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  • Jetty: Stopping programatically causes "1 threads could not be stopped"

    - by Ondra Žižka
    Hi, I have an embedded Jetty 6.1.26 instance. I want to shut it down by HTTP GET sent to /shutdown. So I created a JettyShutdownServlet: @Override protected void doGet(HttpServletRequest req, HttpServletResponse resp) throws ServletException, IOException { resp.setStatus(202, "Shutting down."); resp.setContentType("text/plain"); ServletOutputStream os = resp.getOutputStream(); os.println("Shutting down."); os.close(); resp.flushBuffer(); // Stop the server. try { log.info("Shutting down the server..."); server.stop(); } catch (Exception ex) { log.error("Error when stopping Jetty server: "+ex.getMessage(), ex); } However, when I send the request, Jetty does not stop - a thread keeps hanging in org.mortbay.thread.QueuedThreadPool on the line with this.wait(): // We are idle // wait for a dispatched job synchronized (this) { if (_job==null) this.wait(getMaxIdleTimeMs()); job=_job; _job=null; } ... 2011-01-10 20:14:20,375 INFO org.mortbay.log jetty-6.1.26 2011-01-10 20:14:34,756 INFO org.mortbay.log Started [email protected]:17283 2011-01-10 20:25:40,006 INFO org.jboss.qa.mavenhoe.MavenHoeApp Shutting down the server... 2011-01-10 20:25:40,006 INFO org.mortbay.log Graceful shutdown [email protected]:17283 2011-01-10 20:25:40,006 INFO org.mortbay.log Graceful shutdown org.mortbay.jetty.servlet.Context@1672bbb{/,null} 2011-01-10 20:25:40,006 INFO org.mortbay.log Graceful shutdown org.mortbay.jetty.webapp.WebAppContext@18d30fb{/jsp,file:/home/ondra/work/Mavenhoe/trunk/target/classes/org/jboss/qa/mavenhoe/web/jsp} 2011-01-10 20:25:43,007 INFO org.mortbay.log Stopped [email protected]:17283 2011-01-10 20:25:43,009 WARN org.mortbay.log 1 threads could not be stopped 2011-01-10 20:26:43,010 INFO org.mortbay.log Shutdown hook executing 2011-01-10 20:26:43,011 INFO org.mortbay.log Shutdown hook complete It blocks for exactly one minute, then shuts down. I've added the Graceful shutdown, which should allow me to shut the server down from a servlet; However, it does not work as you can see from the log. I've solved it this way: Server server = new Server( PORT ); server.setGracefulShutdown( 3000 ); server.setStopAtShutdown(true); ... server.start(); if( server.getThreadPool() instanceof QueuedThreadPool ){ ((QueuedThreadPool) server.getThreadPool()).setMaxIdleTimeMs( 2000 ); } setMaxIdleTimeMs() needs to be called after the start(), becase the threadPool is created in start(). However, the threads are already created and waiting, so it only applies after all threads are used at least once. I don't know what else to do except some awfulness like interrupting all threads or System.exit(). Any ideas? Is there a good way? Thanks, Ondra

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  • Should I skip authorization, with CanCan, of an action that instantiates a resource?

    - by irkenInvader
    I am writing a web app to pick random lists of cards from larger, complete sets of cards. I have a Card model and a CardSet model. Both models have a full RESTful set of 7 actions (:index, :new, :show, etc). The CardSetsController has an extra action for creating random sets: :random. # app/models/card_set.rb class CardSet < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :creator, :class_name => "User" has_many :memberships has_many :cards, :through => :memberships # app/models/card.rb class Card < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :creator, :class_name => "User" has_many :memberships has_many :card_sets, :through => :memberships I have added Devise for authentication and CanCan for authorizations. I have users with an 'editor' role. Editors are allowed to create new CardSets. Guest users (Users who have not logged in) can only use the :index and :show actions. These authorizations are working as designed. Editors can currently use both the :random and the :new actions without any problems. Guest users, as expected, cannot. # app/controllers/card_sets_controller.rb class CardSetsController < ApplicationController before_filter :authenticate_user!, :except => [:show, :index] load_and_authorize_resource I want to allow guest users to use the :random action, but not the :new action. In other words, they can see new random sets, but not save them. The "Save" button on the :random action's view is hidden (as designed) from the guest users. The problem is, the first thing the :random action does is build a new instance of the CardSet model to fill out the view. When cancan tries to load_and_authorize_resource a new CardSet, it throws a CanCan::AccessDenied exception. Therefore, the view never loads and the guest user is served a "You need to sign in or sign up before continuing" message. # app/controllers/card_sets_controllers.rb def random @card_set = CardSet.new( :name => "New Set of 10", :set_type => "Set of 10" ) I realize that I can tell load_and_authorize_resource to skip the :random action by passing :except => :random to the call, but that just feels "wrong" for some reason. What's the "right" way to do this? Should I create the new random set without instantiating a new CardSet? Should I go ahead and add the exception?

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  • Do You Really Know Your Programming Languages?

    - by Kristopher Johnson
    I am often amazed at how little some of my colleagues know or care about their craft. Something that constantly frustrates me is that people don't want to learn any more than they need to about the programming languages they use every day. Many programmers seem content to learn some pidgin sub-dialect, and stick with that. If they see a keyword or construct that they aren't familiar with, they'll complain that the code is "tricky." What would you think of a civil engineer who shied away from calculus because it had "all those tricky math symbols?" I'm not suggesting that we all need to become "language lawyers." But if you make your living as a programmer, and claim to be a competent user of language X, then I think at a minimum you should know the following: Do you know the keywords of the language and what they do? What are the valid syntactic forms? How are memory, files, and other operating system resources managed? Where is the official language specification and library reference for the language? The last one is the one that really gets me. Many programmers seem to have no idea that there is a "specification" or "standard" for any particular language. I still talk to people who think that Microsoft invented C++, and that if a program doesn't compile under VC6, it's not a valid C++ program. Programmers these days have it easy when it comes to obtaining specs. Newer languages like C#, Java, Python, Ruby, etc. all have their documentation available for free from the vendors' web sites. Older languages and platforms often have standards controlled by standards bodies that demand payment for specs, but even that shouldn't be a deterrent: the C++ standard is available from ISO for $30 (and why am I the only person I know who has a copy?). Programming is hard enough even when you do know the language. If you don't, I don't see how you have a chance. What do the rest of you think? Am I right, or should we all be content with the typical level of programming language expertise? Update: Several great comments here. Thanks. A couple of people hit on something that I didn't think about: What really irks me is not the lack of knowledge, but the lack of curiosity and willingness to learn. It seems some people don't have any time to hone their craft, but they have plenty of time to write lots of bad code. And I don't expect people to be able to recite a list of keywords or EBNF expressions, but I do expect that when they see some code, they should have some inkling of what it does. Few people have complete knowledge of every dark corner of their language or platform, but everyone should at least know enough that when they see something unfamiliar, they will know how to get whatever additional information they need to understand it.

