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  • Is it possible to store pointers in shared memory without using offsets?

    - by Joseph Garvin
    When using shared memory, each process may mmap the shared region into a different area of their address space. This means that when storing pointers within the shared region, you need to store them as offsets of the start of the shared region. Unfortunately, this complicates use of atomic instructions (e.g. if you're trying to write a lock free algorithm). For example, say you have a bunch of reference counted nodes in shared memory, created by a single writer. The writer periodically atomically updates a pointer 'p' to point to a valid node with positive reference count. Readers want to atomically write to 'p' because it points to the beginning of a node (a struct) whose first element is a reference count. Since p always points to a valid node, incrementing the ref count is safe, and makes it safe to dereference 'p' and access other members. However, this all only works when everything is in the same address space. If the nodes and the 'p' pointer are stored in shared memory, then clients suffer a race condition: x = read p y = x + offset Increment refcount at y During step 2, p may change and x may no longer point to a valid node. The only workaround I can think of is somehow forcing all processes to agree on where to map the shared memory, so that real pointers rather than offsets can be stored in the mmap'd region. Is there any way to do that? I see MAP_FIXED in the mmap documentation, but I don't know how I could pick an address that would be safe.

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  • password validator using RegExp in Flex

    - by kalyaniRavi
    I have seen several examples in Flex for passowrd validator using RegExp. But every where the validation is happend for single validation. I have a requirement, like password validations like • At least one Upper case letter • At least one numeric character • At least one special character such as @, #, $, etc. • At least one Lower case letter • password lenght minimum 6 digits • password cannot be same as user name Can anyone provide me a code for this..? I have the code only for checking the password is valid or not . check the below code. MXML CODE <mx:FormItem label="Username:" x="83" y="96" width="66"> </mx:FormItem> <mx:FormItem label="Password:" x="88" y="123" width="61"> </mx:FormItem> <mx:Button label="Login" id="btnLogin" tabIndex="2" click="login();" enabled="{formIsValid}" x="327" y="162" width="84"/> <mx:TextInput id="txtPassword" displayAsPassword="true" change="validateForm(event);" x="152" y="121" width="217"/> <mx:TextInput id="txtUserId" change="validateForm(event);" x="152" y="94" width="217"/> AS Code: private function validateForm(event:Event):void { focussedFormControl = event.target as DisplayObject; formIsValid = true; formIsEmpty = (txtUserId.text == "" && txtPassword.text == ""); validate(strVUserId); validate(strVPassword); } private function validate(validator:Validator):Boolean { var validatorSource:DisplayObject = validator.source as DisplayObject; var suppressEvents:Boolean = (validatorSource != focussedFormControl); var event:ValidationResultEvent = validator.validate(null, suppressEvents); var currentControlIsValid:Boolean = (event.type == ValidationResultEvent.VALID); formIsValid = formIsValid && currentControlIsValid; return currentControlIsValid; }

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  • How to identify a particular entity's Session Factory with Fluent NHibernate and Multiple Databases

    - by Trevor
    I've already asked this question as part of an answer to another question ( see http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2655861/fluent-nhibernate-multiple-databases ) but thought it better to ask again here. My problem is this: I'm using Fluent NHibernate. My application uses multiple databases. Each database has its own entities registered (mapped) against it. The result is that have multiple Session Factories, each one relating to a single DB, and each 'containing' its own set of mapped entities. For loading entities I've created a generic Factory class that provides some standard load methods usable for any registered entity (in any DB). The problem is: The load methods need to use the correct session factory for the entity class I'm busy dealing with. How would I determine which session factory I need to use? I have all the Session Factories 'on hand' (and indexed by database name), I just need a way, knowing just the type of Entity I'm about to load, of choosing the right Session Factory to use. For example: public IBaseBusinessObject CreatePopulatedInstance(Type boType, Guid instanceKey) { IBaseBusinessObject result = null; ISessionFactory sessionFactory = GetSessionFactory(boType); using (ISession session = sessionFactory.OpenSession()) { using (session.BeginTransaction()) { result = (IBaseBusinessObject)session.Get(boType, instanceKey); } } return result; } What needs to go on in GetSessionFactory(boType) ? Thanks for reading!

