Search Results

Search found 14801 results on 593 pages for 'base de datos'.

Page 552/593 | < Previous Page | 548 549 550 551 552 553 554 555 556 557 558 559  | Next Page >

• A script that writes errors and should create a event-error

  - by helmich

  this if it works should check the internet connection if there is a connection it does nothing. if there isn't a connection it should write a error in a txtfile if that happend 5 times it should create a error but it doesn't I will show you the whole code that i have now and the piece of code that i want in a loop. I can't get it in the way i want. I want it to creat 1 Event-error after 5 times writing to the file. this is the whole code i will put the code i want in a loop under it strDirectory = "Z:\text2" strFile = "\foutmelding.txt" strText = "De connectie is verbroken" strWebsite = "www.helmichbeens.com" If PingSite(strWebsite) Then WScript.Quit 'Website is pingable - no further action required Set objFSO = CreateObject("Scripting.FileSystemObject") RecordSingleEvent Dim fout For fout = 1 To 5 : Do If fout = 5 Then Exit Do Set WshShell = WScript.CreateObject("WScript.Shell") Call WshShell.LogEvent(1, "Test Event") Loop While False : next '------------------------------------ 'Record a single event in a text file '------------------------------------ Sub RecordSingleEvent If Not objFSO.FolderExists(strDirectory) Then objFSO.CreateFolder(strDirectory) Set objTextFile = objFSO.OpenTextFile(strDirectory & strFile, 8, True) objTextFile.WriteLine(Now & strText) objTextFile.Close End sub '---------------- 'Ping my web site '---------------- Function PingSite( myWebsite ) Set objHTTP = CreateObject( "WinHttp.WinHttpRequest.5.1" ) objHTTP.Open "GET", "http://" & myWebsite & "/", False objHTTP.SetRequestHeader "User-Agent", "Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MyApp 1.0; Windows NT 5.1)" On Error Resume Next objHTTP.Send PingSite = (objHTTP.Status = 200) On Error Goto 0 End Function '----------------------------------------------- 'Counts the number of lines inside the text file '----------------------------------------------- Function EventCount(fout) strData = objFSO.OpenTextFile(strDirectory & strFile,ForReading).ReadAll arrLines = Split(strData,vbCrLf) EventCount = UBound(arrLines) End Function This is the whole code, and it doesnt work correctly becaus it creats a event-log rightaway and it should do that after the script has written 5 times to the textfile here is the code that writes to a textfile Sub RecordSingleEvent If Not objFSO.FolderExists(strDirectory) Then objFSO.CreateFolder(strDirectory) Set objTextFile = objFSO.OpenTextFile(strDirectory & strFile, 8, True) objTextFile.WriteLine(Now & strText) objTextFile.Close End sub and here is the code but this part doesnt not work or atleast i think it is this part Dim fout For fout = 1 To 5 : Do If fout = 5 Then Exit Do Set WshShell = WScript.CreateObject("WScript.Shell") Call WshShell.LogEvent(1, "Test Event") Loop While False : next Function EventCount(fout) strData = objFSO.OpenTextFile(strDirectory & strFile,ForReading).ReadAll arrLines = Split(strData,vbCrLf) EventCount = UBound(arrLines) End Function this is the not working part and I don't know what to do anymore so can you please take a look at it tank you very much. btw: this code can be very usefull for a network administrator

  Read the article

• Howoto get id of new record after model.save

  - by tonymarschall

  I have a model with the following db structure: mysql> describe units; +------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | id | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | name | varchar(128) | NO | | NULL | | | created_at | datetime | NO | | NULL | | | updated_at | datetime | NO | | NULL | | +------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ 7 rows in set (0.00 sec) After creating a new record an saving i can not get the id of the record. 1.9.3p194 :001 > unit = Unit.new(:name => 'test') => #<Unit id: nil, name: "test", created_at: nil, updated_at: nil> 1.9.3p194 :002 > unit.save (0.2ms) BEGIN SQL (0.3ms) INSERT INTO `units` (`created_at`, `name`, `updated_at`) VALUES ('2012-08-31 23:48:12', 'test', '2012-08-31 23:48:12') (144.6ms) COMMIT => true 1.9.3p194 :003 > unit.inspect => "#<Unit id: nil, name: \"test\", created_at: \"2012-08-31 23:48:12\", updated_at: \"2012-08-31 23:48:12\">" # unit.rb class Unit < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :name end # migration class CreateUnits < ActiveRecord::Migration def change create_table :units do |t| t.string :name, :null => false t.timestamps end end end Tried this with other models and have the same result (no id). Data is definitily saved and i can get data with Unit.last Another try with Foo.id = nil # /var/www# rails g model Foo name:string invoke active_record create db/migrate/20120904030554_create_foos.rb create app/models/foo.rb invoke test_unit create test/unit/foo_test.rb create test/fixtures/foos.yml # /var/www# rake db:migrate == CreateFoos: migrating ===================================================== -- create_table(:foos) -> 0.3451s == CreateFoos: migrated (0.3452s) ============================================ # /var/www# rails c Loading development environment (Rails 3.2.8) 1.9.3p194 :001 > foo = Foo.new(:name => 'bar') => #<Foo id: nil, name: "bar", created_at: nil, updated_at: nil> 1.9.3p194 :002 > foo.save (0.2ms) BEGIN SQL (0.4ms) INSERT INTO `foos` (`created_at`, `name`, `updated_at`) VALUES ('2012-09-04 03:06:26', 'bar', '2012-09-04 03:06:26') (103.2ms) COMMIT => true 1.9.3p194 :003 > foo.inspect => "#<Foo id: nil, name: \"bar\", created_at: \"2012-09-04 03:06:26\", updated_at: \"2012-09-04 03:06:26\">" 1.9.3p194 :004 > Foo.last Foo Load (0.5ms) SELECT `foos`.* FROM `foos` ORDER BY `foos`.`id` DESC LIMIT 1 => #<Foo id: 1, name: "bar", created_at: "2012-09-04 03:06:26", updated_at: "2012-09-04 03:06:26">

