHP

    - by Wayne
    I created this account registration activation script of my own, I have checked it over again and again to find errors, I don't see a particular error... The domain would be like this: http://domain.com/include/register.php?key=true&p=AfRWDCOWF0BO6KSb6UmNMf7d333gaBOB Which comes from an email, when a user clicks it, they get redirected to this script: if($_GET['key'] == true) { $key = $_GET['p']; $sql = "SELECT * FROM users WHERE user_key = '" . $key . "'"; $result = mysql_query($sql) or die(mysql_error()); if(mysql_affected_rows($result) > 0) { $sql = "UPDATE users SET user_key = '', user_active = '1' WHERE user_key = '" . $key . "'"; $result = mysql_query(sql) or die(mysql_error()); if($result) { $_SESSION['PROCESS'] = $lang['Account_activated']; header("Location: ../index.php"); } else { $_SESSION['ERROR'] = $lang['Key_error']; header("Location: ../index.php"); } } else { $_SESSION['ERROR'] = $lang['Invalid_key']; header("Location: ../index.php"); } } It doesn't even work at all, I looked in the database with the user with that key, it matches but it keeps coming up as an error which is extremely annoying me. The database is right, the table and column is right, nothing wrong with the database, it's the script that isn't working. Help me out, guys. Thanks :)

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  • How to properly use Object Contexts in Entity Framework using BackgroundWorker

    - by OffApps Cory
    Good day, I am developing using Entity Framework and WPF, and I am encountering some errors and I don't know why. When saving a record (using a BackgroundWorker), I set the entities change tracker to nothing (null), attach the record to a new disposable context, save it, detach, and dispose of the context. Saving a record fires and event in the MainViewModel of the program that the other ViewModels (including the one that is saving) need to refresh their entities to reflect changes. Private Sub _saveRecordWorker_DoWork(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.ComponentModel.DoWorkEventArgs) Handles _saveRecordWorker.DoWork Using MyContext As New RVShippingEntities Dim MyShipment = CType(ShipmentRecord, IEntityWithChangeTracker) MyShipment.SetChangeTracker(Nothing) MyContext.Attach(MyShipment) MyContext.Detach(ShipmentRecord) End Using End Sub The Refresh background worker is similar, but it has a Do While block to keep it from interfering with the save worker (which doesn't appear to be working; hence the post). When I save (and it subsequently refreshes) I get the following error: The calling thread cannot access this object because a different thread owns it. I thought that with the DoWhile block, it would wait (and when i step through it does) until the save thread finished, and all would be good. But it would seem that something (either the main thread or the save thread) is still doing something that is interfering. Is there a better way of doing this? Am I doing it is a goofy kludgey fashion? Any help would be appreciated. (Apparently Firefox recognized kludgey as a word. Interesting)

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  • about c# OBJECTS and the Possibilties it has.

    - by user527825
    As a novice programmer and i always wonder about c# capabilities.i know it is still early to judge that but all i want to know is can c# do complex stuffs or something outside windows OS. 1- I think c# is a proprietary language (i don't know if i said that right) meaning you can't do it outside visual studio or windows. 2-also you cant create your own controller(called object right?) like you are forced to use these available in toolbox and their properties and methods. 3-can c# be used with openGL API or DirectX API . 4-Finally it always bothers me when i think i start doing things in visual studio, i know it sounds arrogant to say but sometimes i feel that i don't like to be forced to use something even if its helpful, like i feel (do i have the right to feel?) that i want to do all things by myself? don't laugh i just feel that this will give me a better understanding. 5- is visual c# is like using MaxScript inside 3ds max in that c# is exclusive to do windows and forms and components that are windows related and maxscript is only for 3d editing and manipulation for various things in the software. If it is too difficult for a beginner i hope you don't answer the fourth question as i don't have enough motivation and i want to keep the little i have. thank you for your time. Note: 1-sorry for my English, i am self taught and never used the language with native speakers so expect so errors. 2-i have a lot of questions regarding many things, what is the daily ratio you think for asking (number of questions) that would not bother the admins of the site and the members here. thank you for your time.