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  • SIGABRT on any UIView touch

    - by bitcruncher
    Hi. I'm afraid no amount of Googling has been able to save my hyde on this. I seem to be getting SIGABRT error anytime I touch the screen of the phone, on any UIView. The debugger console posts this error before the SIGABRT: .... [310:207] *** -[UIView _exclusiveTouchView]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x14c0c0 .... [310:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[UIView _exclusiveTouchView]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x14c0c0' (this is not my specific call to _exclusiveTouchView, of course.) I would gladly post some code, but the truth is I cannot find (or guess) where this problem may be coming from. This is not happening on any ONE UIView but on all the UIViews in my stack. I can summarize the display logic, though, perhaps that will shed some light. So the application is created and a UIWindow is alloc'd. A single viewcontroller is then alloc'd, which makes and adds its own blank self.view, to which the other UIViews, representing the different game states, are attached. Interestingly enough, this error is does NOT happen on the Simulator, but happens consistently on the device. And I should also mention that the application has yet to override/use any of the touchesBegan:/Ended:/Moved: etc... In other words, this error happens without these methods in the code. I'm really not understanding where this error is coming from... Any suggestions?

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  • Filter of Data in Gridview logical error please using asp.net

    - by RajuBabli Abbasi
    I wanted to filter the Data in asp.net but my Data is not filtering i have some logical error So please help me for this case i will be very thanks full to those who will help me please consider my code and replay me with code if you can so please i am waiting for your replay thanks again my asp.cs file is protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) { DisplayStudentInformation(); } } private void DisplayStudentInformation() { string filter = "%" + filterTextBox.Text + "%"; if (filter == String.Empty) filter = "%"; try { using (SqlDataReader reader = DAC.GetCompanyInformation(filter)) {//reader.Read(); StudentGridView.DataSource = reader; StudentGridView.DataBind(); } } catch (SqlException ex) { StatusLabel.Text = ex.Message; } } my .aspx file is asp:Table ID="Tabel" runat ="server" asp:TableRow asp:TableCell asp:Label ID="filterLabel" runat ="server" Text ="Company Name Filter:" AssociatedControlID="filterTextBox" /asp:TableCell asp:TableCell asp:TextBox ID="filterTextBox" runat="server" MaxLength ="50" /asp:TableCell asp:TableCell asp:Button ID="refreshButton" runat ="server" Text ="Filter" CausesValidation="false" / /asp:TableCell /asp:TableRow /asp:Table My DAC file is public static SqlDataReader GetCompanyInformation(string filter) { SqlDataReader reader; string sql = "SELECT * FROM Student WHERE LastName LIKE @prmLastName "; using(SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand (sql,ConnectionManager.GetConnection())) {//In ExecuteReader we pass the CommandBehavior as singleResult because we need the Single result and also passing the close connection when Datais retriev // command.Parameters.Add("@prmLastName", SqlDbType.VarChar, 25).Value = filter; command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@prmLastName", filter); reader = command.ExecuteReader(CommandBehavior.SingleResult | CommandBehavior.CloseConnection); } return reader; } Note:- When i don't use the If(!Ispostback) Condition and simply pass the DisplayStudentInformation(); method in my page load then Data can be filter but with If(!IspostBack ) condition which is also important for updating the data and for other purpose . Data can be filter . Se aim of the expert is that Filter the Data in a gridview using condition of IF(!IspostBack ) means without the removing is post back condition Filter the Data . I have been ask other about this question but no body solve this so please help me i will be very thanks full to you all ok

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  • Establishing persistent connection to a database in Java

    - by gmile
    I've ran through several examples over the web, and found that every single time I need something from the DB, I should write the following code: try { // Step 1: Load the JDBC driver. Class.forName("mysql_driver_name"); // Step 2: Establish the connection to the database. String url = "jdbc:string_to_mysql_server"; Connection conn = DriverManager.getConnection(url,"user1","password"); // fetch from the DB ... } catch (Exception e) { System.err.println("Got an exception! "); System.err.println(e.getMessage()); } It's very annoying to put up this code every time I want something from the DB, so the question is - is there a way to only once connect entirely all my app to the DB somehow at the very start point, avoiding copy-pasting mentioned code, and then be able to do everything I want with DB? I've quickly looked through NetBeans's Project menu, but didn't find any clue on how to configurate a persistent connection to a selected DB. If it's important, i'm writing a purely desktop app, i.e. using Java EE. Also, it's worth mentioning that I'm a kinda beginner in Java.