  Read the article

• .htaccess mod_rewrite URL query

  - by 1001001

  I was hoping someone could help me out. I'm building a CRM application and need help modifying the .htaccess file to clean up the URLs. I've read every post regarding .htaccess and mod_rewrite and I've even tried using http://www.generateit.net/mod-rewrite/ to obtain the results with no success. Here is what I am attempting to do. Let's call the base URL www.domain.com We are using php with a mysql back-end and some jQuery and javascript In that "root" folder is my .htaccess file. I'm not sure if I need a .htaccess file in each subdirectory or if one in the root is enough. We have several actual directories of files including "crm", "sales", "finance", etc. First off we want to strip off all the ".php" extensions which I am able to do myself thanks to these posts. However, the querying of the company and contact IDs are where I am stuck. Right now if I load www.domain.com/crm/companies.php it displays all the companies in a list. If I click on one of the companies it uses javascript to call a "goto_company(x)" jQuery script that writes a form and submit that form based on the ID (x) of the company. This works fine and keeps the links clean as all the end user sees is www.domain.com/crm/company.php. However you can't navigate directly to a company. So we added a few lines in PHP to see if the POST is null and try a GET instead allowing us to do www.domain.com/crm/company.php?companyID=40 which displays company #40 out of the database. I need to rewrite this link, and all other associated links to www.domain.com/crm/company/40 I've tried everything and nothing seems to work. Keep in mind that I need to do this for "contacts" and also on the sales portion of the app will need to do something for "deals". To summarize here's what I am looking to do: Change www.domain.com/crm/dash.php to www.domain.com/crm/dash Change www.domain.com/crm/company.php?companyID=40 to www.domain.com/crm/company/40 Change www.domain.com/crm/contact.php?contactID=27 to www.domain.com/crm/contact/27 Change www.domain.com/sales/dash.php to www.domain.com/sales/dash Change www.domain.com/sales/deal.php?dealID=6 to www.domain.com/sales/deal/6 (40, 27, and 6 are just arbitrary numbers as examples) Just for reference, when I used the generateit.net/mod-rewrite site using www.domain.com/crm/company.php?companyID=40 as an example, here is what it told me to put in my .htaccess file: Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^crm/company/([^/]*)$ /crm/company.php?companyID=$1 [L] Needless to say that didn't work.

  Read the article

• Calling back a functions value

  - by Jason Kelly

  I need your help, I cannot, for the life of me, figure this out. I've had my head wrapped around it only to no avail. Ideally, i'd like to setup two functions. 1 function: select_date() to interact with the user to select a date from the jQuery Date picker. If the dialog is closed then return as null. Then a second function: test() to check wether or not a date was picked/selected.' Here's my delema, when the function test() is executed, an alert box pops up and says "undefined" which means, I never get to select a date and it always being "undefined" I dont see what I am doing wrong here and everything seems logical to me. <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <link href="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8.21/themes/base/jquery-ui.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css"/> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.7.2/jquery.js"></script> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8.21/jquery-ui.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function select_date() { var sdate $('#dd').dialog({ autoOpen: true, modal: true, overlay: { opacity: 0.5, background: 'black' }, title: "title", height: 265, width: 235, draggable: false, resizable: false }); $('#d1').datepicker({ onSelect: function () { $("#dd").dialog("close"); } }); return sdate } function test() { var x = select_date() alert(x) } </script> <style type="text/css"> #d1 {font-size:64%;} </style> </head> <body> <div id="dd"> <div id="d1"> </div> </div> <a href="javascript:test()">test</a> </body> </html>

  Read the article

• NHibernate does not update entity when repository is passed by constructor

  - by Alex

  Hi everybody, I am developing with NHibernate for the first time in conjunction with ASP.NET MVC and StructureMap. The CodeCampServer serves as a great example for me. I really like the different concepts which were implemented there and I can learn a lot from it. In my controllers I use Constructur Dependency Injection to get an instance of the specific repository needed. My problem is: If I change an attribute of the customer the customer's data is not updated in the database, although Commit() is called on the transaction object (by a HttpModule). public class AccountsController : Controller { private readonly ICustomerRepository repository; public AccountsController(ICustomerRepository repository) { this.repository = repository; } public ActionResult Save(Customer customer) { Customer customerToUpdate = repository .GetById(customer.Id); customerToUpdate.GivenName = "test"; //<-- customer does not get updated in database return View(); } } On the other hand this is working: public class AccountsController : Controller { [LoadCurrentCustomer] public ActionResult Save(Customer customer) { customer.GivenName = "test"; //<-- Customer gets updated return View(); } } public class LoadCurrentCustomer : ActionFilterAttribute { public override void OnActionExecuting(ActionExecutingContext filterContext) { const string parameterName = "Customer"; if (filterContext.ActionParameters.ContainsKey(parameterName)) { if (filterContext.HttpContext.User.Identity.IsAuthenticated) { Customer CurrentCustomer = DependencyResolverFactory .GetDefault() .Resolve<IUserSession>() .GetCurrentUser(); filterContext.ActionParameters[parameterName] = CurrentCustomer; } } base.OnActionExecuting(filterContext); } } public class UserSession : IUserSession { private readonly ICustomerRepository repository; public UserSession(ICustomerRepository customerRepository) { repository = customerRepository; } public Customer GetCurrentUser() { var identity = HttpContext.Current.User.Identity; if (!identity.IsAuthenticated) { return null; } Customer customer = repository.GetByEmailAddress(identity.Name); return customer; } } I also tried to call update on the repository like the following code shows. But this leads to an NHibernateException which says "Illegal attempt to associate a collection with two open sessions". Actually there is only one. public ActionResult Save(Customer customer) { Customer customerToUpdate = repository .GetById(customer.Id); customer.GivenName = "test"; repository.Update(customerToUpdate); return View(); } Does somebody have an idea why the customer is not updated in the first example but is updated in the second example? Why does NHibernate say that there are two open sessions?

  Read the article

• Multi domain rails app. How to intelligently use MVC?

  - by denial

  Background: We have app a, b, and plan to add more apps into this same application. The apps are similar enough they could share many views, assets, and actions. Currently a,b live in a single rails app(2.3.10). c will be similar enough that it could also be in this rails app. The problem: As we continue to add more apps to this one app, there's going to be too much case logic that the app will soon become a nightmare to maintain. There will also be potential namespace issues. However, the apps are very similar in function and layout, it also makes sense to keep them in one app so that it's one app to maintain(since roughly 50% of site look/functionality will be shared). What we are trying to do is keep this as clean as possible so it's easy for multiple teams to work on and easy to maintain. Some things we've thought about/are trying: Engines. Make each app an engine. This would let us base routes on the domain. It also allows us to pull out controllers, models and views for the specific app. This solution does not seem ideal as we won't be reusing the apps any time soon. And explicitly stating the host in the routes doesn't seem right. Skinning/themes. The auth logic would be different between the apps. Each user model would be different. So it's not just a skinning problem. In app/view add folder sitea for sitea views, siteb for siteb views and so on. Do the same for controllers and models. This is still pretty messy and since it didn't follow naming conventions, it did not work with rails so nicely and made much of the code messier. Making another rails app. We just didn't want to maintain the same controller or view in 2 apps if they are identical. What we want to do is make the app intelligently use a controller based on the host. So there would be a sessions controller for each app, and perhaps some parent session controller for shared logic(not needed now). In each of these session controllers, it handles authentication for that specific app. So if the domain is a.mysite.com, it would use session controller for app a and know to use app a's views,models,controllers. And if the domain is b.mysite, it would use the session controller for b. And there would be a user model for a and user model for b, which also would be determined by the domain. Does anyone have any suggestions or experience with this situation? And ideally using rails 2.3.x as updating to rails 3 isn't an option right now.

