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  • Browser: Continue gif animation after escape is pressed

    - by cottsak
    Firefox (and other browsers i believe) stop gif animation when you click the Stop button or invoke it via the Escape key. I have a text input that on change makes ajax requests to update other elements. As part of this ajaxyness i have an animated gif to show feedback. I also trap the escape key press in this input so as to clear the text field for better UX. My problem is after the escape key is pressed once, none of the ajax gifs animate anymore until the page is refreshed. Does anyone know a workaround? Stuff i've tried: I tried the e.stopPropagation(); and e.cancelBubble = true; in the function handling the e.keyCode == 27 and that didn't seem to work. I suspect that this stops trigging more js events and the browser catches the escape irrespective of js activity. I have the gif showing/hiding via adding/removing a css class so it's difficult to apply the "change gif url to reset" workaround. I dont even know if this works anyway - didn't test it. But it seems difficult. If anyone knows that this works and knows of an easy way to apply the hack with background-image: url(../images/ajax-loader_dotcirclel13x13.gif); css then please let me know.

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  • Payment Processors - What do I need to know if I want to accept credit cards on my website?

    - by Michael Pryor
    This question talks about different payment processors and what they cost, but I'm looking for the answer to what do I need to do if I want to accept credit card payments? Assume I need to store credit card numbers for customers, so that the obvious solution of relying on the credit card processor to do the heavy lifting is not available. PCI Data Security, which is apparently the standard for storing credit card info, has a bunch of general requirements, but how does one implement them? And what about the vendors, like Visa, who have their own best practices? Do I need to have keyfob access to the machine? What about physically protecting it from hackers in the building? Or even what if someone got their hands on the backup files with the sql server data files on it? What about backups? Are there other physical copies of that data around? Tip: If you get a merchant account, you should negotiate that they charge you "interchange-plus" instead of tiered pricing. With tiered pricing, they will charge you different rates based on what type of Visa/MC is used -- ie. they charge you more for cards with big rewards attached to them. Interchange plus billing means you only pay the processor what Visa/MC charges them, plus a flat fee. (Amex and Discover charge their own rates directly to merchants, so this doesn't apply to those cards. You'll find Amex rates to be in the 3% range and Discover could be as low as 1%. Visa/MC is in the 2% range). This service is supposed to do the negotiation for you (I haven't used it, this is not an ad, and I'm not affiliated with the website, but this service is greatly needed.) This blog post gives a complete rundown of handling credit cards (specifically for the UK).

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  • ASP.NET MVC routing issue with Google Chrome client

    - by synergetic
    My Silverlight 4 app is hosted in ASP.NET MVC 2 web application. It works fine when I browse with Internet Explorer 8. However Google Chrome (version 5) cannot find ASP.NET controllers. Specifically, the following ASP.NET controller works both with Chrome and IE. //[OutputCache(NoStore = true, Duration = 0, VaryByParam = "None")] public ContentResult TestMe() { ContentResult result = new ContentResult(); XElement response = new XElement("SvrResponse", new XElement("Data", "my data")); result.Content = response.ToString(); return result; } If I uncomment [OutputCache] attribute then it works with IE but not with Chrome. Also, I use custom model binding with controllers, so if I write the following: public ContentResult TestMe(UserContext userContext) { ... } it also works with IE, but again not with Chrome which gives me error message saying that resource was not found. Of course, I configured IIS 6 for handling all requests via aspnet_isapi.dll and I have registered custom model binder in my web app's Global.asax inside Application_Start() method. Can someone explain me what might be the cause? Thank you.

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  • Hibernate - Problem in parsing mapping file (.hbm.xml)

    - by Yatendra Goel
    I am new to Hibernate. I have an exception while running an Hibernate-based application. The exception is as follows: 16 [main] INFO org.hibernate.cfg.Environment - Hibernate 3.3.2.GA 16 [main] INFO org.hibernate.cfg.Environment - hibernate.properties not found 16 [main] INFO org.hibernate.cfg.Environment - Bytecode provider name : javassist 31 [main] INFO org.hibernate.cfg.Environment - using JDK 1.4 java.sql.Timestamp handling 94 [main] INFO org.hibernate.cfg.Configuration - configuring from resource: /hibernate.cfg.xml 94 [main] INFO org.hibernate.cfg.Configuration - Configuration resource: /hibernate.cfg.xml 219 [main] INFO org.hibernate.cfg.Configuration - Reading mappings from resource : app/data/City.hbm.xml 266 [main] ERROR org.hibernate.util.XMLHelper - Error parsing XML: XML InputStream(12) Attribute "coloumn" must be declared for element type "property". 266 [main] ERROR org.hibernate.util.XMLHelper - Error parsing XML: XML InputStream(13) Attribute "coloumn" must be declared for element type "property". 266 [main] ERROR org.hibernate.util.XMLHelper - Error parsing XML: XML InputStream(14) Attribute "coloumn" must be declared for element type "property". It seems that it is not finding coloumn attribute of the property element in the mappings file but my mappings file do have the coloumn attribute. Below is the mappings file (City.hbm.xml) <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!DOCTYPE hibernate-mapping PUBLIC "-//Hibernate/Hibernate Mapping DTD 3.0//EN" "http://hibernate.sourceforge.net/hibernate-mapping-3.0.dtd"> <hibernate-mapping package="app.data"> <class name="City" table="CITY"> <id column="CITY_ID" name="cityId"> <generator class="native"/> </id> <property name="cityDisplyaName" coloumn="CITY_DISPLAY_NAME" /> <property coloumn="CITY_MEANINGFUL_NAME" name="cityMeaningFulName" /> <property coloumn="CITY_URL" name="cityURL" /> </class> </hibernate-mapping>