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  • Design Pattern for error handling in ASP.NET 3.5 site

    - by Kevin
    I am relatively new to ASP.NET programming, and web programming in general. We have a site we recently ported from .NET 1.1 to 3.5. Currently we have two methods of error handling: either catching the error during data load on a page and displaying the formatted error in a label on the page, or redirecting to a generic error page. Both of these are somewhat annoying, as right now I'm trying to redesign how our errors are displayed. We are soon moving to Master pages, and I'm wondering if there is a way to "build in" an error handling control. What I mean by this is using a ASP.NET user control I've designed that simply gets passed the error string returned from the server. If an error occurs, the page would not display the content, and instead display the error control. This provides us with the ability to retain the current banner/navigation during an error (which we don't get with the generic error page), as well as keeping me from having to add the control to every aspx page we have (which I have to do with using the label-per-page system). Does something like this make sense? Ultimately I just want to have the error control added to a single page, and all other pages have access to it directly. Is this something Master pages help with? Thanks!

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  • regex split and extract multiple parts from a string

    - by nLL
    I am trying to extract some parts of the "Video:" line from below text. Seems stream 0 codec frame rate differs from container frame rate: 30000.00 (300 00/1) -> 14.93 (1000/67) Input #0, mov,mp4,m4a,3gp,3g2,mj2, from 'C:\a.3gp': Metadata: major_brand : 3gp5 minor_version : 0 compatible_brands: 3gp5isom Duration: 00:00:45.82, start: 0.000000, bitrate: 357 kb/s Stream #0.0(und): Video: mpeg4, yuv420p, 352x276 [PAR 1:1 DAR 88:69], 344 kb /s, 14.93 fps, 14.93 tbr, 90k tbn, 30k tbc Stream #0.1(und): Audio: aac, 16000 Hz, mono, s16, 11 kb/s Stream #0.2(und): Data: mp4s / 0x7334706D, 0 kb/s Stream #0.3(und): Data: mp4s / 0x7334706D, 0 kb/s* This is an output from ffmpeg command line where i can get Video: part with private string ExtractVideoFormat(string rawInfo) { string v = string.Empty; Regex re = new Regex("[V|v]ideo:.*", RegexOptions.Compiled); Match m = re.Match(rawInfo); if (m.Success) { v = m.Value; } return v; } and result is mpeg4, yuv420p, 352x276 [PAR 1:1 DAR 88:69], 344 kb What i am trying to do is to somehow split that line and get mpeg4 yuv420p 352x276 [PAR 1:1 DAR 88:69] 344 kb assigned to different string objects instead of single

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  • multithreading issue

    - by vbNewbie
    I have written a multithreaded crawler and the process is simply creating threads and having them access a list of urls to crawl. They then access the urls and parse the html content. All this seems to work fine. Now when I need to write to tables in a database is when I experience issues. I have 2 declared arraylists that will contain the content each thread parse. The first arraylist is simply the rss feed links and the other arraylist contains the different posts. I then use a for each loop to iterate one while sequentially incrementing the other and writing to the database. My problem is that each time a new thread accesses one of the lists the content is changed and this affects the iteration. I tried using nested loops but it did not work before and this works fine using a single thread.I hope this makes sense. Here is my code: SyncLock dlock For Each l As String In links finallinks.Add(l) Next End SyncLock SyncLock dlock For Each p As String In posts finalposts.Add(p) Next End SyncLock ... Dim i As Integer = 0 SyncLock dlock For Each rsslink As String In finallinks postlink = finalposts.Item(i) i = i + 1 finallinks and finalposts are the two arraylists. I did not include the rest of the code which shows the threads working but this is the essential part where my error occurs which is basically here postlink = finalposts.Item(i) i = i + 1 ERROR: index was out of range. Must be non-negative and less than the size of the collection Is there an alternative?

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  • compiling and running java on windows

    - by artur grzesiak
    I thought the task should be fairly easy, but my understanding of javac and java in general is rather poor. I am using Windows8 and would like to compile a single file.java that makes use of other classes. I successfully (at least without any warnings) compiled my file by calling: javac -cp relative_path_to_needed_classes relative_path_to_file_java\file.java Now if I want to run the result of compilation (file.class) by calling: java -cp relative_path_to_needed_classes relative_path_to_file_java\file I get: Error: Could not find or load main class relative_path_to_file_java\file I was trying a lot of combination to modify the -cp (eg. by adding .\;relative_path_to_file;) but still the closest where I get is: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError : relative_path_to_file\file (wrong name: file) The file from (wrong name: file) is the name of the file and the name of the public class within the file. I was reading a lot on SO and other sources but could not figure out what is wrong. Btw. as a result of compilation some other classes were created: file$1.class file$name1.class file$name2.class (where name1 and name2 are names of private classes within file.java) My questions are: What is (the most) probably source of my error / what am I doing wrong? What is the purpose of file$1.class? What is the minimum I should specify in -cp? May encoding play any role? Do every java class have to reside in a package? (rather not directly related to my issue) Do order of paths specified in -cp play any role in runtime?