  Read the article

• MySQL multiple dependent subqueries, painfully slow

  - by matt80

  I have a working query that retrieves the data that I need, but unfortunately it is painfully slow (runs over 3 minutes). I have indexes in place, but I think the problem is the multiple dependent subqueries. I've been trying to rewrite the query using joins but I can't seem to get it to work. Any help would be greatly appreciated. The tables: Basically, I have 2 tables. The first (prices) holds the prices of items in a store. Each row is the price of an item that day, and new rows are added every day with an updated price. The second table (watches_US) holds the item information (name, description, etc). CREATE TABLE `prices` ( `prices_id` int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, `prices_locale` enum('CA','DE','FR','JP','UK','US') NOT NULL default 'US', `prices_watches_ID` char(10) NOT NULL, `prices_date` datetime NOT NULL, `prices_am` varchar(10) default NULL, `prices_new` varchar(10) default NULL, `prices_used` varchar(10) default NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`prices_id`), KEY `prices_am` (`prices_am`), KEY `prices_locale` (`prices_locale`), KEY `prices_watches_ID` (`prices_watches_ID`), KEY `prices_date` (`prices_date`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 AUTO_INCREMENT=61764 ; CREATE TABLE `watches_US` ( `watches_ID` char(10) NOT NULL, `watches_date_added` datetime NOT NULL, `watches_last_update` datetime default NULL, `watches_title` varchar(255) default NULL, `watches_small_image_height` int(11) default NULL, `watches_small_image_width` int(11) default NULL, `watches_description` text, PRIMARY KEY (`watches_ID`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8; The query retrieves the last 10 prices changes over a period of 30 hours, ordered by the size of the price change. So I have subqueries to get the newest price, the oldest price within 30 hours, and then to calculate the price change. Here's the query: SELECT watches_US.*, prices.*, watches_US.watches_ID as current_ID, ( SELECT prices_am FROM prices WHERE prices_watches_ID = current_ID AND prices_locale = 'US' ORDER BY prices_date DESC LIMIT 1 ) as new_price, ( SELECT prices_date FROM prices WHERE prices_watches_ID = current_ID AND prices_locale = 'US' ORDER BY prices_date DESC LIMIT 1 ) as new_price_date, ( SELECT prices_am FROM prices WHERE ( prices_watches_ID = current_ID AND prices_locale = 'US') AND ( prices_date >= DATE_SUB(new_price_date,INTERVAL 30 HOUR) ) ORDER BY prices_date ASC LIMIT 1 ) as old_price, ( SELECT ROUND(((new_price - old_price)/old_price)*100,2) ) as percent_change, ( SELECT (new_price - old_price) ) as absolute_change FROM watches_US LEFT OUTER JOIN prices ON prices.prices_watches_ID = watches_US.watches_ID WHERE ( prices_locale = 'US' ) AND ( prices_am IS NOT NULL ) AND ( prices_am != '' ) HAVING ( old_price IS NOT NULL ) AND ( old_price != 0 ) AND ( old_price != '' ) AND ( absolute_change < 0 ) AND ( prices.prices_date = new_price_date ) ORDER BY absolute_change ASC LIMIT 10 How would I rewrite this to use joins instead, or otherwise optimize this so it doesn't take over 3 minutes to get a result? Any help would be greatly appreciated! Thank you kindly.

  Read the article

• This code appears to achieve the return of a null reference in C++

  - by Chuck

  Hi folks, My C++ knowledge is somewhat piecemeal. I was reworking some code at work. I changed a function to return a reference to a type. Inside, I look up an object based on an identifier passed in, then return a reference to the object if found. Of course I ran into the issue of what to return if I don't find the object, and in looking around the web, many people claim that returning a "null reference" in C++ is impossible. Based on this advice, I tried the trick of returning a success/fail boolean, and making the object reference an out parameter. However, I ran into the roadblock of needing to initialize the references I would pass as actual parameters, and of course there is no way to do this. I retreated to the usual approach of just returning a pointer. I asked a colleague about it. He uses the following trick quite often, which is accepted by both a recent version of the Sun compiler and by gcc: MyType& someFunc(int id) { // successful case here: // ... // fail case: return *static_cast<MyType*>(0); } // Use: ... MyType& mt = somefunc(myIdNum); if (&mt) // test for "null reference" { // whatever } ... I have been maintaining this code base for a while, but I find that I don't have as much time to look up the small details about the language as I would like. I've been digging through my reference book but the answer to this one eludes me. Now, I had a C++ course a few years ago, and therein we emphasized that in C++ everything is types, so I try to keep that in mind when thinking things through. Deconstructing the expression: "*static_cast(0);", it indeed seems to me that we take a literal zero, cast it to a pointer to MyType (which makes it a null pointer), and then apply the dereferencing operator in the context of assigning to a reference type (the return type), which should give me a reference to the same object pointed to by the pointer. This sure looks like returning a null reference to me. Any advice in explaining why this works (or why it shouldn't) would be greatly appreciated. Thanks, Chuck