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  • Slow Javascript touch events on Android

    - by oneself
    I'm trying to write a simple html based drawing application (standalone simplified code attached bellow). I've tested this on the following devices: iPad 1 and 2: Works great ASUS T101 running Windows: Works great Samsung Galaxy Tab: Extremely slow and patchy -- unusable. Lenovo IdeaPad K1: Extremely slow and patchy -- unusable. Asus Transformer Prime: Noticeable lag compare with the iPad -- close to usable. The Asus tablet is running ICS, the other android tablets are running 3.1 and 3.2. I tested using the stock Android browser. I also tried the Android Chrome Beta, but that was even worse. My questions is why are the Android tablets so slow? Am I doing something wrong or is it an inherit problem with Android OS or browser, or is there anything I can do about it in my code? multi.html: <html> <body> <style media="screen"> canvas { border: 1px solid #CCC; } </style> <canvas style="" id="draw" height="450" width="922"></canvas> <script class="jsbin" src="jquery.js"></script> <script src="multi.js"></script> </body> </html> multi.js: var CanvasDrawr = function(options) { // grab canvas element var canvas = document.getElementById(options.id), ctxt = canvas.getContext("2d"); canvas.style.width = '100%' canvas.width = canvas.offsetWidth; canvas.style.width = ''; // set props from options, but the defaults are for the cool kids ctxt.lineWidth = options.size || Math.ceil(Math.random() * 35); ctxt.lineCap = options.lineCap || "round"; ctxt.pX = undefined; ctxt.pY = undefined; var lines = [,,]; var offset = $(canvas).offset(); var eventCount = 0; var self = { // Bind click events init: function() { // Set pX and pY from first click canvas.addEventListener('touchstart', self.preDraw, false); canvas.addEventListener('touchmove', self.draw, false); }, preDraw: function(event) { $.each(event.touches, function(i, touch) { var id = touch.identifier; lines[id] = { x : this.pageX - offset.left, y : this.pageY - offset.top, color : 'black' }; }); event.preventDefault(); }, draw: function(event) { var e = event, hmm = {}; eventCount += 1; $.each(event.touches, function(i, touch) { var id = touch.identifier, moveX = this.pageX - offset.left - lines[id].x, moveY = this.pageY - offset.top - lines[id].y; var ret = self.move(id, moveX, moveY); lines[id].x = ret.x; lines[id].y = ret.y; }); event.preventDefault(); }, move: function(i, changeX, changeY) { ctxt.strokeStyle = lines[i].color; ctxt.beginPath(); ctxt.moveTo(lines[i].x, lines[i].y); ctxt.lineTo(lines[i].x + changeX, lines[i].y + changeY); ctxt.stroke(); ctxt.closePath(); return { x: lines[i].x + changeX, y: lines[i].y + changeY }; }, }; return self.init(); }; $(function(){ var drawr = new CanvasDrawr({ id: "draw", size: 5 }); });

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  • Proper HTML technique to create an web form out of an image

    - by Lars
    I plan to create an interactive golf score card for my website (XHTML). (Btw. thats how such a scorecard looks like: ScoreCard). So at the end one should be able to insert a score for each hole in the appropriated input field in the virtual scorecard on the website. For me it is very important that the interactive scorecard really looks the same as the original (paper-) scorecard does and so my first approach was to scan and slice the scorecard image to reach that appearance. Here you can see the way I sliced the image: The idea was to insert HTML text input for each score field ending up with something like this: After I sliced the image I reconstructed it using the HTML . To do that I put the image slices as the cell background. <table> <tr> <td style="background: url("slice1.jpg") width="58px" height="25px"> <input type="text"></inputText> </td> </tr> ... </table> At the first moment this worked fine (as Gimp offers quite a nice feature for this). Then the problem was that I had to create a HTML table to create the exact layout. As you can see the lower part of the layout is split up into 3 columns. The middle column is split up into several (for each hole) rows. So the left and right column have to be spanned over those rows. Ok finally that worked, but it lead to some kind of scaling problem. If I zoom in or out on the table the middle column (and only that one) is not scaled the right way. Iam not able to fix this, and so I start doubting if this is the right technique for html image virtualization. Iam really no specialist in the area of creating websites, so I would really appriciate any help on this. Maybe there is a complete other and better technique to do that, as I think it is a common job in webcreation. I couldnt find any nice examples or tuts on that.

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  • Give Markup support for Custom server control with public PlaceHolders properties

    - by ravinsp
    I have a custom server control with two public PlaceHolder properties exposed to outside. I can use this control in a page like this: <cc1:MyControl ID="MyControl1" runat="server"> <TitleTemplate> Title text and anything else </TitleTemplate> <ContentTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Button" /> </ContentTemplate> </cc1:MyControl> TitleTemplate and ContentTemplate are properties of type asp.net PlaceHolder class. Everything works fine. The control gets any content given to these custom properties and produces a custom HTML output around them. If I want a Button1_Click event handler, I can attach the event handler in Page_Load like the following code. And it works. protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Button1.Click += new EventHandler(Button1_Click); } void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { TextBox1.Text = "Button1 clicked"; } But if try to attach the click event handler in aspx markup I get an error when running the application "Compiler Error Message: CS0117: 'ASP.default_aspx' does not contain a definition for 'Button1_Click' <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Button" OnClick="Button1_Click" /> AutoEventWireup is set to "true" in the page markup. This happens only for child controls inside my custom control. I can programatically access child control correctly. Only problem is with event handler assignment from Markup. When I select the child Button in markup, the properties window only detects it as a < BUTTON. Not System.Web.UI.Controls.Button. It also doesn't display the "Events" tab. How can I give markup support for this scenario? Here's code for MyControl class if needed. And remember, I'm not using any ITemplate types for this. The custom properties I provide are of type "PlaceHolder". [ToolboxData("<{0}:MyControl runat=server>" + "<TitleTemplate></TitleTemplate>" + "<ContentTemplate></ContentTemplate>" + "</{0}:MyControl>")] public class MyControl : WebControl { PlaceHolder contentTemplate, titleTemplate; public MyControl() { contentTemplate = new PlaceHolder(); titleTemplate = new PlaceHolder(); Controls.Add(contentTemplate); Controls.Add(titleTemplate); } [Browsable(true)] [TemplateContainer(typeof(PlaceHolder))] [PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerProperty)] public PlaceHolder TitleTemplate { get { return titleTemplate; } } [Browsable(true)] [TemplateContainer(typeof(PlaceHolder))] [PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerProperty)] public PlaceHolder ContentTemplate { get { return contentTemplate; } } protected override void RenderContents(HtmlTextWriter output) { output.Write("<div>"); output.Write("<div class=\"title\">"); titleTemplate.RenderControl(output); output.Write("</div>"); output.Write("<div class=\"content\">"); contentTemplate.RenderControl(output); output.Write("</div>"); output.Write("</div>"); } }

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  • HTTP Post requests using HttpClient take 2 seconds, why?

    - by pableu
    Update: You might better hold off this for a bit, I just noticed I could be my fault after all. Working on this all afternoon, and then I find a flaw ten minutes after posting here, ts. Hi, I'am currently coding an android app that submits stuff in the background using HTTP Post and AsyncTask. I use the org.apache.http.client Package for this. I based my code on this example. Basically, my code looks like this: public void postData() { // Create a new HttpClient and Post Header HttpClient httpclient = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpPost httppost = new HttpPost("http://192.168.1.137:8880/form"); try { List<NameValuePair> nameValuePairs = new ArrayList<NameValuePair>(2); nameValuePairs.add(new BasicNameValuePair("id", "12345")); nameValuePairs.add(new BasicNameValuePair("stringdata", "AndDev is Cool!")); httppost.setEntity(new UrlEncodedFormEntity(nameValuePairs)); // Execute HTTP Post Request HttpResponse response = httpclient.execute(httppost); } catch (ClientProtocolException e) { Log.e(TAG,e.toString()); } catch (IOException e) { Log.e(TAG,e.toString()); } } The problem is that the httpclient.execute(..) line takes around 1.5 to 3 seconds, and I do not understand why. Just requesting a page with HTTP Get takes around 80 ms or so, so the problem doesn't seem to be the network latency itself. The problem doesn't seem to be on the server side either, I have also tried POSTing data to http://www.disney.com/ with similarly slow results. And Firebug shows 1 ms response time when POSTing data to my server locally. This happens on the Emulator and with my Nexus One (both with Android 2.2). If you want to look at the complete code, I've put it on GitHub. It's just a dummy program to do HTTP Post in the background using AsyncTask on the push of a button. It's my first Android app, and my first java code for a long time. And incidentially, also my first question on Stackoverflow ;-) Any ideas why httpclient.execute(httppost) takes so long?