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  • MEF and ASP.NET MVC

    - by denis_n
    I want to use MEF with asp.net mvc. I wrote following controller factory: public class MefControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { private CompositionContainer _Container; public MefControllerFactory(Assembly assembly) { _Container = new CompositionContainer(new AssemblyCatalog(assembly)); } protected override IController GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) { if (controllerType != null) { var controllers = _Container.GetExports<IController>(); var controllerExport = controllers.Where(x => x.Value.GetType() == controllerType).FirstOrDefault(); if (controllerExport == null) { return base.GetControllerInstance(requestContext, controllerType); } return controllerExport.Value; } else { throw new HttpException((Int32)HttpStatusCode.NotFound, String.Format( "The controller for path '{0}' could not be found or it does not implement IController.", requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Path ) ); } } } In Global.asax.cs I'm setting my controller factory: protected void Application_Start() { AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); ControllerBuilder.Current.SetControllerFactory(new MefControllerFactory.MefControllerFactory(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly())); } I have an area: [Export(typeof(IController))] [PartCreationPolicy(CreationPolicy.NonShared)] public class HomeController : Controller { private readonly IArticleService _articleService; [ImportingConstructor] public HomeController(IArticleService articleService) { _articleService = articleService; } // // GET: /Articles/Home/ public ActionResult Index() { Article article = _articleService.GetById(55); return View(article); } } IArticleService is an interface. There is a class which implements IArticleService and Exports it. It works. Is this everything what I need for working with MEF? How can I skip setting PartCreationPolicy and ImportingConstructor for controller? I want to set my dependencies using constructor. When PartCreationPolicy is missing, I get following exception: A single instance of controller 'MvcApplication4.Areas.Articles.Controllers.HomeController' cannot be used to handle multiple requests. If a custom controller factory is in use, make sure that it creates a new instance of the controller for each request.

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  • Optional Member Objects

    - by David Relihan
    Okay, so you have a load of methods sprinkled around your systems main class. So you do the right thing and refactor by creating a new class and perform move method(s) into a new class. The new class has a single responsibility and all is right with the world again: class Feature { public: Feature(){}; void doSomething(); void doSomething1(); void doSomething2(); }; So now your original class has a member variable of type object: Feature _feature; Which you will call in the main class. Now if you do this many times, you will have many member-objects in your main class. Now these features may or not be required based on configuration so in a way it's costly having all these objects that may or not be needed. Can anyone suggest a way of improving this? At the moment I plan to test in the newly created class if the feature is enabled - so the when a call is made to method I will return if it is not enabled. I could have a pointer to the object and then only call new if feature is enabled - but this means I will have to test before I call a method on it which would be potentially dangerous and not very readable. Would having an auto_ptr to the object improve things: auto_ptr<Feature> feature; Or am I still paying the cost of object invokation even though the object may\or may not be required. BTW - I don't think this is premeature optimisation - I just want to consider the possibilites.

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  • Lookup site column not saving/storing metadata for Office 2007 documents?

    - by Greg Hurlman
    I'm having this issue on several server environments. We have a list at the site collection root. There is a site column created as a multi-value lookup on that list's Title field. This site column is used in document libraries in subsites as a required field. When we upload anything but an Office 2007 document, the user is presented with the document metadata fill-in screen (EditForm.aspx?Mode=Upload), the user fills in the appropriate data (including picking a value(s) for this lookup), and clicks "check in" - the document is checked in as expected, with the lookup field's value filled in. With an Office 2007 document, this fails. The user selected values for the lookup field do not ever make it to the server - no errors are thrown, but the field is not saved with the document. We have an event listener on these document libraries, and if we inspect the incoming SPListItem on the event listener method before a single line of our code has run, we see that the value for the lookup field is null. It smells like a SharePoint bug to me - but before I go calling Microsoft, has anyone seen this & worked around it? Edit: the only entry I see in the SP trace logs relating to the problem: CMS/Publishing/8ztg/Medium/Got List Item Version, but item was null