  Read the article

• Unable to find assembly, C#

  - by PlasmaCube

  So, here's the deal. I've got two ASP.NET applications, both of which use SQLServer Session State management. They also both use the same server. I've got a custom session class in an external DLL, which fully implements serialization, and which both applications have referenced. Each application, in turn, has a class which inherits from the DLL class, and both applications use their own respective classes for their session state. Now, what I was trying to accomplish was that if you wanted to go to the other application, it could look in the session (they all use the same session key) and treat the existing object there as the base (the one from the DLL), extract whatever login info you need, then overwrite the session object with your own. Unfortunately, when the second application attempts to read the session, it seems that it looks for the DLL of the first application, and when it can't find it, it throws an exception. Is there a flaw in my logic? Here's an example: // Global.asax of the 1st app protected void Session_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { Session.Add( "UserSessionKey", new FirstUserSession()); // FirstUserSession inherits from BaseUserSession } Now the second application: // Global.asax of 2nd app protected void Session_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Session["UserSessionKey"] != null) { BaseUserSession existing = (BaseUserSession)Session["UserSessionKey"]; SecondUserSession session = new SecondUserSession(); // This also inherits from BaseUserSession session.Authenticated = existing.Authenticated; session.Id = existing.Id; session.Role = existing.Role; Session.Add("UserSessionKey", session); } else { Session.Add("UserSessionKey", new SecondUserSession()); } } Here's the exception stack trace. In this case, "MyCBC" is the real name of the first app, and "ASPTesting" is the second app. [SerializationException: Unable to find assembly 'MyCBC, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null'.] System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.BinaryAssemblyInfo.GetAssembly() +1871092 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.ObjectReader.GetType(BinaryAssemblyInfo assemblyInfo, String name) +7545734 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.ObjectMap..ctor(String objectName, String[] memberNames, BinaryTypeEnum[] binaryTypeEnumA, Object[] typeInformationA, Int32[] memberAssemIds, ObjectReader objectReader, Int32 objectId, BinaryAssemblyInfo assemblyInfo, SizedArray assemIdToAssemblyTable) +120 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.ObjectMap.Create(String name, String[] memberNames, BinaryTypeEnum[] binaryTypeEnumA, Object[] typeInformationA, Int32[] memberAssemIds, ObjectReader objectReader, Int32 objectId, BinaryAssemblyInfo assemblyInfo, SizedArray assemIdToAssemblyTable) +52 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.__BinaryParser.ReadObjectWithMapTyped(BinaryObjectWithMapTyped record) +190 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.__BinaryParser.ReadObjectWithMapTyped(BinaryHeaderEnum binaryHeaderEnum) +61 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.__BinaryParser.Run() +253 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.ObjectReader.Deserialize(HeaderHandler handler, __BinaryParser serParser, Boolean fCheck, Boolean isCrossAppDomain, IMethodCallMessage methodCallMessage) +168 System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.BinaryFormatter.Deserialize(Stream serializationStream, HeaderHandler handler, Boolean fCheck, Boolean isCrossAppDomain, IMethodCallMessage methodCallMessage) +203 System.Web.Util.AltSerialization.ReadValueFromStream(BinaryReader reader) +788 System.Web.SessionState.SessionStateItemCollection.ReadValueFromStreamWithAssert() +55 System.Web.SessionState.SessionStateItemCollection.DeserializeItem(String name, Boolean check) +281 System.Web.SessionState.SessionStateItemCollection.get_Item(String name) +19 System.Web.SessionState.HttpSessionStateContainer.get_Item(String name) +13 System.Web.SessionState.HttpSessionState.get_Item(String name) +13 ASPTesting._Default.Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) in C:\Documents and Settings\sarsstu\My Documents\Projects\Testing\ASPTesting\ASPTesting\Default.aspx.cs:20 System.Web.Util.CalliHelper.EventArgFunctionCaller(IntPtr fp, Object o, Object t, EventArgs e) +14 System.Web.Util.CalliEventHandlerDelegateProxy.Callback(Object sender, EventArgs e) +35 System.Web.UI.Control.OnLoad(EventArgs e) +99 System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() +50 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +627 Thanks to everyone in advance.

  Read the article

• How should I ethically approach user password storage for later plaintext retrieval?

  - by Shane

  As I continue to build more and more websites and web applications I am often asked to store user's passwords in a way that they can be retrieved if/when the user has an issue (either to email a forgotten password link, walk them through over the phone, etc.) When I can I fight bitterly against this practice and I do a lot of ‘extra’ programming to make password resets and administrative assistance possible without storing their actual password. When I can’t fight it (or can’t win) then I always encode the password in some way so that it at least isn’t stored as plaintext in the database—though I am aware that if my DB gets hacked that it won’t take much for the culprit to crack the passwords as well—so that makes me uncomfortable. In a perfect world folks would update passwords frequently and not duplicate them across many different sites—unfortunately I know MANY people that have the same work/home/email/bank password, and have even freely given it to me when they need assistance. I don’t want to be the one responsible for their financial demise if my DB security procedures fail for some reason. Morally and ethically I feel responsible for protecting what can be, for some users, their livelihood even if they are treating it with much less respect. I am certain that there are many avenues to approach and arguments to be made for salting hashes and different encoding options, but is there a single ‘best practice’ when you have to store them? In almost all cases I am using PHP and MySQL if that makes any difference in the way I should handle the specifics. Additional Information for Bounty I want to clarify that I know this is not something you want to have to do and that in most cases refusal to do so is best. I am, however, not looking for a lecture on the merits of taking this approach I am looking for the best steps to take if you do take this approach. In a note below I made the point that websites geared largely toward the elderly, mentally challenged, or very young can become confusing for people when they are asked to perform a secure password recovery routine. Though we may find it simple and mundane in those cases some users need the extra assistance of either having a service tech help them into the system or having it emailed/displayed directly to them. In such systems the attrition rate from these demographics could hobble the application if users were not given this level of access assistance, so please answer with such a setup in mind. Thanks to Everyone This has been a fun questions with lots of debate and I have enjoyed it. In the end I selected an answer that both retains password security (I will not have to keep plain text or recoverable passwords), but also makes it possible for the user base I specified to log into a system without the major drawbacks I have found from normal password recovery. As always there were about 5 answers that I would like to have marked correct for different reasons, but I had to choose the best one--all the rest got a +1. Thanks everyone!

  Read the article

• jQuery - Save to SQL via PHP

  - by Kenny Bones

  This is probably easy for you guys, but I can't understand it. I want to save the filename of an image to it's own row in the SQL base. Basically, I log on to the site where I have my own userID. And each user has its own column for background images. And the user can choose his own image if he wants to. So basically, when the user clicks on the image he wants, a jquery click event occurs and an ajax call is made to a php file which is supposed to take care of the actual update. The row for each user always exist so there's only an update of the data that's necessary. First, I collect the filename of the css property 'background-image' and split it so I get only the filename. I then store that filename in a variable I call 'filename' which is then passed on to this jQuery snippet: $.ajax({ url: 'save_to_db.php', data: filename, dataType:'Text', type: 'POST', success: function(data) { // Just for testing purposes. alert('Background changed to: ' + data); } }); And this is the php: <?php require("dbconnect.php") ?> <?php $uploadstring = ($_POST['filename']); mysql_query("UPDATE brukere SET brukerBakgrunn = $uploadstring WHERE brukerID=" .$_SESSION['id'] .""; mysql_close(); ?> Basically, each user has their own ID and this is called 'brukerID' The table everything is in is called 'brukere' and the column I'm supposed to update is the one called 'brukerBakgrunn' When I just run the javascript snippet, I get this message box in return where it says: Background changed to: Parse error: syntax error, unexpected ';' in /var/www/clients/client2/web8/web/save_to_db.php on line 8 I actualle get this messagebox twice, not sure why. Line 8 in 'save_to_db.php' is this one: mysql_query("UPDATE brukere SET brukerBakgrunn = $uploadstring WHERE brukerID=" .$_SESSION['id'] .""; Not sure if you need to see db_connect.php as well. I can add that later if you need to see it. So what am I missing here?