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  • Symfony dynamic forms

    - by Asier
    Hi there, I started with a form, which is made by hand because of it's complexity (it's a javascript modified form, with sortable parts, etc). The problem is that now I need to do the validation, and it's a total mess to do it from scratch in the action using the sfValidator* classes. So, I am thinking to do it using sfForm so that my form validation and error handling can be done more easier and so I can reuse this form for the Edit and Create pages. The form is something like this: <form> <input name="form[year]"/> <textarea name="form[description]"></textarea> <div class="sortable"> <div class="item"> <input name="form[items][0][name]"/> <input name="form[items][0][age]"/> </div> <div class="item"> <input name="form[items][1][name]"/> <input name="form[items][1][age]"/> </div> </div> </form> The thing is that the sortable part of the form can be expanded from 2 to N elements on the client side. So that it has variable items quantity which can be reordered. How can I approach this problem? Any ideas are welcome, thank you. :)

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  • What's the standard convention for creating a new NSArray from an existing NSArray?

    - by Prairiedogg
    Let's say I have an NSArray of NSDictionaries that is 10 elements long. I want to create a second NSArray with the values for a single key on each dictionary. The best way I can figure to do this is: NSMutableArray *nameArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:[array count]]; for (NSDictionary *p in array) { [nameArray addObject:[p objectForKey:@"name"]]; } self.my_new_array = array; [array release]; [nameArray release]; } But in theory, I should be able to get away with not using a mutable array and using a counter in conjunction with [nameArray addObjectAtIndex:count], because the new list should be exactly as long as the old list. Please note that I am NOT trying to filter for a subset of the original array, but make a new array with exactly the same number of elements, just with values dredged up from the some arbitrary attribute of each element in the array. In python one could solve this problem like this: new_list = [p['name'] for p in old_list] or if you were a masochist, like this: new_list = map(lambda p: p['name'], old_list) Having to be slightly more explicit in objective-c makes me wonder if there is an accepted common way of handling these situations.

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  • Why does jquery leak memory so badly?

    - by Thomas Lane
    This is kind of a follow-up to a question I posted last week: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2429056/simple-jquery-ajax-call-leaks-memory-in-ie I love the jquery syntax and all of its nice features, but I've been having trouble with a page that automatically updates table cells via ajax calls leaking memory. So I created two simple test pages for experimenting. Both pages do an ajax call every .1 seconds. After each successful ajax call, a counter is incremented and the DOM is updated. The script stops after 1000 cycles. One uses jquery for both the ajax call and to update the DOM. The other uses the Yahoo API for the ajax and does a document.getElementById(...).innerHTML to update the DOM. The jquery version leaks memory badly. Running in drip (on XP Home with IE7), it starts at 9MB and finishes at about 48MB, with memory growing linearly the whole time. If I comment out the line that updates the DOM, it still finishes at 32MB, suggesting that even simple DOM updates leak a significant amount of memory. The non-jquery version starts and finishes at about 9MB, regardless of whether it updates the DOM. Does anyone have a good explanation of what is causing jquery to leak so badly? Am I missing something obvious? Is there a circular reference that I'm not aware of? Or does jquery just have some serious memory issues? Here is the source for the leaky (jquery) version: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://www.google.com/jsapi"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> google.load('jquery', '1.4.2'); </script> <script type="text/javascript"> var counter = 0; leakTest(); function leakTest() { $.ajax({ url: '/html/delme.x', type: 'GET', success: incrementCounter }); } function incrementCounter(data) { if (counter<1000) { counter++; $('#counter').text(counter); setTimeout(leakTest,100); } else $('#counter').text('finished.'); } </script> </head> <body> <div>Why is memory usage going up?</div> <div id="counter"></div> </body> </html> And here is the non-leaky version: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://yui.yahooapis.com/2.8.0r4/build/yahoo/yahoo-min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://yui.yahooapis.com/2.8.0r4/build/event/event-min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://yui.yahooapis.com/2.8.0r4/build/connection/connection_core-min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var counter = 0; leakTest(); function leakTest() { YAHOO.util.Connect.asyncRequest('GET', '/html/delme.x', {success:incrementCounter}); } function incrementCounter(o) { if (counter<1000) { counter++; document.getElementById('counter').innerHTML = counter; setTimeout(leakTest,100); } else document.getElementById('counter').innerHTML = 'finished.' } </script> </head> <body> <div>Memory usage is stable, right?</div> <div id="counter"></div> </body> </html>