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  • Let multiple highcharts charts appear automatically from mysql data

    - by martini1993
    I have the following problem. I want to make multiple Highcharts webcharts appear automatically based on the data from the database. Let's say we have the following database: ___________________________________________________________________ | | | | | | | | Year | Month | ID | Name User | Wins | Losses | |_______|___________|______|_______________|____________|__________| | 2013 1 21 Tony Stark 3 12 | | 2013 1 52 Bruce Wayne 5 4 | | 2013 1 76 Clark Kent 9 5 | |__________________________________________________________________| (This database is an example, there are a lot more rows in the real database.) And i have the following query: SELECT a.year AS year1, a.month AS month1, a.id AS id, a.name AS nameuser, a.wins AS wins, a.losses AS losses FROM Sales a WHERE a.month = 1 AND a.year = YEAR(NOW()) With this, it is very easy to hardcode a chart with Highcharts. But what I want is that there has to be a webchart per user. So instead of a single webchart with all the users in it, I want multiple charts next to each other based on the data from the database. So instead of this: http://jsfiddle.net/CWSb6/ I want this (But then next to each other): http://jsfiddle.net/DReMD/ It has to be generated automatically with php and mysql. So if there is a new user starting this month, and the new user is saved in the database, the page automatically displays the new user with the related web chart. I find this very hard to accomplish and I need some help to get to the right direction for the solution. Many thanks in advance! (Sorry for my bad english.)

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  • Find out which row caused the error

    - by Felipe Fiali
    I have a big fat query that's written dynamically to integrate some data. Basically what it does is query some tables, join some other ones, treat some data, and then insert it into a final table. The problem is that there's too much data, and we can't really trust the sources, because there could be some errored or inconsistent data. For example, I've spent almost an hour looking for an error while developing using a customer's database because somewhere in the middle of my big fat query there was an error converting some varchar to datetime. It turned out to be that they had some sales dating '2009-02-29', an out-of-range date. And yes, I know. Why was that stored as varchar? Well, the source database has 3 columns for dates, 'Month', 'Day' and 'Year'. I have no idea why it's like that, but still, it is. But how the hell would I treat that, if the source is not trustable? I can't HANDLE exceptions, I really need that it comes up to another level with the original message, but I wanted to provide some more info, so that the user could at least try to solve it before calling us. So I thought about displaying to the user the row number, or some ID that would at least give him some idea of what record he'd have to correct. That's also a hard job because there will be times when the integration will run up to 80000 records. And in an 80000 records integration, a single dummy error message: 'The conversion of a varchar data type to a datetime data type resulted in an out-of-range datetime value' means nothing at all. So any idea would be appreciated. Oh I'm using SQL Server 2005 with Service Pack 3.

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  • How do you efficiently bulk index lookups?

    - by Liron Shapira
    I have these entity kinds: Molecule Atom MoleculeAtom Given a list(molecule_ids) whose lengths is in the hundreds, I need to get a dict of the form {molecule_id: list(atom_ids)}. Likewise, given a list(atom_ids) whose length is in the hunreds, I need to get a dict of the form {atom_id: list(molecule_ids)}. Both of these bulk lookups need to happen really fast. Right now I'm doing something like: atom_ids_by_molecule_id = {} for molecule_id in molecule_ids: moleculeatoms = MoleculeAtom.all().filter('molecule =', db.Key.from_path('molecule', molecule_id)).fetch(1000) atom_ids_by_molecule_id[molecule_id] = [ MoleculeAtom.atom.get_value_for_datastore(ma).id() for ma in moleculeatoms ] Like I said, len(molecule_ids) is in the hundreds. I need to do this kind of bulk index lookup on almost every single request, and I need it to be FAST, and right now it's too slow. Ideas: Will using a Molecule.atoms ListProperty do what I need? Consider that I am storing additional data on the MoleculeAtom node, and remember it's equally important for me to do the lookup in the molecule-atom and atom-molecule directions. Caching? I tried memcaching lists of atom IDs keyed by molecule ID, but I have tons of atoms and molecules, and the cache can't fit it. How about denormalizing the data by creating a new entity kind whose key name is a molecule ID and whose value is a list of atom IDs? The idea is, calling db.get on 500 keys is probably faster than looping through 500 fetches with filters, right?

