second - Page 552 - Developer IT

Cache layer for MVC - Model or controller?

- by Industrial

Hi everyone, I am having some second thoughts about where to implement the caching part. Where is the most appropriate place to implement it, you think? Inside every model, or in the controller? Approach 1 (psuedo-code): // mycontroller.php MyController extends Controller_class { function index () { $data = $this->model->getData(); echo $data; } } // myModel.php MyModel extends Model_Class{ function getData() { $data = memcached->get('data'); if (!$data) { $query->SQL_QUERY("Do query!"); } return $data; } } Approach 2: // mycontroller.php MyController extends Controller_class { function index () { $dataArray = $this->memcached->getMulti('data','data2'); foreach ($dataArray as $key) { if (!$key) { $data = $this->model->getData(); $this->memcached->set($key, $data); } } echo $data; } } // myModel.php MyModel extends Model_Class{ function getData() { $query->SQL_QUERY("Do query!"); return $data; } } Thoughts: Approach 1: No multiget/multi-set. If a high number of keys would be returned, overhead would be caused. Easier to maintain, all database/cache handling is in each model Approach 2: Better performancewise - multiset/multiget is used More code required Harder to maintain Tell me what you think!

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PHP: Use a string as an array index path to retreive a value.

- by Charles

Say I have an array like: Array ( [0] => Array ( [Data] => Array ( [id] => 1 [title] => Manager [name] => John Smith ) ) [1] => Array ( [Data] => Array ( [id] => 1 [title] => Clerk [name] => ( [first] => Jane [last] => Smith ) ) ) ) I want to be able to build a function that I can pass a string to that will act as the array index path and return the appropriate array value without using eval(). Is that possible? function($indexPath, $arrayToAccess) { //$indexPath would be something like [0]['Data']['name'] which would return //"Manager" or it could be [1]['Data']['name']['first'] which would return //"Jane" but the amount of array indexs that will be in the index path can //change, so there might be 3 like the first example, or 4 like the second. return $arrayToAccess[$indexPath] <-obviously wont work }

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What changed in the DataGrid that means it won't work anymore?

- by Jeff Yates

I have a Silverlight app with a DataGrid containing some custom columns and all was working well. Then I updated to Silverlight 3 tools for VS 2008 SP1 and rebuilt it. Now it has the following problems: Rows aren't added when the collection is modified. The ItemsSource property is (and always has been) set to an ObservableCollection instance, which notifies when its contents change. This worked fine for Silverlight 2. However, in Silverlight 3 to get this working at all, I now have to null and then re-set ItemsSource - this seems like I'm hiding a bigger issue but I can't work out what that might be. I cannot select a row or a cell anymore. If I'm lucky, I can select one whole row before it stops working. I can't edit anything. I suspect this is related to the previous point. I'll post some source when I am able, but first I have to strip it down to the bare minimum. In the meantime, I was hoping someone might have some idea of what may be going on here. My gut feeling on the second two points is that my bindings are no longer working, but that's just a guess and if it is the case, I have no idea which ones. Thanks for any help anyone might be able to provide. Update So, I finally reduced my problem down to a simple works/doesn't work comparison. The problem seems to occur if I override Equals in my element type. As soon as I do that, something happens strangely in the ObservableCollection that contains that type, it seems, and my application breaks. To make it more interesting, there is a check to make sure that duplicate items don't even get close to being added to the collection. I don't exactly know why ObservableCollection needs to compare equality when inserting items (the stack trace indicates it is using IndexAt) but this seems to cause the issue. So, any thoughts?