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  • RestSharp post object to WCF

    - by steve
    Im having an issue posting an object to my wcf rest webservice. On the WCF side I have the following: [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "", Method = "POST")] public void Create(myObject object) { //save some stuff to the db } When im debugging this never gets hit - it does however get hit when I remove the parameter so im guessing ive done something wrong on the restSharp side of things. Heres my code for that part: var client = new RestClient(ApiBaseUri); var request = new RestRequest(Method.POST); request.RequestFormat = DataFormat.Xml; request.AddBody(myObject); var response = client.Execute(request); Am I doing this wrong? How can the WCF side see my object? What way should I be making the reqest? Or should I be handling it differently WCF side? Things ive tried: request.AddObject(myObject); and request.AddBody(request.XmlSerialise.serialise(myObject)); Any help and understanding in what could possibly be wrong would be much appreciated. Thanks.

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  • How to get data from other php scripts

    - by user225269
    I have 2 files, one is used to view the data in the mysql database, and list it on a table: if($_POST['general'] == 'ADDRESS'){ $result2 = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM student WHERE ADDRESS='$saddress'"); echo "<table border='1'> <tr> <th>IDNO</th> <th>ADDRESS</th> <th>LASTNAME</th> <th>FIRSTNAME</th> <th>VIEW</th> </tr>"; while($row = mysql_fetch_array($result2)) { echo "<tr>"; echo "<td>" . $row['IDNO'] . "</td>"; echo "<td>" . $row['ADDRESS'] . "</td>"; echo "<td>" . $row['LASTNAME'] . "</td>"; echo "<td>" . $row['FIRSTNAME'] . "</td>"; echo "<td><a href='update.php?id=" . $row['IDNO'] . "'>view</a></td>"; echo "</tr>"; } echo "</table>"; } And this one is the update.php which I am working on, I just want to be able to see the data that corresponds to the one the record that I clicked on the first one using the link "view". <?php mysql_select_db("school", $con); $result3 = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM student WHERE IDNO='?'"); ?> <tr> <td width="30" height="35"><font size="3">*I D Number:</td> <td width="30"><input name="idnum" onkeypress="return isNumberKey(event)" type="text" maxlength="5" id='numbers'/ value="<?php echo $row["IDNO"]; ?>"></td> </tr> But I do not know how do I link the two, in such a way that the corresponding data in here: echo "<td><a href='update.php?id=" . $row['IDNO'] . "'>view</a></td>"; would be reflected in here: <td width="30"><input name="idnum" onkeypress="return isNumberKey(event)" type="text" maxlength="5" id='numbers'/ value="<?php echo $row["IDNO"]; ?>"></td> </tr> Please give me an idea on how I can do this, thanks.

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  • Parsing and replacing Javascript identifiers with Rhino in Java

    - by Parhs
    Suppose I let the user to write a condition using Javascript, the user can write conditions to perform a test and return true or false. E.g.: INS>5 || ASTO.valueBetween(10,210) I want to find which variables are used in the script that the user wrote. I tried to find a way to get the identifier names in Java. The Rhino library didn't help a lot. However I found that via handling exceptions I could get all the identifiers. So this problem is solved. So everything is great, but there is one little problem. How can I replace these identifiers with a numeric identifier? E.g. INS should be _234 and ASTO should be _331. INS and ASTO etc are entities in my database. I want to replace them, because the name may change. I could do it using a replace but this isn't easy because: It should be reversible. E.g. ASTO to _234 and _234 to ASTO again. Replacing _23 with MPLAH may also replace _234. This could be fixed with regexp somehow. What if _23 is in a comment section? Rare to happen, but possible /* _23 fdsafd ktl */. It should also be replaced. What if it is a name of a function? E.g. _32() {}. Also rare, but it shouldn't be replaced. What if it is enclosed in "" or ''? I am sure that there are a lot more cases. Any ideas?

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  • Distributed Message Ordering

    - by sbanwart
    I have an architectural question on handling message ordering. For purposes of this question, the transport is irrelevant, so I'm not going to specify one. Say we have three systems, a website, a CRM and an ERP. For this example, the ERP will be the "master" system in terms of data ownership. The website and the CRM can both send a new customer message to the ERP system. The ERP system then adds a customer and publishes the customer with the newly assigned account number so that the website and CRM can add the account number to their local customer records. This is a pretty straight forward process. Next we move on to placing orders. The account number is required in order for the CRM or website to place an order with the ERP system. However the CRM will permit the user to place an order even if the customer lacks an account number. (For this example assume we can't modify the CRM behavior) This creates the possibility that a user could create a new customer, and place an order before the account number gets updated in the CRM. What is the best way to handle this scenario? Would it be best to send the order message sans account number and let it go to an error queue? Would it be better to have the CRM endpoint hold the message and wait until the account number is updated in the CRM? Maybe something completely different that I haven't thought of? Thanks in advance for any help.