  Read the article

• Binding on a port with netpipes/netcat

  - by mindas

  I am trying to write a simple bash script that is listening on a port and responding with a trivial HTTP response. My specific issue is that I am not sure if the port is available and in case of bind failure I fall back to next port until bind succeeds. So far to me the easiest way to achieve this was something like: for (( i=$PORT_BASE; i < $(($PORT_BASE+$PORT_RANGE)); i++ )) do if [ $DEBUG -eq 1 ] ; then echo trying to bind on $i fi /usr/bin/faucet $i --out --daemon echo test 2>/dev/null if [ $? -eq 0 ] ; then #success? port=$i if [ $DEBUG -eq 1 ] ; then echo "bound on port $port" fi break fi done Here I am using faucet from netpipes Ubuntu package. The problem with this is that if I simply print "test" to the output, curl complains about non-standard HTTP response (error code 18). That's fair enough as I don't print HTTP-compatible response. If I replace echo test with echo -ne "HTTP/1.0 200 OK\r\n\r\ntest", curl still complains: user@server:$ faucet 10020 --out --daemon echo -ne "HTTP/1.0 200 OK\r\n\r\ntest" ... user@client:$ curl ip.of.the.server:10020 curl: (56) Failure when receiving data from the peer I think the problem lies in how faucet is printing the response and handling the connection. For example if I do the server side in netcat, curl works fine: user@server:$ echo -ne "HTTP/1.0 200 OK\r\n\r\ntest\r\n" | nc -l 10020 ... user@client:$ curl ip.of.the.server:10020 test user@client:$ I would be more than happy to replace faucet with netcat in my main script, but the problem is that I want to spawn independent server process to be able to run client from the same base shell. faucet has a very handy --daemon parameter as it forks to background and I can use $? (exit status code) to check if bind succeeded. If I was to use netcat for a similar purpose, I would have to fork it using & and $? would not work. Does anybody know why faucet isn't responding correctly in this particular case and/or can suggest a solution to this problem. I am not married neither to faucet nor netcat but would like the solution to be implemented using bash or it's utilities (as opposed to write something in yet another scripting language, such as Perl or Python).

  Read the article

• hashing password giving different results

  - by geoff

  I am taking over a system that a previous developer wrote. The system has an administrator approve a user account and when they do that the system uses the following method to hash a password and save it to the database. It sends the unhashed password to the user. When the user logs in the system uses the exact same method to hash what the user enters and compares it to the database value. We've run into a couple of times when the database entry doesn't match the user's entry whey they should. So it appears that the method isn't always hashing the value the same. Does anyone know if this method of hashing isn't reliable and how to make it reliable? Thanks. private string HashPassword(string password) { string hashedPassword = string.Empty; // Convert plain text into a byte array. byte[] plainTextBytes = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(password); // Allocate array, which will hold plain text and salt. byte[] plainTextWithSaltBytes = new byte[plainTextBytes.Length + SALT.Length]; // Copy plain text bytes into resulting array. for(int i = 0; i < plainTextBytes.Length; i++) plainTextWithSaltBytes[i] = plainTextBytes[i]; // Append salt bytes to the resulting array. for(int i = 0; i < SALT.Length; i++) plainTextWithSaltBytes[plainTextBytes.Length + i] = SALT[i]; // Because we support multiple hashing algorithms, we must define // hash object as a common (abstract) base class. We will specify the // actual hashing algorithm class later during object creation. HashAlgorithm hash = new SHA256Managed(); // Compute hash value of our plain text with appended salt. byte[] hashBytes = hash.ComputeHash(plainTextWithSaltBytes); // Create array which will hold hash and original salt bytes. byte[] hashWithSaltBytes = new byte[hashBytes.Length + SALT.Length]; // Copy hash bytes into resulting array. for(int i = 0; i < hashBytes.Length; i++) hashWithSaltBytes[i] = hashBytes[i]; // Append salt bytes to the result. for(int i = 0; i < SALT.Length; i++) hashWithSaltBytes[hashBytes.Length + i] = SALT[i]; // Convert result into a base64-encoded string. hashedPassword = Convert.ToBase64String(hashWithSaltBytes); return hashedPassword; }

  Read the article

• Firefox can not layout nested tables properly?

  - by ooplidi

  I want to implement a collapsible menu. I plan to use table component to simulate a menu, and nest a sub table into a table cell to simulate a sub menu. Below is my code, it works as expected in IE, Chrome and Safari, but it doesn't work well in Firefox: <html> <body> <div id="menu" style="position:absolute; left:150px; top:100px; z-index:1"> <table width="200px" height="90" border=1 cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0"> <tr> <td colspan=2>Money</td> </tr> <tr> <td colspan=2>Tool</td> </tr> <tr> <td>Food <table style="position:absolute; left:200px; top:60px; z-index:1" width="200px" height="60px" border="1" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0"> <tr> <td>Cookie</td> </tr> <tr> <td>Fruit <table style="position:absolute; left:200px; top:30px; z-index:1" width="200px" height="60px" border="1" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0"> <tr> <td>Apple</td> </tr> <tr> <td>Banana</td> </tr> </table> </td> </tr> </table> </td> </tr> </table> </div> </body> </html> It seems that Firefox think the "left" and "top" attribute for the level 3 menu is relative to the level 1 menu, so it layout the level 3 menu incorrectly. Other browsers will calculate the offset base on the level 2 menu, that works as expected. Is it a bug in Firefox? If so how can I work around it? I want my code to have the same behavior in all major browsers.