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  • use proxy in python to fetch a webpage

    - by carmao
    I am trying to write a function in Python to use a public anonymous proxy and fetch a webpage, but I got a rather strange error. The code (I have Python 2.4): import urllib2 def get_source_html_proxy(url, pip, timeout): # timeout in seconds (maximum number of seconds willing for the code to wait in # case there is a proxy that is not working, then it gives up) proxy_handler = urllib2.ProxyHandler({'http': pip}) opener = urllib2.build_opener(proxy_handler) opener.addheaders = [('User-agent', 'Mozilla/5.0')] urllib2.install_opener(opener) req=urllib2.Request(url) sock=urllib2.urlopen(req) timp=0 # a counter that is going to measure the time until the result (webpage) is # returned while 1: data = sock.read(1024) timp=timp+1 if len(data) < 1024: break timpLimita=50000000 * timeout if timp==timpLimita: # 5 millions is about 1 second break if timp==timpLimita: print IPul + ": Connection is working, but the webpage is fetched in more than 50 seconds. This proxy returns the following IP: " + str(data) return str(data) else: print "This proxy " + IPul + "= good proxy. " + "It returns the following IP: " + str(data) return str(data) # Now, I call the function to test it for one single proxy (IP:port) that does not support user and password (a public high anonymity proxy) #(I put a proxy that I know is working - slow, but is working) rez=get_source_html_proxy("http://www.whatismyip.com/automation/n09230945.asp", "93.84.221.248:3128", 50) print rez The error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "./public_html/cgi-bin/teste5.py", line 43, in ? rez=get_source_html_proxy("http://www.whatismyip.com/automation/n09230945.asp", "93.84.221.248:3128", 50) File "./public_html/cgi-bin/teste5.py", line 18, in get_source_html_proxy sock=urllib2.urlopen(req) File "/usr/lib64/python2.4/urllib2.py", line 130, in urlopen return _opener.open(url, data) File "/usr/lib64/python2.4/urllib2.py", line 358, in open response = self._open(req, data) File "/usr/lib64/python2.4/urllib2.py", line 376, in _open '_open', req) File "/usr/lib64/python2.4/urllib2.py", line 337, in _call_chain result = func(*args) File "/usr/lib64/python2.4/urllib2.py", line 573, in lambda r, proxy=url, type=type, meth=self.proxy_open: \ File "/usr/lib64/python2.4/urllib2.py", line 580, in proxy_open if '@' in host: TypeError: iterable argument required I do not know why the character "@" is an issue (I have no such in my code. Should I have?) Thanks in advance for your valuable help.

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  • Managing Instances in Python

    - by BeensTheGreat
    Hello, I am new to Python and this is my first time asking a stackOverflow question, but a long time reader. I am working on a simple card based game but am having trouble managing instances of my Hand class. If you look below you can see that the hand class is a simple container for cards(which are just int values) and each Player class contains a hand class. However, whenever I create multiple instances of my Player class they all seem to manipulate a single instance of the Hand class. From my experience in C and Java it seems that I am somehow making my Hand class static. If anyone could help with this problem I would appreciate it greatly. Thank you, Thad To clarify: An example of this situation would be p = player.Player() p1 = player.Player() p.recieveCard(15) p1.recieveCard(21) p.viewHand() which would result in: [15,21] even though only one card was added to p Hand class: class Hand: index = 0 cards = [] #Collections of cards #Constructor def __init__(self): self.index self.cards def addCard(self, card): """Adds a card to current hand""" self.cards.append(card) return card def discardCard(self, card): """Discards a card from current hand""" self.cards.remove(card) return card def viewCards(self): """Returns a collection of cards""" return self.cards def fold(self): """Folds the current hand""" temp = self.cards self.cards = [] return temp Player Class import hand class Player: name = "" position = 0 chips = 0 dealer = 0 pHand = [] def __init__ (self, nm, pos, buyIn, deal): self.name = nm self.position = pos self.chips = buyIn self.dealer = deal self.pHand = hand.Hand() return def recieveCard(self, card): """Recieve card from the dealer""" self.pHand.addCard(card) return card def discardCard(self, card): """Throw away a card""" self.pHand.discardCard(card) return card def viewHand(self): """View the players hand""" return self.pHand.viewCards() def getChips(self): """Get the number of chips the player currently holds""" return self.chips def setChips(self, chip): """Sets the number of chips the player holds""" self.chips = chip return def makeDealer(self): """Makes this player the dealer""" self.dealer = 1 return def notDealer(self): """Makes this player not the dealer""" self.dealer = 0 return def isDealer(self): """Returns flag wether this player is the dealer""" return self.dealer def getPosition(self): """Returns position of the player""" return self.position def getName(self): """Returns name of the player""" return self.name