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  • Replacing accented/umlauted characters with their unadorned counterparts in C# [closed]

    - by Andrew Rollings
    Duplicate of 249087 I have a bunch of user generated addresses that may contain characters with diacritic marks. What is the most effective (i.e. generic) way (apart from a straightforward replace) to automatically convert any such characters to their closest English equivalent? E.g. any of àâãäå would become a æ would become the two separate letters ae ç would become c any of èéêë would become e etc. for all possible letter variations (preferably without having to find and encode lookups for each diacritic form of the letter). (Note: I have to pass these addresses on to third party software that is incapable of printing anything other than English characters. I'd rather the software was capable of handling them, but I have no control over that.) EDIT: Never mind... Found the answer [here][2]. It showed up in the "Related" section to the right of the question after I posted, but not in my prior search or as a pre-post suggestion. Hmm. I added the 'diacritics' tag to the other question in any case. EDIT 2: Jeez! Who voted this -1 after I closed it?

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  • Getting Depth Value on Kinect SDK 1.6

    - by AlexanderPD
    this is my first try on Kinect and Kinect SDK so I'm having a lot of "newbie issues" :) my goal is to point my mouse on the Kinect standard video output and get the depth value. I already have both normal video and depth video outputs by using the 2 "Color Basic-WPF" and "Depth Basic-WPF" samples, and handling mouse events or position is not a problem. In fact i already did all and i already got a depth value, but this value is always HIGHLY imprecise. It jumps from 500 to 4000 by just moving to the next pixel in a plane surface. So.. I'm pretty sure I'm reading the depth value in the wrong way. This is how i read it: short debugValue = depthPixels[x*y].Depth; debug.Text = "X = "+x+", Y = "+y+", value = "+debugValue.ToString(); i know it's pretty out of context, this little piece of code is inside the same SensorDepthFrameReady function in "Depth Basic-WPF"! "x" and "y" are the mouse coordinates and depthPixels is DepthImagePixel[] type, a temporary array filled with the "depthFrame.CopyDepthImagePixelDataTo(this.depthPixels);" instruction. Depth frame is filled here: DepthImageFrame depthFrame = e.OpenDepthImageFrame() the "e" comes from here: private void SensorDepthFrameReady(object sender, DepthImageFrameReadyEventArgs e) and this last one is called here: this.sensor.DepthFrameReady += this.SensorDepthFrameReady; how i must handle that depth value i get? I know the value must be between 800 and 4000 but i get values between about 500 and about 8000. i already google a lot (here on SO too) and i still can't understand if the depth value is 11 or 13 bit. The sdk examples uses shrink this value to 8 bit and this is making even more confusion in my head :(

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  • Error loading page

    - by blay
    i have this script on my jquery mobile page that calls an insert script(untitled.asp) for data insertion, but when i press the submit buttom it tells me error loading page and it doesn't work <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <link rel="stylesheet" href="http://code.jquery.com/mobile/1.3.0-beta.1/jquery.mobile-1.3.0-beta.1.min.css" /> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-1.8.3.min.js"></script> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/mobile/1.3.0-beta.1/jquery.mobile-1.3.0-beta.1.min.js"></script> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>Untitled Document</title> </head> <body> <form action="" method="POST" name="form1" id="form1"> <table width="327" border="0"> <tr> <td width="88">Item</td> <td width="185"><label for="item_name"></label> <input type="text" name="item_name" id="item_name" /></td> </tr> <tr> <td>Quantity</td> <td><label for="quantity"></label> <input type="text" name="quantity" id="quantity" /></td> </tr> <tr> <td>Price</td> <td><label for="price"></label> <input type="text" name="price" id="price" /></td> </tr> <tr> <td colspan="2">&nbsp; <input type="submit" value="Submit" /></td> </tr> </table> </form> <script> $(document).ready(function(){ $("form").on('submit',function(event){ event.preventDefault(); data = $(this).serialize(); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "untitled.asp", data: data }).done(function( msg ) { alert( "Data Saved: " + msg ); }); }); }); </script> </body> </html> it works fine on the website but when putting it into a mobile app it pops up this error

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  • Is Form validation and Business validation too much?