  Read the article

• C# drawing and invalidating 2 lines to meet

  - by BlueMonster

  If i have 2 lines on a page as such: e.Graphics.DrawLine(blackPen, w, h, h, w); e.Graphics.DrawLine(blackPen, w2, h2, h2, w2); how would i animate the first line to reach the second line's position? I have the following method which calculates the distance between two points (i'm assuming i would use this?) public int Distance2D(int x1, int y1, int x2, int y2) { // ______________________ //d = &#8730; (x2-x1)^2 + (y2-y1)^2 // //Our end result int result = 0; //Take x2-x1, then square it double part1 = Math.Pow((x2 - x1), 2); //Take y2-y1, then sqaure it double part2 = Math.Pow((y2 - y1), 2); //Add both of the parts together double underRadical = part1 + part2; //Get the square root of the parts result = (int)Math.Sqrt(underRadical); //Return our result return result; } How would i re-draw the line (on a timer) to reach the second line's position? I've looked a lot into XAML (story-boarding) and such - but i want to know how to do this on my own. Any ideas? I know i would need a method which runs in a loop re-drawing the line after moving the position a tid bit. I would have to call Invalidate() in order to make the line appear as though it's moving... but how would i do this? how would i move that line slowly over to the other line? I'm pretty sure i'd have to use double buffering if i'm doing this as well... as such: SetStyle(ControlStyles.DoubleBuffer | ControlStyles.AllPaintingInWmPaint | ControlStyles.UserPaint, true); This doesn't quiet work, i'm not quiet sure how to fix it. Any ideas? protected override void OnPaint(PaintEventArgs e) { Distance2D(w, h, w2, h2); if (w2 != w && h2 != h) { e.Graphics.DrawLine(blackPen, (w * (int)frame), (h * (int)frame), (h * (int)frame), (w * (int)frame)); e.Graphics.DrawLine(blackPen, w2, h2, h2, w2); } else { t.Abort(); } base.OnPaint(e); } public void MoveLine() { for (int i = 0; i < 126; i++) { frame += .02; Invalidate(); Thread.Sleep(30); } } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { t = new Thread(new ThreadStart(MoveLine)); t.Start(); }

  Read the article

• Defined variables and arrays vs functions in php

  - by Frank Presencia Fandos

  Introduction I have some sort of values that I might want to access several times each page is loaded. I can take two different approaches for accessing them but I'm not sure which one is 'better'. Three already implemented examples are several options for the Language, URI and displaying text that I describe here: Language Right now it is configured in this way: lang() is a function that returns different values depending on the argument. Example: lang("full") returns the current language, "English", while lang() returns the abbreviation of the current language, "en". There are many more options, like lang("select"), lang("selectact"), etc that return different things. The code is too long and irrelevant for the case so if anyone wants it just ask for it. Url The $Url array also returns different values depending on the request. The whole array is fully defined in the beginning of the page and used to get shorter but accurate links of the current page. Example: $Url['full'] would return "http://mypage.org/path/to/file.php?page=1" and $Url['file'] would return "file.php". It's useful for action="" within the forms and many other things. There are more values for $Url['folder'], $Url['file'], etc. Same thing about the code, if wanted, just request it. Text [You can skip this section] There's another array called $Text that is defined in the same way than $Url. The whole array is defined at the beginning, making a mysql call and defining all $Text[$i] for current page with a while loop. I'm not sure if this is more efficient than multiple calls for a single mysql cell. Example: $Text['54'] returns "This is just a test array!" which this could perfectly be implemented with a function like text(54). Question With the 3 examples you can see that I use different methods to do almost the same function (no pun intended), but I'm not sure which one should become the standard one for my code. I could create a function called url() and other called text() to output what I want. I think that working with functions in those cases is better, but I'm not sure why. So I'd really appreciate your opinions and advice. Should I mix arrays and functions in the way I described or should I just use funcions? Please, base your answer in this: The source needs to be readable and reusable by other developers Resource consumption (processing, time and memory). The shorter the code the better. The more you explain the reasons the better. Thank you PS, now I know the differences between $Url and $Uri.

  Read the article

• Is it any loose coupling mechanism in Objective-C + Cocoa like C# delegates or C++Qt signals+slots?

  - by Eye of Hell

  Hello. For a large programs, the standard way to chalenge a complexity is to divide a program code into small objects. Most of the actual programming languages offer this functionality via classes, so is Objective-C. But after source code is separated into small object, the second challenge is to somehow connect them with each over. Standard approaches, supported by most languages are compositon (one object is a member field of another), inheritance, templates (generics) and callbacks. More cryptic techniques include method-level delagates (C#) and signals+slots (C++Qt). I like the delegates / signals idea, since while connecting two objects i can connect individual methods with each over, without objects knowing anything of each over. For C#, it will look like this: var object1 = new CObject1(); var object2 = new CObject2(); object1.SomethingHappened += object2.HandleSomething; In this code, is object1 calls it's SomethingHappened delegate (like a normal method call) the HandleSomething method of object2 will be called. For C++Qt, it will look like this: var object1 = new CObject1(); var object2 = new CObject2(); connect( object1, SIGNAL(SomethingHappened()), object2, SLOT(HandleSomething()) ); The result will be exactly the same. This technique has some advantages and disadvantages, but generally i like it more than interfaces since if program code base grows i can change connections and add new ones without creating tons of interfaces. After examination of Objective-C i havn't found any way to use this technique i like :(. It seems that Objective-C supports message passing perfectly well, but it requres for object1 to have a pointer to object2 in order to pass it a message. If some object needs to be connected to lots of other objects, in Objective-C i will be forced to give him pointers to each of the objects it must be connected. So, the question :). Is it any approach in Objective-C programming that will closely resemble delegate / signal+slot types of connection, not a 'give first object an entire pointer to second object so it can pass a message to it'. Method-level connections are a bit more preferable to me than object-level connection ^_^.

  Read the article

• Error when deploying site of a maven multi module project with FTP

  - by julien

  I have a multi module project. When I launch mvn site:deploy, the deployment of the base module works fine, but it fails to create the directory of the module sites on the FTP server: [INFO] Error uploading site Embedded error: Required directory: '/myremoteftprepository/myproject-mymodule' is missing When I create the missing directory by hand, it works fine, but I would like to avoid that. It is surprising that the deploy command do not create it. Do you how to force this directory creation? Is it a bug in the wagon-ftp plugin? FYI, here is my POM: <build> <extensions> <!-- Enabling the use of FTP --> <extension> <groupId>org.apache.maven.wagon</groupId> <artifactId>wagon-ftp</artifactId> <version>1.0</version> </extension> </extensions> </build> I have chosen to include the javadoc with: <reporting> <plugins> <!-- include javadoc in the site --> <plugin> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-javadoc-plugin</artifactId> <version>2.8</version> <configuration> <show>public</show> </configuration> </plugin> </plugins> </reporting> and <distributionManagement> <site> <id>site</id> <name>maven site</name> <url>ftp://ftp.blabla.org/myremoteftprepository</url> </site> </distributionManagement> and my settings.xml is good.