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Best practices for encrytping continuous/small UDP data

- by temp

Hello everyone, I am having an application where I have to send several small data per second through the network using UDP. The application need to send the data in real-time (on waiting). I want to encrypt these data and insure that what I am doing is as secure as possible. Since I am using UDP, there is no way to use SSL/TLS, so I have to encrypt each packet alone since the protocol is connectionless/unreliable/unregulated. Right now, I am using a 128-bit key derived from a passphrase from the user, and AES in CBC mode (PBE using AES-CBC). I decided to use a random salt with the passphrase to derive the 128-bit key (prevent dictionary attack on the passphrase), and of course use IVs (to prevent statistical analysis for packets). However I am concerned about few things: Each packet contains small amount of data (like a couple of integer values per packet) which will make the encrypted packets vulnerable to known-plaintext attacks (which will result in making it easier to crack the key). Also, since the encryption key is derived from a passphrase, this will make the key space way less (I know the salt will help, but I have to send the salt through the network once and anyone can get it). Given these two things, anyone can sniff and store the sent data, and try to crack the key. Although this process might take some time, once the key is cracked all the stored data will be decrypted, which will be a real problem for my application. So my question is, what is the best practices for sending/encrypting continuous small data using a connectionless protocol (UDP)? Is my way the best way to do it? ...flowed? ...Overkill? ... Please note that I am not asking for a 100% secure solution, as there is no such thing. Cheers

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Add a value to an element in a list of sets

- by Kapelson

Hello. I'm using python, and I have a list of sets, constructed like this: list = [set([])]*n ...where n is the number of sets I want in the list. I want to add a value to a specific set in the list. Say, the second set. I tried list[1].add(value) But this instead adds the value to each set in the list. This behaviour is pretty non-intuitive to me. Through further tests, I think I've found the problem: the list apparently contains 10 instances of the same set, or ten pointers to the same set, or something. Constructing the list through repeated calls of list.append(set([])) allowed me to use the syntax above to add elements to single sets. So my question is this: what exactly is going on in my first list-construction technique? It is clear I don't understand the syntax so well. Also, is there a better way to intialize an n-element list? I've been using this syntax for a while and this is my first problem with it.

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What is Wordpress doing for content encoding in it's mysql database?

- by qbxk

For some convoluted reasons best left behind us, I require direct access the contents of a wordpress database. I'm using mysql 5.0.70-r1 on gentoo with wordpress 2.6, and perl 5.8.8 ftr. So, sometimes we get high-order characters in the blog, we have quite a few authors contributing too, for the most part these characters end up in wp's database in wp_posts.post_content or wp_postmeta.meta_value, Wordpress is displaying these correctly on it's site, but the database stores it using single byte encoding that I can't figure out how to convert to the correct string. Today's example: the blog shows this, and doesn't even seem to escape any chars in the html, Hãhãhães but the database, when viewed via the mysql prompt, has, HÃ£hÃ£hÃ£es So clearly this is some kind of double-byte encoding issue, but I don't know how I can correct it. I need to be able to pull that second string from the database (b/c that's what it gives me) and convert it to the first one, and i need to do so using perl. also, just to help unmuddy any waters, I took these strings and printed out the ascii codes for each character using perl's ord() function. Here is the output of the "wrong" string H = 72 Ã = 195 £ = 163 h = 104 Ã = 195 £ = 163 h = 104 Ã = 195 £ = 163 e = 101 s = 115 This is the correct string, that I need to produce in my script H = 72 ã = 227 h = 104 ã = 227 h = 104 ã = 227 e = 101 s = 115

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How to marshal an object and its content (also objects)

- by Waldo Spek

I have a question for which I suspect the answer is a bit complex. At this moment I am programming a DLL (class library) in C#. This DLL uses a 3rd party library and therefore deals with 3rd party objects of which I do not have the source code. Now I am planning to create another DLL, which is going to be used in a later stadium in my application. This second DLL should use the 3rd party objects (with corresponding object states) created by the first DLL. Luckily the 3rd party objects extend the MarshalByRefObject class. I can marshal the objects using System.Runtime.Remoting.Marshal(...). I then serialize the objects using a BinaryFormatter and store the objects as a byte[] array. All goes well. I can deserialize and unmarshal in a the opposite way and end up with my original 3rd party objects...so it appears... Nevertheless, when calling methods on my 3rd party deserialized objects I get object internal exceptions. Normally these methods return other 3rd party objects, but (obviously - I guess) now these objects are missing because they weren't serialized. Now my global question: how would I go about marshalling/serializing all the objects which my 3rd party objects reference...and cascade down the "reference tree" to obtain a full and complete serialized object? Right now my guess is to preprocess: obtain all the objects and build my own custom object and serialize it. But I'm hoping there is some other way...