    - by Robert Cabri
    I've got this question about form validation and business validation. I see a lot of frameworks that use some sort of form validation library. You submit some values and the library validates the values from the form. If not ok it will show some errors on you screen. If all goes to plan the values will be set into domain objects. Here the values will be or, better said, should validated (again). Most likely the same validation in the validation library. I know 2 PHP frameworks having this kind of construction Zend/Kohana. When I look at programming and some principles like Don't Repeat Yourself (DRY) and single responsibility principle (SRP) this isn't a good way. As you can see it validates twice. Why not create domain objects that do the actual validation. Example: Form with username and email form is submitted. Values of the username field and the email field will be populated in 2 different Domain objects: Username and Email class Username {} class Email {} These objects validate their data and if not valid throw an exception. Do you agree? What do you think about this aproach? Is there a better way to implement validations? I'm confused about a lot of frameworks/developers handling this stuff. Are they all wrong or am I missing a point? Edit: I know there should also be client side kind of validation. This is a different ballgame in my Opinion. If You have some comments on this and a way to deal with this kind of stuff, please provide.

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  • Python and Unicode: How everything should be Unicode

    - by A A
    Forgive if this a long a question: I have been programming in Python for around six months. Self taught, starting with the Python tutorial and then SO and then just using Google for stuff. Here is the sad part: No one told me all strings should be Unicode. No, I am not lying or making this up, but where does the tutorial mention it? And most examples also I see just make use of byte strings, instead of Unicode strings. I was just browsing and came across this question on SO, which says how every string in Python should be a Unicode string. This pretty much made me cry! I read that every string in Python 3.0 is Unicode by default, so my questions are for 2.x: Should I do a: print u'Some text' or just print 'Text' ? Everything should be Unicode, does this mean, like say I have a tuple: t = ('First', 'Second'), it should be t = (u'First', u'Second')? I read that I can do a from __future__ import unicode_literals and then every string will be a Unicode string, but should I do this inside a container also? When reading/ writing to a file, I should use the codecs module. Right? Or should I just use the standard way or reading/ writing and encode or decode where required? If I get the string from say raw_input(), should I convert that to Unicode also? What is the common approach to handling all of the above issues in 2.x? The from __future__ import unicode_literals statement? Sorry for being a such a noob, but this changes what I have been doing for a long time and so clearly I am confused.

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  • Play Video File in Asp. Net 3.5 in IIS

    - by Sneha Joshi
    I have developed an application to upload a video on the server and then play it. It runs well when i execute it in Visual Studio 2008 in-built web server.. But when I configure it on IIS, the video does not play... Is there any settings needed in IIS to play video ?? The code of Button Click event - **protected void btnPlayVideo_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { string himaSagarURL = this.lnkbtnVideo.Text; bool isFullSize = false; this.Literal1.Text = this.Play_Video(himaSagarURL, isFullSize); } catch (Exception ex) { this.Response.Write(ex.ToString()); } } This button click event calls the Play_Video method which is given below.. The code I used for embedding - private string Play_Video(string sagarURL, bool isFullSize) { string himaSagarObject = ""; sagarURL = sagarURL + ""; sagarURL = sagarURL.Trim(); if (sagarURL.Length > 0) { //Continue. } else { throw new System.ArgumentNullException("sagarURL"); } string himaSagarWidthAndHeight = ""; if (isFullSize) { himaSagarWidthAndHeight = ""; } else { himaSagarWidthAndHeight = "width='640' height='480'"; } himaSagarObject = himaSagarObject + "<object classid='CLSID:22D6F312-B0F6-11D0-94AB-0080C74C7E95' id='player' " + himaSagarWidthAndHeight + " standby='Please wait while the object is loaded...'>"; himaSagarObject = himaSagarObject + "<param name='url' value='" + sagarURL + "' />"; himaSagarObject = himaSagarObject + "<param name='src' value='" + sagarURL + "' />"; himaSagarObject = himaSagarObject + "<param name='AutoStart' value='true' />"; himaSagarObject = himaSagarObject + "<param name='Balance' value='0' />"; //-100 is fully left, 100 is fully right. himaSagarObject = himaSagarObject + "<param name='CurrentPosition' value='0' />"; //Position in seconds when starting. himaSagarObject = himaSagarObject + "<param name='showcontrols' value='true' />"; //Show play/stop/pause controls. himaSagarObject = himaSagarObject + "<param name='enablecontextmenu' value='true' />"; //Allow right-click. himaSagarObject = himaSagarObject + "<param name='fullscreen' value='" + isFullSize.ToString() + "' />"; //Start in full screen or not. himaSagarObject = himaSagarObject + "<param name='mute' value='false' />"; himaSagarObject = himaSagarObject + "<param name='PlayCount' value='1' />"; //Number of times the content will play. himaSagarObject = himaSagarObject + "<param name='rate' value='1.0' />"; //0.5=Slow, 1.0=Normal, 2.0=Fast himaSagarObject = himaSagarObject + "<param name='uimode' value='full' />"; // full, mini, custom, none, invisible himaSagarObject = himaSagarObject + "<param name='showdisplay' value='true' />"; //Show or hide the name of the file. himaSagarObject = himaSagarObject + "<param name='volume' value='50' />"; // 0=lowest, 100=highest himaSagarObject = himaSagarObject + "</object>"; return himaSagarObject; }**