  Read the article

• XML Path needed

  - by user3696029

  I have the following XML file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <bookstore> <book category="COOKING"> <title lang="en">Everyday Italian</title> <author>Giada De Laurentiis</author> <year>2005</year> <price>30.00</price> </book> <book category="CHILDREN"> <title lang="en">Harry Potter</title> <author>J K. Rowling</author> <year>2005</year> <price>29.99</price> </book> <book category="WEB"> <title lang="en">XQuery Kick Start</title> <author>James McGovern</author> <author>Per Bothner</author> <author>Kurt Cagle</author> <author>James Linn</author> <author>Vaidyanathan Nagarajan</author> <year>2003</year> <price>49.99</price> </book> <book category="WEB"> <title lang="en">Learning XML</title> <author>Erik T. Ray</author> <year>2003</year> <price>39.95</price> </book> </bookstore> I need to write a XML path that returns a book published after 2003, category is children and I just need to display the author and title of the book? What is frustrating is that I have everything in the XPATH that wrote except I am missing the author.

  Read the article

• Subclassing and adding data members

  - by Marius

  I have an hierarchy of classes that looks like the following: class Critical { public: Critical(int a, int b) : m_a(a), m_b(b) { } virtual ~Critical() { } int GetA() { return m_a; } int GetB() { return m_b; } void SetA(int a) { m_a = a; } void SetB(int b) { m_b = b; } protected: int m_a; int m_b; }; class CriticalFlavor : public Critical { public: CriticalFlavor(int a, int b, int flavor) : Critical(a, b), m_flavor(flavor) { } virtual ~CriticalFlavor() { } int GetFlavor() { return m_flavor; } void SetFlavor(int flavor) { m_flavor = flavor; } protected: int m_flavor; }; class CriticalTwist : public Critical { public: CriticalTwist(int a, int b, int twist) : Critical(a, b), m_twist(twist) { } virtual ~CriticalTwist() { } int GetTwist() { return m_twist; } void SetTwist(int twist) { m_twist = twist; } protected: int m_twist; }; The above does not seem right to me in terms of the design and what bothers me the most is the fact that the addition of member variables seems to drive the interface of these classes (the real code that does the above is a little more complex but still embracing the same pattern). That will proliferate when in need for another "Critical" class that just adds some other property. Does this feel right to you? How could I refactor such code? An idea would be to have just a set of interfaces and use composition when it comes to the base object like the following: class Critical { public: virtual int GetA() = 0; virtual int GetB() = 0; virtual void SetA(int a) = 0; virtual void SetB(int b) = 0; }; class CriticalImpl { public: CriticalImpl(int a, int b) : m_a(a), m_b(b) { } ~CriticalImpl() { } int GetA() { return m_a; } int GetB() { return m_b; } void SetA(int a) { m_a = a; } void SetB(int b) { m_b = b; } private: int m_a; int m_b; }; class CriticalFlavor { public: virtual int GetFlavor() = 0; virtual void SetFlavor(int flavor) = 0; }; class CriticalFlavorImpl : public Critical, public CriticalFlavor { public: CriticalFlavorImpl(int a, int b, int flavor) : m_flavor(flavor), m_critical(new CriticalImpl(a, b)) { } ~CriticalFlavorImpl() { delete m_critical; } int GetFlavor() { return m_flavor; } void SetFlavor(int flavor) { m_flavor = flavor; } int GetA() { return m_critical-GetA(); } int GetB() { return m_critical-GetB(); } void SetA(int a) { m_critical-SetA(a); } void SetB(int b) { m_critical-SetB(b); } private: int m_flavor; CriticalImpl* m_critical; };

  Read the article

• avoiding enums as interface identifiers c++ OOP

  - by AlasdairC

  Hi I'm working on a plugin framework using dynamic loaded shared libraries which is based on Eclipse's (and probally other's) extension-point model. All plugins share similar properties (name, id, version etc) and each plugin could in theory satisfy any extension-point. The actual plugin (ie Dll) handling is managed by another library, all I am doing really is managing collections of interfaces for the application. I started by using an enum PluginType to distinguish the different interfaces, but I have quickly realised that using template functions made the code far cleaner and would leave the grunt work up to the compiler, rather than forcing me to use lots of switch {...} statements. The only issue is where I need to specify like functionality for class members - most obvious example is the default plugin which provides a particular interface. A Settings class handles all settings, including the default plugin for an interface. ie Skin newSkin = settings.GetDefault<ISkin>(); How do I store the default ISkin in a container without resorting to some other means of identifying the interface? As I mentioned above, I currently use a std::map<PluginType, IPlugin> Settings::defaults member to achieve this (where IPlugin is an abstract base class which all plugins derive from. I can then dynamic_cast to the desired interface when required, but this really smells of bad design to me and introduces more harm than good I think. would welcome any tips edit: here's an example of the current use of default plugins typedef boost::shared_ptr<ISkin> Skin; typedef boost::shared_ptr<IPlugin> Plugin; enum PluginType { skin, ..., ... } class Settings { public: void SetDefault(const PluginType type, boost::shared_ptr<IPlugin> plugin) { m_default[type] = plugin; } boost::shared_ptr<IPlugin> GetDefault(const PluginType type) { return m_default[type]; } private: std::map<PluginType, boost::shared_ptr<IPlugin> m_default; }; SkinManager::Initialize() { Plugin thedefault = g_settings.GetDefault(skinplugin); Skin defaultskin = boost::dynamic_pointer_cast<ISkin>(theskin); defaultskin->Initialize(); } I would much rather call the getdefault as the following, with automatic casting to the derived class. However I need to specialize for every class type. template<> Skin Settings::GetDefault<ISkin>() { return boost::dynamic_pointer_cast<ISkin>(m_default(skin)); }

  Read the article

• getting html tags from xml and echoing in php?