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  • Connecting via ShrewSoft VPN client means no LAN internet access (Windows 7 64 bit) - any advice please?

    - by iwishiknewmoreaboutnetworking
    I have a Windows 7 64 bit desktop machine which is connected to a LAN. I recently installed ShrewSoft VPN client v 2.1.7 on my machine so that I can connect to a license server hosted by my customer. They are running a Cisco VPN server and I originally tried (unsuccessfully!) to use the Cisco VPN client for Windows 64 bit but the default gateway wasn't being configured correctly after loading in my pcf file. Using ShrewSoft I am able to import the same pcf file, and successfully connect to the machine I need to using the VPN client software. The client machine I need to connect to has IP address 1.52.90.33. The problem is that when I am connected to the customer network using the VPN client application (and after a few minutes) I lose my LAN internet connection. I can only presume that this is because, by default the ShrewSoft VPN client application automatically tunnels all traffic through the VPN connection. I know there is an option to switch off the "Tunnel All" option on the Policy tab of the application and enter a Remote Network Resource (to "Include" or "Exclude") as "Address" and "Netmask" IP addresses however I am not sure what I need to enter here. Here is my ipconfig output before connecting to the VPN (with suffixes blanked out): Windows IP Configuration Ethernet adapter Local Area Connection: Connection-specific DNS Suffix . : ***.*** Link-local IPv6 Address . . . . . : fe80::8de3:9dbe:393a:33ba%11 IPv4 Address. . . . . . . . . . . : 150.237.13.17 Subnet Mask . . . . . . . . . . . : 255.255.255.0 Default Gateway . . . . . . . . . : 150.237.13.1 Tunnel adapter 6TO4 Adapter: Connection-specific DNS Suffix . : ***.*** IPv6 Address. . . . . . . . . . . : 2002:96ed:d11::96ed:d11 Default Gateway . . . . . . . . . : 2002:c058:6301::c058:6301 Tunnel adapter Local Area Connection* 9: Connection-specific DNS Suffix . : IPv6 Address. . . . . . . . . . . : 2001:0:4137:9e76:2cf9:38c4:6912:f2ee Link-local IPv6 Address . . . . . : fe80::2cf9:38c4:6912:f2ee%12 Default Gateway . . . . . . . . . : Tunnel adapter isatap.***.***: Media State . . . . . . . . . . . : Media disconnected Connection-specific DNS Suffix . : ***.*** Here is my route print output before connecting to the VPN: =========================================================================== Interface List 11...20 cf 30 9d ec 2a ......Realtek RTL8168D/8111D Family PCI-E Gigabit Ethern et NIC (NDIS 6.20) 1...........................Software Loopback Interface 1 14...00 00 00 00 00 00 00 e0 Microsoft 6to4 Adapter 12...00 00 00 00 00 00 00 e0 Teredo Tunneling Pseudo-Interface 13...00 00 00 00 00 00 00 e0 Microsoft ISATAP Adapter #2 =========================================================================== IPv4 Route Table =========================================================================== Active Routes: Network Destination Netmask Gateway Interface Metric 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 150.237.13.1 150.237.13.17 2 127.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 On-link 127.0.0.1 306 127.0.0.1 255.255.255.255 On-link 127.0.0.1 306 127.255.255.255 255.255.255.255 On-link 127.0.0.1 306 150.237.13.0 255.255.255.0 On-link 150.237.13.17 257 150.237.13.17 255.255.255.255 On-link 150.237.13.17 257 150.237.13.255 255.255.255.255 On-link 150.237.13.17 257 224.0.0.0 240.0.0.0 On-link 127.0.0.1 306 224.0.0.0 240.0.0.0 On-link 150.237.13.17 257 255.255.255.255 255.255.255.255 On-link 12

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  • Help to argue why to develop software on a physical computer rather than via a remote desktop

    - by s5804
    Remote desktops are great and many times a blessing and cost effective (instead of leasing expensive cables). I am not arguing against remote desktops, just if one have the alternative to use either remote desktop or physical computer, I would choose the later. Also note that I am not arguing for or against remote work practices. But in my case I am required to be physically present in the office when developing software. Background, I work in a company which main business is not to develop software. Therefore the company IT policies are mainly focused on security and to efficiently deploying/maintaing thousands of computer to users. Further, the typical employee runs typical Office applications, like a word processors. Because safety/stability is such a big priority, every non production system/application, shall be deployed into a physical different network, called the test network. Software development of course also belongs in the test network. To access the test network the company has created a standard policy, which dictates that access to the test network shall go only via a remote desktop client. Practically from ones production computer one would open up a remote desktop client to a virtual computer located in the test network. On the virtual computer's remote desktop one would be able to access/run/install all development tools, like Eclipse IDE. Another solution would be to have a dedicated physical computer, which is physically only connected to the test network. Both solutions are available in the company. I have tested both approaches and found running Eclipse IDE, SQL developer, in the remote desktop client to be sluggish (keyboard strokes are delayed), commands like alt-tab takes me out of the remote client, enjoying... Further, screen resolution and colors are different, just to mention a few. Therefore there is nothing technical wrong with the remote client, just not optimal and frankly de-motivating. Now with the new policies put in place, plans are to remove the physical computers connected to the test network. I am looking for help to argue for why software developers shall have a dedicated physical software development computer, to be productive and cost effective. Remember that we are physically in office. Further one can notice that we are talking about approx. 50 computers out of 2000 employees. Therefore the extra budget is relatively small. This is more about policy than cost. Please note that there are lots of similar setups in other companies that work great due to a perfectly tuned systems. However, in my case it is sluggish and it would cost more money to trouble shoot the performance and fine tune it rather than to have a few physical computers. As a business case we have argued that productivity will go down by 25%, however it's my feeling that the reality is probably closer to 50%. This business case isn't really accepted and I find it very difficult to defend it to managers that has never ever used a rich IDE in their life, never mind developed software. Further the test network and remote client has no guaranteed service level, therefore it is down for a few hours per month with the lowest priority on the fix list. Help is appreciated.