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  • Windows theme affecting ListView header

    - by LihO
    I've created new Windows Forms Application (C#) with one simple form containing ListView. Then I changed the View Property to Details and increased the size of the font used in this ListView and here's the result: This is how it looks on Windows XP with Windows Classic theme: and here's the result with Windows XP theme: Creating the same Windows Forms Application in Visual C++ instead of C# yields same result. EDIT : Thanks to Kamil Lach, we already know that Visual Styles is what makes the appearance of ListView change. This can be avoided either by removing Application.EnableVisualStyles() call or by changing the Application.VisualStyleState. Both of these solutions yield the following result: This looks fine, but this change affects the appearance of other controls which is not good. I'd like my ListView to be the only control that is not affected by Visual Styles. I've also found similar questions that try to deal with it: Can you turn off visual styles/theming for just a single windows control? How do I disable visual styles for just one control, and not its children? Unfortunately, none of mentioned solutions works. Any C# solution that would make the ListView header have the correct height would be appreciated.

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  • Advanced ASP.NET Gridview Layout

    - by chief7
    So i had a feature request to add fields to a second table row for a single data row on a GridView. At first, I looked at extending the functionality of the GridView but soon realized this would be a huge task and since I consider this request a shim for a larger future feature decided against it. Also want to move to MVC in the near future and this would be throw away code. So instead I created a little jquery script to move the cell to the next row in the table. $(document).ready(function() { $(".fieldAttributesNextRow").each(function() { var parent = $(this).parent(); var newRow = $("<tr></tr>"); newRow.attr("class", $(parent).attr("class")); var headerRow = $(parent).parent().find(":first"); var cellCount = headerRow.children().length - headerRow.children().find(".hide").length; newRow.append($(this).attr("colspan", cellCount)); $(parent).after(newRow); }) }); What do you think of this? Is this a poor design decision? I am actually quite pleased with the ease of this solution. Please provide your thoughts.

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  • Wordpress creating plugin for most viewed posts problem?

    - by user303832
    Hello,I just want to create plugin that will when visitor(user,visitor,...) visit some post,remember what post,and to increment counter of that post,I wrote this code,but sometimes,counter is incremented,even post isn't viewed,or post with other Id is added to a table.Can someone help me with this,please.I know that there are plugins for this that I'm trying to do,but still want to write this plugin. function IncrementPostCount($the_content) { global $post; global $wpdb; if(($post->post_status == 'publish') && (int)$post->ID) { if(is_single()) { // just for single post - not for page $postID = (int)$post->ID; $postTitle = urlencode($post->post_title); $postLink = urlencode(get_permalink($post->ID)); $oneRow = $wpdb->get_row("SELECT * FROM wp_postovi WHERE postAjDi='$postID'"); if(empty ($oneRow)) { $postCounter = 1; $data_array = array( 'readnTimes' => $postCounter, 'linkPost'=>$postLink, 'TitlePost'=>$postTitle, 'postAjDi'=>$postID); $wpdb->insert('wp_najcitaniji_postovi', $data_array); } else { $postCounter = intval($oneRow->readnTimes) + 1; $data_array = array('readnTimes' => $postCounter); $where_array = array('postAjDi'=>intval($oneRow->postAjDi)); $wpdb->update('wp_postovi',$data_array,$where_array); } return $the_content; } return $the_content; } } add_filter('the_content','IncrementPostCount'); Sorry on my bad english,tnx in advance.

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  • MySQL: Complex Join Statement involving two tables and a third correlation table

    - by Stephen
    I have two tables that were built for two disparate systems. I have records in one table (called "leads") that represent customers, and records in another table (called "manager") that are the exact same customers but "manager" uses different fields (For example, "leads" contains an email address, and "manager" contains two fields for two different emails--either of which might be the email from "leads"). So, I've created a correlation table that contains the lead_id and manager_id. currently this correlation table is empty. I'm trying to query the "leads" table to give me records that match either "manager" email field with the single "leads" email field, while at the same time ignoring fields that have already been added to the "correlated" table. (this way I can see how many leads that match have not yet been correlated.) Here's my current, invalid SQL attempt: SELECT leads.id, manager.id FROM leads, manager LEFT OUTER JOIN correlation ON correlation.lead_id = leads.id WHERE correlation.id IS NULL AND leads.project != "someproject" AND (manager.orig_email = leads.email OR manager.dest_email = leads.email) AND leads.created BETWEEN '1999-01-01 00:00:00' AND '2010-05-10 23:59:59' ORDER BY leads.created ASC; I get the error: Unknown column 'leads.id' in 'on clause' Before you wonder: there are records in the "leads" table where leads.project != "someproject" and leads.created falls between those dates. I've included those additional parameters for completeness.