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  • How to check the backtrace of a "USER process" in the Linux Kernel Crash Dump

    - by Biswajit
    I was trying to debug a USER Process in Linux Crash Dump. The normal steps to go to the crash dump are: Go to the path where the dump is located. Use the command crash kernel_link dump.201104181135. Where kernel_link is a soft link I have created for vmlinux image. Now you will be in the CRASH prompt. If you run the command foreach <PID Of the process> bt Eg: crash> **foreach 6920 bt** **PID: 6920 TASK: ffff88013caaa800 CPU: 1 COMMAND: **"**climmon**"**** #0 [ffff88012d2cd9c8] **schedule** at ffffffff8130b76a #1 [ffff88012d2cdab0] **schedule_timeout** at ffffffff8130bbe7 #2 [ffff88012d2cdb50] **schedule_timeout_uninterruptible** at ffffffff8130bc2a #3 [ffff88012d2cdb60] **__alloc_pages_nodemask** at ffffffff810b9e45 #4 [ffff88012d2cdc60] **alloc_pages_curren**t at ffffffff810e1c8c #5 [ffff88012d2cdc90] **__page_cache_alloc** at ffffffff810b395a #6 [ffff88012d2cdcb0] **__do_page_cache_readahead** at ffffffff810bb592 #7 [ffff88012d2cdd30] **ra_submit** at ffffffff810bb6ba #8 [ffff88012d2cdd40] **filemap_fault** at ffffffff810b3e4e #9 [ffff88012d2cdda0] **__do_fault** at ffffffff810caa5f #10 [ffff88012d2cde50] **handle_mm_fault** at ffffffff810cce69 #11 [ffff88012d2cdf00] **do_page_fault** at ffffffff8130f560 #12 [ffff88012d2cdf50] **page_fault** at ffffffff8130d3f5 RIP: 00007fd02b7e9071 RSP: 0000000040e86ea0 RFLAGS: 00010202 RAX: 0000000000000000 RBX: 0000000000000000 RCX: 00007fd02b7e9071 RDX: 0000000000000000 RSI: 0000000000000000 RDI: 0000000040e86ec0 RBP: 0000000040e87140 R8: 0000000000000800 R9: 0000000000000000 R10: 0000000000000000 R11: 0000000000000202 R12: 00007fff16ec43d0 R13: 00007fd02bcadf00 R14: 0000000040e87950 R15: 0000000000001000 ORIG_RAX: ffffffffffffffff CS: 0033 SS: 002b If you check the above backtrace it shows the kernel functions used for scheduling/handling page fault but not the functions that were executed in the USER process (here eg. climmon). So I am not able to debug this process as I am not able to see the functions executed in that process. Can any one help me with this case?

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  • Why execution of a portion of code loaded from external file is not halted by the OS?

    - by menjaraz
    I've harnessed a project released on internet a long time ago. Here comes the details, all irrelevant things being stripped off for sake of concision and clarity. A binary file whose content is descibed below HEX DUMP: 55 89 E5 83 EC 08 C7 45 FC 00 00 00 00 8B 45 FC 3B 45 10 72 02 EB 19 8B 45 FC 8B 55 0C 01 C2 8B 45 FC 03 45 08 8A 00 88 02 8D 45 FC FF 00 EB DD C6 45 FA 00 83 7D 10 01 76 6C 80 7D FA 00 74 02 EB 64 C6 45 FA 01 C7 45 FC 00 00 00 00 8B 45 10 48 39 45 FC 72 02 EB E2 8B 45 FC 8B 4D 0C 01 C1 8B 45 FC 03 45 0C 8D 50 01 8A 01 3A 02 73 30 8B 45 FC 03 45 0C 8A 00 88 45 FB 8B 45 FC 8B 55 0C 01 C2 8B 45 FC 03 45 0C 40 8A 00 88 02 8B 45 FC 03 45 0C 8D 50 01 8A 45 FB 88 02 C6 45 FA 00 8D 45 FC FF 00 EB A7 C9 C2 0C 00 90 90 90 90 90 90 is loaded into memory and executed using the following method snippet var MySrcArray, MyDestArray: array [1 .. 15] of Byte; // ... MyBuffer: Pointer; TheProc: procedure; SortIt: procedure(ASrc, ADest: Pointer; ASize: LongWord); stdcall; begin // Initialization of MySrcArray with random Bytes and display here ... // Instructions of loading of the binary file into MyBuffer using merely **GetMem** here ... @SortIt := MyBuffer; try SortIt(@MySrcArray, @MyDestArray, 15); // Display of MyDestArray (The outcome of the processing !) except // Invalid code error handling end; // Cleaning code here ... end; works like a charm on my box. My Question: How comes it works without using VirtualAlloc and/or VirtualProtect?