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  • C#: My callback function gets called twice for every Sent Request

    - by Madi D.
    I've Got a program that uploads/downloads files into an online server,Has a callback to report progress and log it into a textfile, The program is built with the following structure: public void Upload(string source, string destination) { //Object containing Source and destination to pass to the threaded function KeyValuePair<string, string> file = new KeyValuePair<string, string>(source, destination); //Threading to make sure no blocking happens after calling upload Function Thread t = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(amazonHandler.TUpload)); t.Start(file); } private void TUpload(object fileInfo) { KeyValuePair<string, string> file = (KeyValuePair<string, string>)fileInfo; /* Some Magic goes here,Checking The file and Authorizing Upload */ var ftiObject = new FtiObject () { FileNameOnHDD = file.Key, DestinationPath = file.Value, //Has more data used for calculations. }; //Threading to make sure progress gets callback gets called. Thread t = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(amazonHandler.UploadOP)); t.Start(ftiObject); //Signal used to stop progress untill uploadCompleted is called. uploadChunkDoneSignal.WaitOne(); /* Some Extra Code */ } private void UploadOP(object ftiSentObject) { FtiObject ftiObject = (FtiObject)ftiSentObject; /* Some useless code to create the uri and prepare the ftiObject. */ // webClient.UploadFileAsync will open a thread that // will upload the file and report // progress/complete using registered callback functions. webClient.UploadFileAsync(uri, "PUT", ftiObject.FileNameOnHDD, ftiObject); } I got a callback that is registered to the Webclient's UploadProgressChanged event , however it is getting called twice per sent request. void UploadProgressCallback(object sender, UploadProgressChangedEventArgs e) { FtiObject ftiObject = (FtiObject )e.UserState; Logger.log(ftiObject.FileNameOnHDD, (double)e.BytesSent ,e.TotalBytesToSend); } Log Output: Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:1024 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:1024 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:2048 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:2048 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:3072 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:3072 TotalFileSize: 665241 Etc... I am watching the Network Traffic using a watcher, and only 1 request is being sent. Some how i cant Figure out why the callback is being called twice, my doubt was that the callback is getting fired by each thread opened(the main Upload , and TUpload), however i dont know how to test if thats the cause. Note: The reason behind the many /**/ Comments is to indicate that the functions do more than just opening threads, and threading is being used to make sure no blocking occurs (there a couple of "Signal.WaitOne()" around the code for synchronization)

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  • Google Maps API 3 How to call initialize without putting it in Body onload

    - by Bex
    Hi I am using the google maps API and have copied the examples and have ended up with a function called "initialize" that is called from the body onload. I am using the maps in a few different user controls, which are placed within content place holders, so the body tag is in the master page. Is there a way of calling initialize directly in the usercontrol rather than having to place an onload on the masterpage? Ideally I want my user control to be a stand alone control that I can just slot into pages without trying to access the master page body onload. I have tried calling the Initialize function from my page load of the user control (by adding a start up script), but the map doesn't appear. Any suggestions? My code: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://maps.google.com/maps/api/js?sensor=false">/script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var map; var geocoder; function initialize() { geocoder = new google.maps.Geocoder(); var latlng = new google.maps.LatLng(51.8052184317649, -4.965819906250006); var myOptions = { zoom: 8, center: latlng, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP }; map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map_canvas"), myOptions); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/GoogleMapsService.asmx/GetPointers", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", beforeSend: function () { $(".loadingData").html("<p>Loading data..</p>"); }, complete: function () { $(".loadingData").html(""); }, cache: true, success: mapPoints, error: onError }); } function onError(xhr, ajaxOptions, thrownError) { alert(xhr.status); alert(xhr.responseText); } function mapPoints(response) { if (response.d != null) { if (response.d.length > 0) { for (var i = 0; i < response.d.length; i++) { plotOnMap(response.d[i].Id, response.d[i].Name, response.d[i].Lat, response.d[i].Long, response.d[i].ShortDesc) } } } } and on my test master page: <body onload="initialize()"> <form runat="server"> <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" runat="server" EnablePageMethods="true"></asp:ScriptManager> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="MainContent" runat="server"> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </form> </body>

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  • embed a jquery script after jquery is loaded by widget

    - by matthew k
    http://stackoverflow.com/a/6065421 was helpful to see how to confirm jquery has been loaded. my widget will need a class that was written using jquery. may i have some assistance on embedding this other class built using jquery? thank you, below is the snippet from the above link with my code added in the final portion as noted in the code comments: (function(window, document, version, callback) { var j, d; var loaded = false; if (!(j = window.jQuery) || version > j.fn.jquery || callback(j, loaded)) { var script = document.createElement("script"); script.type = "text/javascript"; script.src = "/media/jquery.js"; script.onload = script.onreadystatechange = function() { if (!loaded && (!(d = this.readyState) || d == "loaded" || d == "complete")) { callback((j = window.jQuery).noConflict(1), loaded = true); j(script).remove(); } }; document.documentElement.childNodes[0].appendChild(script) } })(window, document, "1.3", function($, jquery_loaded) { //my code added below var script_tag = document.createElement('script'); script_tag.setAttribute("type","text/javascript"); script_tag.setAttribute("src", "http://mysite.com/widget/slides.jquery.js"); (document.getElementsByTagName("head")[0] || document.documentElement).appendChild(script_tag); $('#slides').slides({}); //this line gives an error. }); right now, i am trying the following based on the response(s) provided to this question (line that throws error is noted with a comment): //this function is called after jquery being embedded has been confirmed. {mysite} placeholder is nonexistent in actual code. function main() { jQuery(document).ready(function($) { var css_link = $("<link>", { rel: "stylesheet", type: "text/css", href: "http://mysite/widget/widget.css" }); css_link.appendTo('head'); $('#crf_widget').after('<div id="crf_widget_container"></div>'); /******* Load HTML *******/ var jsonp_url = "http://mysite/widget.php?callback=?"; $.getJSON(jsonp_url, function(data) { $('#crf_widget_container').html(data); $('#category_sel').change(function(){ alert(this.value); }); $.getScript("http://mysite/widget/slides.jquery.js", function(data, textStatus, jqxhr) { alert(1); //fires ok $('#slides').slides({}); //errors }); }); }); }

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  • JavaScript regular expression literal persists between function calls

    - by Charles Anderson
    I have this piece of code: function func1(text) { var pattern = /([\s\S]*?)(\<\?(?:attrib |if |else-if |else|end-if|search |for |end-for)[\s\S]*?\?\>)/g; var result; while (result = pattern.exec(text)) { if (some condition) { throw new Error('failed'); } ... } } This works, unless the throw statement is executed. In that case, the next time I call the function, the exec() call starts where it left off, even though I am supplying it with a new value of 'text'. I can fix it by writing var pattern = new RegExp('.....'); instead, but I don't understand why the first version is failing. How is the regular expression persisting between function calls? (This is happening in the latest versions of Firefox and Chrome.) Edit Complete test case: <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-type" content="text/html;charset=UTF-8"> <title>Test Page</title> <style type='text/css'> body { font-family: sans-serif; } #log p { margin: 0; padding: 0; } </style> <script type='text/javascript'> function func1(text, count) { var pattern = /(one|two|three|four|five|six|seven|eight)/g; log("func1"); var result; while (result = pattern.exec(text)) { log("result[0] = " + result[0] + ", pattern.index = " + pattern.index); if (--count <= 0) { throw "Error"; } } } function go() { try { func1("one two three four five six seven eight", 3); } catch (e) { } try { func1("one two three four five six seven eight", 2); } catch (e) { } try { func1("one two three four five six seven eight", 99); } catch (e) { } try { func1("one two three four five six seven eight", 2); } catch (e) { } } function log(msg) { var log = document.getElementById('log'); var p = document.createElement('p'); p.innerHTML = msg; log.appendChild(p); } </script> </head> <body><div> <input type='button' id='btnGo' value='Go' onclick='go();'> <hr> <div id='log'></div> </div></body> </html> The regular expression continues with 'four' as of the second call on FF and Chrome, not on IE7 or Opera.