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  • file upload in JSF using myfaces component

    - by prt
    Hi, all i am creating a JSF application where file uploading functionality is required.I have added all the required jar files in my /WEB-INF/lib folder. jsf-api.jar jsf-impl.jar jstl.jar standard.jar myfaces-extensions.jar commons-collections.jar commons-digester.jar commons-beanutils.jar commons-logging.jar commons-fileupload-1.0.jar but still when trying to deploy the application on apache 6.0.29 i am getting the following error. org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContext addApplicationListener INFO: The listener "com.sun.faces.config.ConfigureListener" is already configured for this context. The duplicate definition has been ignored. org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContext start SEVERE: Error listenerStart PM org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContext start SEVERE: Context [/jsfApplication] startup failed due to previous errors org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader clearReferencesJdbc The web application [/jsfApplication] registered the JBDC driver [com.mysql.jdbc.Driver] but failed to unregister it when the web application was stopped. To prevent a memory leak, the JDBC Driver has been forcibly unregistered. org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader clearReferencesThreads SEVERE: The web application [/jsfApplication] appears to have started a thread named [Timer-0] but has failed to stop it. This is very likely to create a memory leak. org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader clearReferencesThreads SEVERE: The web application [/jsfApplication] appears to have started a thread named [MySQL Statement Cancellation Timer] but has failed to stop it. This is very likely to create a memory leak. log4j:ERROR LogMananger.repositorySelector was null likely due to error in class reloading, using NOPLoggerRepository. i am using also using hibernate and spring framework for this application. please help. thanks,

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  • Validate HAML from ActiveRecord: scope/controller/helpers for link_to etc?

    - by Chris Boyle
    I like HAML. So much, in fact, that in my first Rails app, which is the usual blog/CMS thing, I want to render the body of my Page model using HAML. So here is app/views/pages/_body.html.haml: .entry-content= Haml::Engine.new(body, :format => :html5).render ...and it works (yay, recursion). What I'd like to do is validate the HAML in the body when creating or updating a Page. I can almost do that, but I'm stuck on the scope argument to render. I have this in app/models/page.rb: validates_each :body do |record, attr, value| begin Haml::Engine.new(value, :format => :html5).render(record) rescue Exception => e record.errors.add attr, "line #{(e.respond_to? :line) && e.line || 'unknown'}: #{e.message}" end end You can see I'm passing record, which is a Page, but even that doesn't have a controller, and in particular doesn't have any helpers like link_to, so as soon as a Page uses any of that it's going to fail to validate even when it would actually render just fine. So I guess I need a controller as scope for this, but accessing that from here in the model (where the validator is) is a big MVC no-no, and as such I don't think Rails gives me a way to do it. (I mean, I suppose I could stash a controller in some singleton somewhere or something, but... excuse me while I throw up.) What's the least ugly way to properly validate HAML in an ActiveRecord validator?

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  • Rails: using find method to access joined tables for polymorphic relationships

    - by DJTripleThreat
    Ok, I have a generic TimeSlot model that deals with a start_at and an end_at for time spans. A couple models derive from this but I'm referring to one in this question: AppointmentBlock which is a collection of Appointments. I want to validate an AppointmentBlock such that no other AppointmentBlocks have been scheduled for a particular Employee in the same time frame. Since AppointmentBlock has a polymorphic association with TimeSlot, you have to access the AppointmentBlock's start_at and end_at through the TimeSlot like so: appt_block.time_slot.start_at This means that I need to have some kind of join in my :conditions for my find() method call. Here is my code so far: #inside my appointment_block.rb model validate :employee_not_double_booked def employee_not_double_booked unless self.employee_id # this find's condition is incorrect because I need to join time_slots to get access # to start_at and end_at. How can I do this? blocks = AppointmentBlock.find(:first, :conditions => ['employee_id = ? and (start_at between ? and ? or end_at between ? and ?)', self.employee_id, self.time_slot.start_at, self.time_slot.end_at, self.time_slot.start_at, self.time_slot.end_at]) # pseudo code: # collect a list of appointment blocks that end after this # apointment block starts or start before this appointment # block ends that are also associated with this appointment # blocks assigned employee # if the count is great then 0 the employee has been double # booked. # if a block was found that means this employee is getting # double booked so raise an error errors.add "AppointmentBlock", "has already been scheduled during this time" if blocks end end Since AppointmentBlock doesn't have a start_at or an end_at how can I join with the time_slots table to get those conditions to work?

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  • Pro ASP.Net MVC 3 Entity Framework Sports Store tutorial

    - by gary7
    Following the tutorial in the book "Pro ASP.Net MVC 3 Entity Framework" in Chapter 9 - Image Uploads section; asks that the Product class be updated with two new columns - public byte ImageData, and public string ImageType. It also directs that the database be updated with these two columns via the server explorer. After these updates, the discussion directs that the Entity Framework Conceptual Model be updated via the SportsStore.EDMX file. This file does not exist in the source code for the project, and was not used in the project to begin with. Obvious errata for the book. Adding the ADO.NET Entity Data Model to the Project then overrides the EFProduct reposistory (conceptual model used throughout the project) which inherits from the interface IProductsRepository; and results in errors within the mapping. If the project is debugged after the columns are added, an error is thrown related to the new added columns. Has anyone resolved this issue in the project? I haven't found any solutions so far. Thanks!

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