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  • Magic Methods in Python

    - by dArignac
    Howdy, I'm kind of new to Python and I wonder if there is a way to create something like the magic methods in PHP (http://www.php.net/manual/en/language.oop5.overloading.php#language.oop5.overloading.methods) My aim is to ease the access of child classes in my model. I basically have a parent class that has n child classes. These classes have three values, a language key, a translation key and a translation value. The are describing a kind of generic translation handling. The parent class can have translations for different translation key each in different languages. E.g. the key "title" can be translated into german and english and the key "description" too (and so far and so on) I don't want to get the child classes and filter by the set values (at least I want but not explicitly, the concrete implementation behind the magic method would do this). I want to call parent_class.title['de'] # or also possible maybe parent_class.title('de') for getting the translation of title in german (de). So there has to be a magic method that takes the name of the called method and their params (as in PHP). As far as I dug into Python this is only possible with simple attributes (_getattr_, _setattr_) or with setting/getting directly within the class (_getitem_, _setitem_) which both do not fit my needs. Maybe there is a solution for this? Please help! Thanks in advance!

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  • Which view will be resolved, code from spring's docs

    - by Blankman
    So when you go to /appointments the get() action is called, so then would the view be get.jsp (assuming you are using .jsp, and assuming you are mapping action names to views)? And what about the getnewform? It seems to be returning an object? Is that basically passed into the view? @Controller @RequestMapping("/appointments") public class AppointmentsController { private final AppointmentBook appointmentBook; @Autowired public AppointmentsController(AppointmentBook appointmentBook) { this.appointmentBook = appointmentBook; } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.GET) public Map<String, Appointment> get() { return appointmentBook.getAppointmentsForToday(); } @RequestMapping(value="/{day}", method = RequestMethod.GET) public Map<String, Appointment> getForDay(@PathVariable @DateTimeFormat(iso=ISO.DATE) Date day, Model model) { return appointmentBook.getAppointmentsForDay(day); } @RequestMapping(value="/new", method = RequestMethod.GET) public AppointmentForm getNewForm() { return new AppointmentForm(); } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.POST) public String add(@Valid AppointmentForm appointment, BindingResult result) { if (result.hasErrors()) { return "appointments/new"; } appointmentBook.addAppointment(appointment); return "redirect:/appointments"; } } In the example, the @RequestMapping is used in a number of places. The first usage is on the type (class) level, which indicates that all handling methods on this controller are relative to the /appointments path. The get() method has a further @RequestMapping refinement: it only accepts GET requests, meaning that an HTTP GET for /appointments invokes this method. The post() has a similar refinement, and the getNewForm() combines the definition of HTTP method and path into one, so that GET requests for appointments/new are handled by that method.

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  • Need help with a possible memory management problem(leak) regarding NSMutableArray

    - by user309030
    Hi, I'm a beginner level programmer trying to make a game app for the iphone and I've encountered a possible issue with the memory management (exc_bad_access) of my program so far. I've searched and read dozens of articles regarding memory management (including apple's docs) but I still can't figure out what exactly is wrong with my codes. So I would really appreciate it if someone can help clear up the mess I made for myself. - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; self.gameState = gameStatePaused; fencePoleArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; fencePoleImageArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; fenceImageArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; mainField = CGRectMake(10, 35, 310, 340); .......... [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:0.05 target:self selector:@selector(gameLoop) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; } So basically, the player touches the screen to set up the fences/poles -(void)touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { if(.......) { ....... } else { UITouch *touch = [[event allTouches] anyObject]; currentTapLoc = [touch locationInView:touch.view]; NSLog(@"%i, %i", (int)currentTapLoc.x, (int)currentTapLoc.y); if(CGRectContainsPoint(mainField, currentTapLoc)) { if([self checkFence]) { onFencePole++; //this 3 set functions adds their respective objects into the 3 NSMutableArrays using addObject: [self setFencePole]; [self setFenceImage]; [self setFencePoleImage]; ....... } } else { ....... } } } } The setFence function (setFenceImage and setFencePoleImage is similar to this) -(void)setFencePole { Fence *fencePole; if (!elecFence) { fencePole = [[Fence alloc] initFence:onFencePole fenceType:1 fencePos:currentTapLoc]; } else { fencePole = [[Fence alloc] initFence:onFencePole fenceType:2 fencePos:currentTapLoc]; } [fencePoleArray addObject:fencePole]; [fencePole release]; and whenever I press a button in the game, endOpenState is called to clear away all the extra images(fence/poles) on the screen and also to remove all existing objects in the 3 NSMutableArray -(void)endOpenState { ........ int xMax = [fencePoleArray count]; int yMax = [fenceImageArray count]; for (int x = 0; x < xMax; x++) { [[fencePoleImageArray objectAtIndex:x] removeFromSuperview]; } for (int y = 0; y < yMax; y++) { [[fenceImageArray objectAtIndex:y] removeFromSuperview]; } [fencePoleArray removeAllObjects]; [fencePoleImageArray removeAllObjects]; [fenceImageArray removeAllObjects]; ........ } The crash happens here at the checkFence function. -(BOOL)checkFence { if (onFencePole == 0) { return YES; } else if (onFencePole >= 1 && onFencePole < currentMaxFencePole - 1) { CGPoint tempPoint1 = currentTapLoc; CGPoint tempPoint2 = [[fencePoleArray objectAtIndex:onFencePole-1] returnPos]; // the crash happens at this line if ([self checkDistance:tempPoint1 point2:tempPoint2]) { return YES; } else { return NO; } } else if (onFencePole == currentMaxFencePole - 1) { ...... } else { return NO; } } What I'm thinking of is that fencePoleArray got messed up when I used [fencePoleArray removeAllObjects] because it doesn't crash when I comment it out. It would really be great if someone can explain to me what went wrong. And thanks in advance.