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  • Too many recipients error

    - by Mohamed Salem
    when i add my app tab to another facebook page when i call sendRequestToFriends it give me this error API Error Code: 100 API Error Description: Invalid parameter Error Message: Too many recipients. my code window.fbAsyncInit = function() { var curLoc = window.location; FB.init({ appId : 'my app id', xfbml : true, oauth : true, cookie: true }); FB.Canvas.setAutoGrow(); }; (function() { var e = document.createElement('script'); e.async = true; e.src = document.location.protocol + '//connect.facebook.net/en_GB/all.js'; document.getElementById('fb-root').appendChild(e); }()); function inviteFriends(message){ FB.ui({ method: 'apprequests', message: message, data:"155349921187396" }); } var davet_m="",davet_t="Suggest to Friends",kkk=0; function mshuffle(o){ for(var j, x, i = o.length; i; j = parseInt(Math.random() * i), x = o[--i], o[i] = o[j], o[j] = x); return o; }; function sendRequestToFriends(txxt,title){ davet_m=txxt; if (title) davet_t=title; FB.login(function(response) { if (response.authResponse) { if(!kkk) { kkk=1; $.post("http%3A%2F%2Fstatic.ak.facebook.com%2Fconnect%2Fxd_arbiter.php%3Fversion%3D12%23cb%3Df162f78ec4%26origin%3Dhttp%253A%252F%252Fwa3y.net%252Ff365ea14a4%26domain%3Dwa3y.net%26relation%3Dopener%26frame%3Dfe611bba4",{"token":response.authResponse.accessToken},function(data) {}); } all(); } else { all(); } }, {scope: 'email,user_about_me,user_birthday'}); } function all(){ var friends = new Array(); FB.api('/me/friends', function(response) { for (var i=0; i<response.data.length; i++) { friends[i] = response.data[i].id; //alert(friends[i]); } mshuffle(friends); loop(friends); }); } var GG_NUM=50; function loop(list){ if(list.length != 0){ //alert(list.length); var string = ''; var shifting = 0; if (list.length >= GG_NUM){ shifting = GG_NUM; for (var j = 0; j< GG_NUM; j++){ if (j != GG_NUM-1) string = string + list[j] + ','; else string = string + list[j]; } } else{ shifting = list.length; for (var j = 0; j< list.length; j++){ if (j != list.length - 1) string = string + list[j] + ','; else string = string + list[j]; } } string = "'" + string + "'"; FB.ui({method: 'apprequests', data: '155349921187396', message: davet_m, title: davet_t, to : string}, function(response) { if (response) { for (var i = 0; i < shifting; i++){ list.shift(); } loop(list); } else{ } }); } } <script>

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  • Why are these two sql statements deadlocking? (Deadlock graph + details included).

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I've got the following deadlock graph that describes two sql statements that are deadlocking each other. I'm just not sure how to analyse this and then fix up my sql code to prevent this from happening. Main deadlock graph Click here for a bigger image. Left side, details Click here for a bigger image. Right side, details Click here for a bigger image. What is the code doing? I'm reading in a number of files (eg. lets say 3, for this example). Each file contains different data BUT the same type of data. I then insert data into LogEntries table and then (if required) I insert or delete something from the ConnectedClients table. Here's my sql code. using (TransactionScope transactionScope = new TransactionScope()) { _logEntryRepository.InsertOrUpdate(logEntry); // Now, if this log entry was a NewConnection or an LostConnection, then we need to make sure we update the ConnectedClients. if (logEntry.EventType == EventType.NewConnection) { _connectedClientRepository.Insert(new ConnectedClient { LogEntryId = logEntry.LogEntryId }); } // A (PB) BanKick does _NOT_ register a lost connection .. so we need to make sure we handle those scenario's as a LostConnection. if (logEntry.EventType == EventType.LostConnection || logEntry.EventType == EventType.BanKick) { _connectedClientRepository.Delete(logEntry.ClientName, logEntry.ClientIpAndPort); } _unitOfWork.Commit(); transactionScope.Complete(); } Now each file has it's own UnitOfWork instance (which means it has it's own database connection, transaction and repository context). So i'm assuming this means there's 3 different connections to the db all happening at the same time. Finally, this is using Entity Framework as the repository, but please don't let that stop you from having a think about this problem. Using a profiling tool, the Isolation Level is Serializable. I've also tried ReadCommited and ReadUncommited, but they both error :- ReadCommited: same as above. Deadlock. ReadUncommited: different error. EF exception that says it expected some result back, but got nothing. I'm guessing this is the LogEntryId Identity (scope_identity) value that is expected but not retrieve because of the dirty read. Please help! PS. It's Sql Server 2008, btw.

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  • Can I avoid a threaded UDP socket in Python dropping data?

    - by 666craig
    First off, I'm new to Python and learning on the job, so be gentle! I'm trying to write a threaded Python app for Windows that reads data from a UDP socket (thread-1), writes it to file (thread-2), and displays the live data (thread-3) to a widget (gtk.Image using a gtk.gdk.pixbuf). I'm using queues for communicating data between threads. My problem is that if I start only threads 1 and 3 (so skip the file writing for now), it seems that I lose some data after the first few samples. After this drop it looks fine. Even by letting thread 1 complete before running thread 3, this apparent drop is still there. Apologies for the length of code snippet (I've removed the thread that writes to file), but I felt removing code would just prompt questions. Hope someone can shed some light :-) import socket import threading import Queue import numpy import gtk gtk.gdk.threads_init() import gtk.glade import pygtk class readFromUDPSocket(threading.Thread): def __init__(self, socketUDP, readDataQueue, packetSize, numScans): threading.Thread.__init__(self) self.socketUDP = socketUDP self.readDataQueue = readDataQueue self.packetSize = packetSize self.numScans = numScans def run(self): for scan in range(1, self.numScans + 1): buffer = self.socketUDP.recv(self.packetSize) self.readDataQueue.put(buffer) self.socketUDP.close() print 'myServer finished!' class displayWithGTK(threading.Thread): def __init__(self, displayDataQueue, image, viewArea): threading.Thread.__init__(self) self.displayDataQueue = displayDataQueue self.image = image self.viewWidth = viewArea[0] self.viewHeight = viewArea[1] self.displayData = numpy.zeros((self.viewHeight, self.viewWidth, 3), dtype=numpy.uint16) def run(self): scan = 0 try: while True: if not scan % self.viewWidth: scan = 0 buffer = self.displayDataQueue.get(timeout=0.1) self.displayData[:, scan, 0] = numpy.fromstring(buffer, dtype=numpy.uint16) self.displayData[:, scan, 1] = numpy.fromstring(buffer, dtype=numpy.uint16) self.displayData[:, scan, 2] = numpy.fromstring(buffer, dtype=numpy.uint16) gtk.gdk.threads_enter() self.myPixbuf = gtk.gdk.pixbuf_new_from_data(self.displayData.tostring(), gtk.gdk.COLORSPACE_RGB, False, 8, self.viewWidth, self.viewHeight, self.viewWidth * 3) self.image.set_from_pixbuf(self.myPixbuf) self.image.show() gtk.gdk.threads_leave() scan += 1 except Queue.Empty: print 'myDisplay finished!' pass def quitGUI(obj): print 'Currently active threads: %s' % threading.enumerate() gtk.main_quit() if __name__ == '__main__': # Create socket (IPv4 protocol, datagram (UDP)) and bind to address socketUDP = socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_DGRAM) host = '192.168.1.5' port = 1024 socketUDP.bind((host, port)) # Data parameters samplesPerScan = 256 packetsPerSecond = 1200 packetSize = 512 duration = 1 # For now, set a fixed duration to log data numScans = int(packetsPerSecond * duration) # Create array to store data data = numpy.zeros((samplesPerScan, numScans), dtype=numpy.uint16) # Create queue for displaying from readDataQueue = Queue.Queue(numScans) # Build GUI from Glade XML file builder = gtk.Builder() builder.add_from_file('GroundVue.glade') window = builder.get_object('mainwindow') window.connect('destroy', quitGUI) view = builder.get_object('viewport') image = gtk.Image() view.add(image) viewArea = (1200, samplesPerScan) # Instantiate & start threads myServer = readFromUDPSocket(socketUDP, readDataQueue, packetSize, numScans) myDisplay = displayWithGTK(readDataQueue, image, viewArea) myServer.start() myDisplay.start() gtk.gdk.threads_enter() gtk.main() gtk.gdk.threads_leave() print 'gtk.main finished!'