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  • Getting the Access Token from a Facebook Open Graph response in Ruby

    - by Gearóid
    Hi, I'm trying to implement single sign-on using facebook in my ruby sinatra app. So far, I've been following this tutorial: http://jaywiggins.com/2010/05/facebook-oauth-with-sinatra/ I am able to send a request for a user to connect to my application but I'm having trouble actually "getting" the access token. The user can connect without trouble and I receive a response with the "code" parameter, which I'm supposed to use to exchange an Access Token - but its here where I get stuck. So I submit a url with the following parameters: https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/access_token/{client_id}&{client_secret}&{code}&{redirect_uri} The words in the curly brackets above are obviously replaced by the values. I submit this using the following code: response = open(url) This doesn't seem to return anything of use in the way of an access token (it has a @base_uri which is the url I submitted above and few other parameters, though nothing useful looking). However, if I take that url I submitted and paste it into a browser, I receive back an access token. Can anyone tell me how I can get the request back from facebook and pull out the access token? Thanks.

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  • Deselect dates in ASP.NET Calendar Control

    - by yomismo
    I'm trying to select and de-select dates on a C# Web Calendar control. The problem I have is that I can select or deselect dates except when there is only a single date selected. Clicking on it does not trigger the selection changed event, so Ineed to do something on the dayrender event but I'm not sure what or how. Edit: Added the Pre_Render event code. This seems to work now, however it seems a little bit erratic,e.g. select date A : OK Select date B :OK deselect them both: OK select date A: Does not work, need to select it twice deselect date A : Ok Select Date C: dates A and c are selected @John Yes, I am aware that the control is part of the .NET 2.0 framework and nothing to do with C# per se. Code so far: public static List<DateTime> list = new List<DateTime>(); protected void Calendar1_DayRender(object sender, DayRenderEventArgs e) { if (e.Day.IsSelected == true) { list.Add(e.Day.Date); } Session["SelectedDates"] = list; } protected void Calendar1_SelectionChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { DateTime selection = Calendar1.SelectedDate; if (Session["SelectedDates"] != null) { List<DateTime> newList = (List<DateTime>)Session["SelectedDates"]; foreach (DateTime dt in newList) { Calendar1.SelectedDates.Add(dt); } if (searchdate(selection, newList)) { Calendar1.SelectedDates.Remove(selection); } list.Clear(); } } public bool searchdate(DateTime date, List<DateTime> dates) { var query = from o in dates where o.Date == date select o; if (query.ToList().Count == 0) { return false; } else { return true; } } protected void Calendar1_PreRender(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Calendar1.SelectedDates.Count == 1) { foreach (DateTime dt in list) { if (searchdate(dt, list) && list.Count == 1) { Calendar1.SelectedDates.Clear(); break; } } } }

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  • PHP (CodeIgniter) Pass Object Through Session

    - by FranticPedantic
    I am using PHP5 and CodeIgniter and I am trying to implement a single-sign on feature with facebook (although I don't think that facebook is relevant to the question). I am somewhat of a novice with PHP and definitely one with CodeIgniter, so if you think my approach is just completely off telling me that would be helpful too. So here is in short what I am doing: //Controller 1 $this->load->plugin("facebook"); $facebook = new Facebook(array ( 'appId' => $fbconfig['appid'], 'secret' => $fbconfig['secret'], 'cookie' => true, ) ); $fbsession = $facebook->getSession(); //works fine $this->session->set_userdata('facebook', serialize($facebook); Now I would like to grab that facebook object in a different controller. //Controller 2 $facebook = unserialize($this->session->userdata('facebook')); $fbsession = $facebook->getSession(); Produces the error: Call to undefined method getSession. So I look up more about serialization and think that maybe it just doesn't know what the facebook object's attributes are. So I add in a $this->load->plugin('facebook'); To controller 2 as well and I get a "Cannot redeclare class facebook." I am strongly suspecting that I am misunderstanding sessions here. Do I have to somehow tell PHP what kind of object it is? Thanks for the help.

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