  - by Whitney Sarah Rogers

  I am trying to echo a result from xml into my html code form expedia. But I ran into a problem. There text is a little messed up: <areaInformation> Distances are calculated in a straight line from the property&apos;s location to the point of interest or attraction, and may not reflect actual travel distance. &lt;br /&gt;&lt;br /&gt; Distances are displayed to the nearest 0.1 mile and kilometre. &lt;p&gt;La Isla Shopping Mall - 0.5 km / 0.3 mi &lt;br /&gt;Yamil Lu&apos;um - 0.5 km / 0.3 mi &lt;br /&gt;Acuario Interactivo - 0.6 km / 0.3 mi &lt;br /&gt;Luxury Avenue - 1.5 km / 0.9 mi &lt;br /&gt;Cancun Golf Club at Pok Ta Pok - 2.2 km / 1.3 mi &lt;br /&gt;Nautilus Diving and Training Center - 2.6 km / 1.6 mi &lt;br /&gt;Cancun Convention Center - 2.8 km / 1.7 mi &lt;br /&gt;Plaza Caracol - 2.8 km / 1.8 mi &lt;br /&gt;Playa Tortuga - 3.1 km / 1.9 mi &lt;br /&gt;Aquaworld - 3.6 km / 2.2 mi &lt;br /&gt;Playa Langosta - 4.1 km / 2.6 mi &lt;br /&gt;Museo de Arte Popular Mexicano - 4.6 km / 2.9 mi &lt;br /&gt;Playa Linda - 5 km / 3.1 mi &lt;br /&gt;Playa Delfines - 6.1 km / 3.8 mi &lt;br /&gt;El Rey Ruins - 6.2 km / 3.8 mi &lt;br /&gt;&lt;/p&gt;&lt;p&gt;The preferred airport for ME Cancun - Complete ME All Inclusive is Cancun, Quintana Roo (CUN-Cancun Intl.) - 14.3 km / 8.9 mi. &lt;/p&gt; </areaInformation> And I echo it in php: <div id="hotelInfo"><?php echo $areaInfo ?></div> And of course I get this in the browser window: Distances are calculated in a straight line from the property's location to the point of interest or attraction, and may not reflect actual travel distance. <br /><br /> Distances are displayed to the nearest 0.1 mile and kilometre. <p>La Isla Shopping Mall - 0.5 km / 0.3 mi <br />Yamil Lu'um - 0.5 km / 0.3 mi <br />Acuario Interac etc. How can I fix this??? Any help would be greatly apreciated! Thanks!

  Read the article

• How to reflect over T to build an expression tree for a query?

  - by Alex

  Hi all, I'm trying to build a generic class to work with entities from EF. This class talks to repositories, but it's this class that creates the expressions sent to the repositories. Anyway, I'm just trying to implement one virtual method that will act as a base for common querying. Specifically, it will accept a an int and it only needs to perform a query over the primary key of the entity in question. I've been screwing around with it and I've built a reflection which may or may not work. I say that because I get a NotSupportedException with a message of LINQ to Entities does not recognize the method 'System.Object GetValue(System.Object, System.Object[])' method, and this method cannot be translated into a store expression. So then I tried another approach and it produced the same exception but with the error of The LINQ expression node type 'ArrayIndex' is not supported in LINQ to Entities. I know it's because EF will not parse the expression the way L2S will. Anyway, I'm hopping someone with a bit more experience can point me into the right direction on this. I'm posting the entire class with both attempts I've made. public class Provider<T> where T : class { protected readonly Repository<T> Repository = null; private readonly string TEntityName = typeof(T).Name; [Inject] public Provider( Repository<T> Repository) { this.Repository = Repository; } public virtual void Add( T TEntity) { this.Repository.Insert(TEntity); } public virtual T Get( int PrimaryKey) { // The LINQ expression node type 'ArrayIndex' is not supported in // LINQ to Entities. return this.Repository.Select( t => (((int)(t as EntityObject).EntityKey.EntityKeyValues[0].Value) == PrimaryKey)).Single(); // LINQ to Entities does not recognize the method // 'System.Object GetValue(System.Object, System.Object[])' method, // and this method cannot be translated into a store expression. return this.Repository.Select( t => (((int)t.GetType().GetProperties().Single( p => (p.Name == (this.TEntityName + "Id"))).GetValue(t, null)) == PrimaryKey)).Single(); } public virtual IList<T> GetAll() { return this.Repository.Select().ToList(); } protected virtual void Save() { this.Repository.Update(); } }

  Read the article

• Unusual RJS error

  - by rrb

  Hi, I am getting the following error in my RoR application: RJS error: TypeError: element is null Element.update("notice", "Comment Posted"); Element.update("allcomments", "\n\n\n \n\n waht now?\n\n \n\n \n\n \n\n asdfasdfa\n \n\n \n\n asdfasdf\n \n\n\n\n\n"); But when I hit the refresh button, I can see my partial updated. Here's my code: show_comments View: <table> <% comments.each do |my_comment| %> <tr> <td><%=h my_comment.comment%></td> </tr> <% end %> </table> show View: <div class="wrapper"> <div class="rescale"> <div class="img-main"> <%= image_tag @deal.photo.url %> </div> </div> <div class="description"> <p class ="description_content"> <%=h @deal.description %> </p> </div> </div> <p> <b>Category:</b> <%=h @deal.category %> </p> <p> <b>Base price:</b> <%=h @deal.base_price %> </p> <%#*<p>%> <%#*<b>Discount:</b>%> <%#=h @deal.discount %> <%#*</p>%> <%= link_to 'Edit', edit_deal_path(@deal) %> | <%= link_to 'Back', deals_path %> <p> <%= render :partial=>'deal_comments', :locals=>{ :comments=>Comment.new(:deal_id=>@deal.id)} %> </p> <div id="allcomments"> <%= render :partial=>'show_comments', :locals=>{ :comments=>Comment.find(@deal.comments)} %> </div> Controller: def create @comment = Comment.new(params[:comment]) render :update do |page| if @comment.save page.replace_html 'notice', 'Comment Posted' else page.replace_html 'notice', 'Something went wrong' end page.replace_html 'allcomments', :partial=> 'deals/show_comments', :locals=>{:comments=> @comment.deal.comments} end end def show_comments @deal = Deal.find(params[:deal_id]) render :partial=> "deals/show_comments", :locals=>{:comments=>@deal.comments} end end

  Read the article

• XSL transformation of SVG adds namespace attribute to new tag

  - by Steve

  I have a SVG file that I want to extend by adding onclick handlers to edges and nodes. I also want to add a script tag referring to a JavaScript. The problem is that the script tag gets an empty namespace attribute added to it. I haven't found any information regarding this that I understand. Why does XSLT add an empty namespace? XSL file: <?xml version="1.0"?> <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:svg="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" xmlns:xlink="http://www.w3.org/1999/xlink"> <xsl:output method="xml" encoding="utf-8" /> <xsl:template match="/svg:svg"> <xsl:copy> <script type="text/ecmascript" xlink:href="base.js" /> <!-- this tag gets a namespace attr --> <xsl:apply-templates /> </xsl:copy> </xsl:template> <!-- Identity transform http://www.w3.org/TR/xslt#copying --> <xsl:template match="@*|node()"> <xsl:copy> <xsl:apply-templates select="@*|node()"/> </xsl:copy> </xsl:template> <!-- Check groups and add functions --> <xsl:template match="svg:g"> <xsl:copy> <xsl:if test="@class = 'node'"> <xsl:attribute name="onclick">node_clicked()</xsl:attribute> </xsl:if> <xsl:if test="@class = 'edge'"> <xsl:attribute name="onclick">edge_clicked()</xsl:attribute> </xsl:if> <xsl:apply-templates select="@*|node()" /> </xsl:copy> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet>

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 548 549 550 551 552 553 554 555 556 557 558 559  | Next Page >