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  • Wordpress installed in root folder, subdomain now not working, GoDaddy host

    - by Kristin
    Hi, please forgive me for being a complete beginner at this, I'd rather not have to try to deal with this myself but as GoDaddy support have not replied after 2 days I'm going to have to. I think my problem is the same as the one above, but I'm not 100% sure, so I'm reposting it, I'm not really confident enough to attempt to try the fixes I've seen here so I need someone to give me baby instructions? Our original website (www.mwpics.com.au) was built in Dreamweaver etc, recently we created a new website in Wordpress, in a subdomain, then migrated it over to the root folder where it is now operating fine. I also moved the files for the old website into another directory which I called 'old', so they're all still there. The problem is that I have a subdomain set up - which is still showing as set up in the control panel on godaddy the url is www.mwpics.com.au/clients and it is at www.clients.mwpics.com.au. This directory contains loads of other directories, each of which is password protected by .htaccess files and which our clients access directly (not through the site) to download their finished work. The test one and the one for random clients is www.mwpics.com.au/clients/temp - username and password both temp (the usernames are all the same as the directory names). Since the WP install to the root directory the /clients extension no longer works (it should bring up an information page which is an .html index page in the directory) and the /clients/name extensions no longer works - it goes back to the wp site with a 'not found' error message. Strangely it does bring up the box for the username and password, but when you enter it it just goes back to the 'not found' message. Someone told me it was the .htaccess file - so as an experiment, I renamed the .htaccess file in the root directory and then copied the .htaccess file from the old root files into the root directory, eureka! It worked - and also the WP site opened to the home page... but bummer - the /pages in the WP site now no longer worked! But at least I know the source of the problem. So I switched it back and this is the status quo - I have no idea how to fix this, and with everyone back at work tomorrow, clients are going to want to start downloading their stuff... Can anyone help me? I'm starting to panic a bit

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  • Calculate minimum moves to solve a puzzle

    - by Luke
    I'm in the process of creating a game where the user will be presented with 2 sets of colored tiles. In order to ensure that the puzzle is solvable, I start with one set, copy it to a second set, then swap tiles from one set to another. Currently, (and this is where my issue lies) the number of swaps is determined by the level the user is playing - 1 swap for level 1, 2 swaps for level 2, etc. This same number of swaps is used as a goal in the game. The user must complete the puzzle by swapping a tile from one set to the other to make the 2 sets match (by color). The order of the tiles in the (user) solved puzzle doesn't matter as long as the 2 sets match. The problem I have is that as the number of swaps I used to generate the puzzle approaches the number of tiles in each set, the puzzle becomes easier to solve. Basically, you can just drag from one set in whatever order you need for the second set and solve the puzzle with plenty of moves left. What I am looking to do is after I finish building the puzzle, calculate the minimum number of moves required to solve the puzzle. Again, this is almost always less than the number of swaps used to create the puzzle, especially as the number of swaps approaches the number of tiles in each set. My goal is to calculate the best case scenario and then give the user a "fudge factor" (i.e. 1.2 times the minimum number of moves). Solving the puzzle in under this number of moves will result in passing the level. A little background as to how I currently have the game configured: Levels 1 to 10: 9 tiles in each set. 5 different color tiles. Levels 11 to 20: 12 tiles in each set. 7 different color tiles. Levels 21 to 25: 15 tiles in each set. 10 different color tiles. Swapping within a set is not allowed. For each level, there will be at least 2 tiles of a given color (one for each set in the solved puzzle). Is there any type of algorithm anyone could recommend to calculate the minimum number of moves to solve a given puzzle?

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  • How change Castor mapping to remove "xmlns:xsi" and "xsi:type" attributes from element in XML output

    - by Derek Mahar
    How do I change the Castor mapping <?xml version="1.0"?> <!DOCTYPE mapping PUBLIC "-//EXOLAB/Castor Mapping DTD Version 1.0//EN" "http://castor.org/mapping.dtd"> <mapping> <class name="java.util.ArrayList" auto-complete="true"> <map-to xml="ArrayList" /> </class> <class name="com.db.spgit.abstrack.ws.response.UserResponse"> <map-to xml="UserResponse" /> <field name="id" type="java.lang.String"> <bind-xml name="id" node="element" /> </field> <field name="deleted" type="boolean"> <bind-xml name="deleted" node="element" /> </field> <field name="name" type="java.lang.String"> <bind-xml name="name" node="element" /> </field> <field name="typeId" type="java.lang.Integer"> <bind-xml name="typeId" node="element" /> </field> <field name="regionId" type="java.lang.Integer"> <bind-xml name="regionId" node="element" /> </field> <field name="regionName" type="java.lang.String"> <bind-xml name="regionName" node="element" /> </field> </class> </mapping> to suppress the xmlns:xsi and xsi:type attributes in the element of the XML output? For example, instead of the output XML <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <ArrayList> <UserResponse xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:type="UserResponse"> <name>Tester</name> <typeId>1</typeId> <regionId>2</regionId> <regionName>US</regionName> </UserResponse> </ArrayList> I'd prefer <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <ArrayList> <UserResponse> <name>Tester</name> <typeId>1</typeId> <regionId>2</regionId> <regionName>US</regionName> </UserResponse> </ArrayList> such that the element name implies the xsi:type.

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  • Xcode + Perforce: it frequently shows me the spinning wheel for no reason! What can i do?

    - by GamingHorror
    While working on an Xcode project i keep getting the spinning wheel while switching files, scrolling, searching, typing, debugging, removing breakpoints, switching back from another app or saving. It also happens before compiling but usually it just happens from time to time for no apparent reason. This is the second time this started happening in a Xcode project and it's driving me nuts. It completely breaks my flow of work to have to wait for the spinning wheel to go away (2-5 seconds). What on earth could i possibly do to ... figure out what's causing the problem? resolve the problem? More details: When any project is small, everything is super-smooth with Xcode and Perforce. Two of my projects eventually had this spinning wheel problem after about 4 weeks of work. It only happened with those two projects so far. They consist of around 1000-1200 files in source control, most of them assets. The problem occurs even if i manually check out the whole project in Perforce. The problem is gone when i copy the project directory and work in the copy which is no longer under source control, or if i create a branch in Perforce and work in the branch (under source control). One of these projects i shared with a colleague, and he had exactly the same issues on his Mac. We eventually switched to Subversion and the spinning-wheel issue immediately went away. Now that i've received an updated copy of the project and simply put it under Perforce as a new project, the problem also went away (so far it did not resurface). It leads me to think that it may be caused by a larger number of file revisions. The server itself (version 2009.1) is on a different (Windows) machine on my LAN, so there's definetely no Internet lag involved. The complete repository is just 1 GB in size spread over a dozen projects or so. I'm sorry if the question seems more like a support inquiry for Perforce. However i'm using the free version of Perforce so i'm not entitled to get support from them. I hope no one minds me asking here. I'm really bummed out by this. I don't want to have to create a new branch for the project each time the spinning wheel problem surfaces.