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  • CarrierWave and nested forms saving empty image object if photo :title is included in form

    - by Wasabi Developer
    I'm after some advice in regards to handling nested form data and I would be ever so grateful for any insights. The trouble is I'm not 100% sure why I require the following code in my model accepts_nested_attributes_for :holiday_image, allow_destroy: true, :reject_if => lambda { |a| a[:title].blank? } If I don't understand why I require to tact on on my accepts_nested_attributes_for association: :reject_if => lambda { |a| a[:title].blank? } If I remove this :reject_if lambda, it will save a blank holiday photo object in the database. I presume because it takes the :title field from the form as an empty string? I guess my question is, am I doing this right or is there a better way of this this within nested forms if I want to extend my HolidayImage model to include more strings like description, notes? Sorry If I can't be more succinct. My simple holiday app. # holiday.rb class Holiday < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :holiday_image accepts_nested_attributes_for :holiday_image, allow_destroy: true, :reject_if => lambda { |a| a[:title].blank? } attr_accessible :name, :content, :holiday_image_attributes end I'm using CarrierWave for image uploads. # holiday_image.rb class HolidayImage < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :holiday attr_accessible :holiday_id, :image, :title mount_uploader :image, ImageUploader end Inside my _form partial there is a field_for block <h3>Photo gallery</h3> <%= f.fields_for :holiday_image do |holiday_image| %> <% if holiday_image.object.new_record? %> <%= holiday_image.label :title, "Image Title" %> <%= holiday_image.text_field :title %> <%= holiday_image.file_field :image %> <% else %> Title: <%= holiday_image.object.title %> <%= image_tag(holiday_image.object.image.url(:thumb)) %> Tick to delete: <%= holiday_image.check_box :_destroy %> <% end %> Thanks again for your patience.

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  • JS/CSS include section replacement, Debug vs Release

    - by Bayard Randel
    I'd be interested to hear how people handle conditional markup, specifically in their masterpages between release and debug builds. The particular scenario this is applicable to is handling concatenated js and css files. I'm currently using the .Net port of YUI compress to produce a single site.css and site.js from a large collection of separate files. One thought that occurred to me was to place the js and css include section in a user control or collection of panels and conditionally display the <link> and <script> markup based on the Debug or Release state of the assembly. Something along the lines of: #if DEBUG pnlDebugIncludes.visible = true #else pnlReleaseIncludes.visible = true #endif The panel is really not very nice semantically - wrapping <script> tags in a <div> is a bit gross; there must be a better approach. I would also think that a block level element like a <div> within <head> would be invalid html. Another idea was this could possibly be handled using web.config section replacements, but I'm not sure how I would go about doing that.

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  • Multiple elements with the same name with SimpleXML and Java

    - by LouieGeetoo
    I'm trying to use SimpleXML to parse an XML document (an ItemLookupResponse for a book from the Amazon Product Advertising API) which contains the following element: <ItemAttributes> <Author>Shane Conder</Author> <Author>Lauren Darcey</Author> <Manufacturer>Pearson Educacion</Manufacturer> <ProductGroup>Book</ProductGroup> <Title>Android Wireless Application Development: Barnes & Noble Special Edition</Title> </ItemAttributes> My problem is that I don't know how to deal with the multiple possible Author elements. Here's what I have right now for the corresponding POJO (Plain Old Java Object), keeping in mind that it's not handling the case of multiple Authors: @Element public class ItemAttributes { @Element public String Author; @Element public String Manufacturer; @Element public String Title; } (I don't care about the ProductGroup, so it's not in the class -- I'm just setting SimpleXML's strict mode to off to allow for that.) I couldn't find an example in the documentation that corresponded with such a case. Using an ElementList with (inline=true) seemed along the right lines, but I didn't see how to do it for String (as opposed to a separate Author class, which I have no need for and don't see how it would even work). Here's a similar question and answer, but for PHP: php - simpleXML how to access a specific element with the same name as others? I don't know what the Java equivalent would be to the accepted answer. Thanks in advance.

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