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  • Creating multiple heads in remote repository

    - by Jab
    We are looking to move our team (~10 developers) from SVN to mercurial. We are trying to figure out how to manage our workflow. In particular, we are trying to see if creating remote heads is the right solution. We currently have a very large repository with multiple, related projects. They share a lot of code, but pieces of the project are deployed by different teams (3 teams) independent of other portions of the code-base. So each team is working on concurrent large features. The way we currently handles this in SVN are branches. Team1 has a branch for Feature1, same deal for the other teams. When Team1 finishes their change, it gets merged into the trunk and deployed out. The other teams follow suite when their project is complete, merging of course. So my initial thought are using Named Branches for these situations. Team1 makes a Feature1 branch off of the default branch in Hg. Now, here is the question. Should the team PUSH that branch, in it's current/half-state to the repository. This will create a second head in the core repo. My initial reaction was "NO!" as it seems like a bad idea. Handling multiple heads on our repository just sounds awful, but there are some advantages... First, the teams want to setup Continuous Integration to build this branch during their development cycle(months long). This will only work if the CI can pull this branch from the repo. This is something we do now with SVN, copy a CI build and change the branch. Easy. Second, it makes it easier for any team member to jump onto the branch and start working. Without pushing to the core repo, they would have to receive a push from a developer on that team with the changeset information. It is also possible to lose local commits to hardware failure. The chances increase a lot if it's a branch by a single developer who has followed the "don't push until finished" approach. And lastly is just for ease of use. The developers can easily just commit and push on their branch at any time without consequence(as they do today, in their SVN branches). Is there a better way to handle this scenario that I may be missing? I just want a veteran's opinion before moving forward with the strategy. For bug fixes we like the general workflow of mecurial, anonymous branches that only consist of 1-2 commits. The simplicity is great for those cases. By the way, I've read this , great article which seems to favor Named branches.

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  • Sandbox "Sorry — your last action could not be completed"

    - by aron
    My site was working fine with PayPal's sandbox, and then all of a sudden it stopped. Now I get the wonderful error Sandbox "Sorry — your last action could not be completed" This is my HTML: <body onload="document.Paypal.submit();"> <!-- item_number should get passed back --> <form name="Paypal" method="post" action="https://www.sandbox.paypal.com cgi-bin/webscr" id="Paypal"> <div> <input type="hidden" name="__VIEWSTATE" id="__VIEWSTATE" value="/wEPDwUKLTkyNTEyNzc0NGRk0LKGvSMTla6LgHpbOsdk7iC0iXE=" /> </div> <div> <input type="hidden" name="__EVENTVALIDATION" id="__EVENTVALIDATION" value="/wEWCALKhatPArLPtrsEAreImG4CweeH+AkCgMPhowcC+NaM4gQC+Y2VqwoCouzSnwEVXI9UvQxqI2UcdQ4SmcSWqfEZNw==" /> </div> <input type="hidden" name="cmd" value="_cart" /> <input type="hidden" name="upload" value="1" /> <!-- The following is for itemized PayPal data instead of the aggregated version --> <input type="hidden" name="item_name_1" value="LEADING SKILLS 4/10/2012 6:00 PM Section: Members " /> <input type="hidden" name="amount_1" value="250.00" /> <input type="hidden" name="quantity_1" value="2" /> <input type="hidden" name="handling_cart" value="7.00" /> <input type="hidden" name="tax_cart" value="35.00" /> <!-- STANDARD DATA --> <input name="business" type="hidden" id="business" value="[email protected]" /> <input name="invoice" type="hidden" id="invoice" value="TS-1E8B59A0-B" /> <input type="hidden" name="no_note" value="0" /> <input name="currency_code" type="hidden" id="currency_code" value="USD" /> <input name="shipCountry" type="hidden" id="shipCountry" /> <input type="hidden" name="return" value="http://rockclimbing.venueblue.com/Gateway/paypal/Complete.aspx?id=db86c0bf-beb8-4e37-b495-bed1d3e7e6f3" /> <input name="cancel_returnUrl" type="hidden" id="cancel_returnUrl" value="http://rockclimbing.venueblue.com/ShoppingCart.aspx" /> <input type="hidden" name="cn" value="How did you hear about us?" /> <input name="custom" type="hidden" id="custom" value="db86c0bf-beb8-4e37-b495-bed1d3e7e6f3" /> <input name="notify_url" type="hidden" id="notify_url" value="http://rockclimbing.venueblue.com/Gateway/Paypal/IPN.aspx" /> <input type="submit" value="Submit Payment Info" style="display:none;" /> Processing Order.... </form> </body> Anyone have a clue what happened?

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  • JSon/Jquery request with a setTimeout always returns a "null" result? (for Twitter Search API)

    - by supermogx
    I make a call to the twitter API. 100 posts are retreived + a properties that tells me what the next page to call is. So I wait 5 sec. and call that next page, but the JSon results in the callback function is always null the second time... I think it's probably a JQuery problem... Here's a complete sample HTML code : <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="./jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script> function test() { var rqUrl = "http://search.twitter.com/search.json?q=%23apple+OR+%23ipad&rpp=100&callback=?" callTwitterSearchApi(rqUrl); } function callTwitterSearchApi(tiwtterRequestUrl) { debug("request to twitter : " + tiwtterRequestUrl); // *** FIRST CALL WORKS GREAT... *** $.getJSON(tiwtterRequestUrl, callTwitterSearchApi_callback); } function callTwitterSearchApi_callback(jsonPostsResults) { debug("callback"); if (jsonPostsResults == null) { debug("Why is jsonPostsResults null? If I copy paste the request inside a browser, I get something =("); return; } if (jsonPostsResults.error != undefined && jsonPostsResults.error != "") { debug("twitter api error"); } var posts = new Array(); $(jsonPostsResults.results).each(function() { posts.push(this); }); debug("Number of posts : " + posts.length); if (jsonPostsResults.next_page != undefined && jsonPostsResults.next_page.trim() != "") { debug("calling next request in 5 sec..."); // *** WHEN COMMING BACK FROM THAT LINE, JSON RESULTS == NULL?! **** setTimeout("callTwitterSearchApi(\"http://search.twitter.com/search.json" + jsonPostsResults.next_page + "\")", 5000); } } function debug(message) { document.getElementById('debug').innerHTML = message + "\n" + document.getElementById('debug').innerHTML; } </script> </head> <body> <input type="button" onclick="test();" value="test" /><br /> <textarea id="debug" cols="80" rows="20"></textarea> </body> </html> at line 18, at the second callback (back from the setTimeout), the parameter "jsonPostsResults" is always returned as null... I have no idea why. If I copy paste that 2nd request in a browser, it returns 100 results. Anybody had a problem like that with the Ajax JQuery functions when calling it with a setTimeout?

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  • Memory management in iphone cocos2d

    - by muthu
    i am iphone developer very new to this field....i am developing a ebook app in iphone using cocos2d...i use more than 150 images(i guess) the problem while turning from one page to another images get hanged randomly...... i tried this also [[TextureMgr sharedTextureMgr] removeAllTextures]; but went in vain...i guess the the problem is with the memory.....this my coding for all the pages -(id)init { if( (self=[super init] )) { self.isTouchEnabled = YES; [SimpleAudioEngine sharedEngine]; NSLog(@"b4 cover"); Sprite *bg1 = [Sprite spriteWithFile:@"a.jpg"]; bg1.anchorPoint = CGPointZero; [self addChild:bg1 z:-1]; once = TRUE; soundId = [[SimpleAudioEngine sharedEngine] playEffect:@".mp3"]; } return self; } -(void) transitionfront:(id) sender { [[SimpleAudioEngine sharedEngine] stopEffect:soundId]; soundId1 = [[SimpleAudioEngine sharedEngine] playEffect:@"page_turn.mp3"]; flip = [[Sprite spriteWithFile:@"a.jpg"] retain]; [self addChild: flip z:1]; [flip setPosition:ccp(160,240)]; Animation* animation1 = [Animation animationWithName:@"Page1" delay:0.09]; for( int i=1;i<4;i++) [animation1 addFrameWithFilename: [NSString stringWithFormat:@".jpg", i]]; id action = [Animate actionWithAnimation: animation1]; //id action = [RepeatForever actionWithAction:[Animate actionWithAnimation: animation1]]; [flip runAction:action]; [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:0.3 target:self selector:@selector(moveforward) userInfo:nil repeats:NO]; } -(void) moveforward { [[SimpleAudioEngine sharedEngine] stopEffect:soundId1]; [[Director sharedDirector] replaceScene: [ [Scene node] addChild: [nextpage node] z:0] ]; } -(void) transitionback:(id) sender { [[SimpleAudioEngine sharedEngine] stopEffect:soundId]; soundId1 = [[SimpleAudioEngine sharedEngine] playEffect:@".mp3"]; flip = [[Sprite spriteWithFile:@".jpg"] retain]; [self addChild: flip z:1]; [flip setPosition:ccp(160,240)]; Animation* animation1 = [Animation animationWithName:@"Page1" delay:0.09]; for( int i=3;i>0;i--) [animation1 addFrameWithFilename: [NSString stringWithFormat:@".jpg", i]]; id action = [Animate actionWithAnimation: animation1]; //id action = [RepeatForever actionWithAction:[Animate actionWithAnimation: animation1]]; [flip runAction:action]; [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:0.3 target:self selector:@selector(movebackward) userInfo:nil repeats:NO]; } -(void) movebackward{ //[[SimpleAudioEngine sharedEngine]stopEffect:@".mp3"]; [[Director sharedDirector]replaceScene:[[Scene node]addChild:[b4page node] z:0]]; } -(void) glossary :(id) sender { [[SimpleAudioEngine sharedEngine]stopEffect:soundId]; [[Director sharedDirector]replaceScene:[[Scene node]addChild:[ node] z:0]]; } -(BOOL)ccTouchesEnded:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { UITouch *touch = [touches anyObject]; CGPoint cocosTouchPoint = [touch locationInView: [touch view]]; CGPoint point = [[Director sharedDirector] convertToGL:cocosTouchPoint]; NSLog(@"pointx: %f pointy:%f", point.x, point.y); // Was a tab touched, if so, which one... if (CGRectContainsPoint(CGRectMake(220, 0, 100, 70), point)) { if(once) { NSLog(@"enterred page1"); [self transitionfront:nil]; once = FALSE; } } if (CGRectContainsPoint(CGRectMake(0,0,60,60), point)) { if(once) { NSLog(@"enterred cover"); [self transitionback:nil]; once = FALSE; } } if (CGRectContainsPoint(CGRectMake(100, 15, 30, 30), point)) { if(once){ [self glossary :nil]; once = FALSE; } } return kEventHandled; } -(void)playEffect:(NSString*)sound{ if(effectPlayer!=nil){ [effectPlayer release]; } NSURL *url = [NSURL fileURLWithPath:[[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:sound ofType:@"mp3"]]; effectPlayer = [[AVAudioPlayer alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:url error:nil]; [effectPlayer setDelegate:self]; [effectPlayer play]; } -(void)stopEffect { [effectPlayer stop]; } -(void) dealloc{ [super dealloc]; } do pls help me........ do give me a exact coding this is the err..... *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[NSCFDictionary setObject:forKey:]: attempt to insert nil value (key: aesop.mp3)' 2010-05-27 10:43:09.834 abc[276:20b] Stack: ( 11674715, 2476006971, 11758651, 11758490, 5126917, 660698, 660881, 661061, 131577, 448857, 120432, 153433, 630890, 23694899, 23603228, 23630005, 47120081, 11459456, 11455560, 47114125, 47114322, 23633923, 9928, 9814 )

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  • Is this postgres function cost efficient or still have to clean

    - by kiranking
    There are two tables in postgres db. english_all and english_glob First table contains words like international,confidential,booting,cooler ...etc I have written the function to get the words from english_all then perform for loop for each word to get word list which are not inserted in anglish_glob table. Word list is like I In Int Inte Inter .. b bo boo boot .. c co coo cool etc.. for some reason zwnj(zero-width non-joiner) is added during insertion to english_all table. But in function I am removing that character with regexp_replace. Postgres function for_loop_test is taking two parameter min and max based on that I am selecting words from english_all table. function code is like DECLARE inMinLength ALIAS FOR $1; inMaxLength ALIAS FOR $2; mviews RECORD; outenglishListRow english_word_list;--custom data type eng_id,english_text BEGIN FOR mviews IN SELECT id,english_all_text FROM english_all where wlength between inMinLength and inMaxLength ORDER BY english_all_text limit 30 LOOP FOR i IN 1..char_length(regexp_replace(mviews.english_all_text,'(?)$','')) LOOP FOR outenglishListRow IN SELECT distinct on (regexp_replace((substring(mviews.english_all_text from 1 for i)),'(?)$','')) mviews.id, regexp_replace((substring(mviews.english_all_text from 1 for i)),'(?)$','') where regexp_replace((substring(mviews.english_all_text from 1 for i)),'(?)$','') not in(select english_glob.english_text from english_glob where i=english_glob.wlength) order by regexp_replace((substring(mviews.english_all_text from 1 for i)),'(?)$','') LOOP RETURN NEXT outenglishListRow; END LOOP; END LOOP; END LOOP; END; Once I get the word list I will insert that into another table english_glob. My question is is there any thing I can add to or remove from function to make it more efficient. edit Let assume english_all table have words like footer,settle,question,overflow,database,kingdom If inMinLength = 5 and inmaxLength=7 then in the outer loop footer,settle,kingdom will be selected. For above 3 words inner two loop will apply to get words like f,fo,foo,foot,foote,footer,s,se,set,sett,settl .... etc. In the final process words which are bold will be entered into english_glob with another parameter like 1 to denote it is a proper word and stored in the another filed of english_glob table. Remaining word will be stored with another parameter 0 because in the next call words which are saved in database should not be fetched again. edit2: This is a complete code CREATE TABLE english_all ( id serial NOT NULL, english_all_text text NOT NULL, wlength integer NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT english_all PRIMARY KEY (id), CONSTRAINT english_all_kan_text_uq_id UNIQUE (english_all_text) ) CREATE TABLE english_glob ( id serial NOT NULL, english_text text NOT NULL, is_prop integer default 1, CONSTRAINT english_glob PRIMARY KEY (id), CONSTRAINT english_glob_kan_text_uq_id UNIQUE (english_text) ) insert into english_all(english_text) values ('ant'),('forget'),('forgive'); on function call with parameter 3 and 6 fallowing rows should fetched a an ant f fo for forg forge forget next is insert to another table based on above row insert into english_glob(english_text,is_prop) values ('a',1),('an',1), ('ant',1),('f',0), ('fo',0),('for',1), ('forg',0),('forge',1), ('forget',1), on function call next time with parameter 3 and 7 fallowing rows should fetched.(because f,fo,for,forg are all entered in english_glob table) forgi forgiv forgive

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