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Avoiding repeated subqueries when 'WITH' is unavailable

- by EloquentGeek

MySQL v5.0.58. Tables, with foreign key constraints etc and other non-relevant details omitted for brevity: CREATE TABLE `fixture` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, `competition_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `name` varchar(50) NOT NULL, `scheduled` datetime default NULL, `played` datetime default NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ); CREATE TABLE `result` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, `fixture_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `team_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `score` int(11) NOT NULL, `place` int(11) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ); CREATE TABLE `team` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, `name` varchar(50) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ); Where: A draw will set result.place to 0 result.place will otherwise contain an integer representing first place, second place, and so on The task is to return a string describing the most recently played result in a given competition for a given team. The format should be "def Team X,Team Y" if the given team was victorious, "lost to Team X" if the given team lost, and "drew with Team X" if there was a draw. And yes, in theory there could be more than two teams per fixture (though 1 v 1 will be the most common case). This works, but feels really inefficient: SELECT CONCAT( (SELECT CASE `result`.`place` WHEN 0 THEN "drew with" WHEN 1 THEN "def" ELSE "lost to" END FROM `result` WHERE `result`.`fixture_id` = (SELECT `fixture`.`id` FROM `fixture` LEFT JOIN `result` ON `result`.`fixture_id` = `fixture`.`id` WHERE `fixture`.`competition_id` = 2 AND `result`.`team_id` = 1 ORDER BY `fixture`.`played` DESC LIMIT 1) AND `result`.`team_id` = 1), ' ', (SELECT GROUP_CONCAT(`team`.`name`) FROM `fixture` LEFT JOIN `result` ON `result`.`fixture_id` = `fixture`.`id` LEFT JOIN `team` ON `result`.`team_id` = `team`.`id` WHERE `fixture`.`id` = (SELECT `fixture`.`id` FROM `fixture` LEFT JOIN `result` ON `result`.`fixture_id` = `fixture`.`id` WHERE `fixture`.`competition_id` = 2 AND `result`.`team_id` = 1 ORDER BY `fixture`.`played` DESC LIMIT 1) AND `team`.`id` != 1) ) Have I missed something really obvious, or should I simply not try to do this in one query? Or does the current difficulty reflect a poor table design?

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PHP's fopen is terminally failing

- by Skittles

Okay, I have GOT to be missing something totally rudimentary here. I have an extremely simple use of PHP's fopen function, but for some reason, it will not open the file no matter what I do. The odd part about this is that I use fopen in another function in the same script and it's working perfectly. I'm using the fclose in both functions. So, I know it's not a matter of a rogue file handle. I have confirmed the file's path and the existence of the target file also. I'm running the script at the command-line as root, so I know it's not apache that's the cause. And since I am running the script as root, I am fairly confident that permissions are not the issue. So, what on earth am I missing here? function get_file_list() { $file = '/home/site/tmp/return_files_list.txt'; $fp = fopen($file, 'r') or die("Could not open file: /home/site/tmp/return_files_list.txt for reading.\n"); $files_list = array(); while($line = fgets($fp)) { $files_list[] = $line; } fclose($fp); return $files_list; } function num_records_in_file($filename) { $fp = fopen( $filename, 'r' ); # or die("Could not open file: $filename\n"); $counter = 0; if ($fp) { while (!feof( $fp )) { $line = fgets( $fp ); $arr = explode( '|', $line ); if (( ( $arr[0] != 'HDR' && $arr[0] != 'TRL' ) && $arr[0] != '' )) { ++$counter; continue; } } } fclose( $fp ); return $counter; } As requested, here's both functions. The second function is passed an absolute path to the file. That is what I used to confirm that the file is there and that the path is correct.

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Help Using NetuserAdd() and NetLocalGroupAddMembers() in C++

- by Brett Powell

So I think I almost got it. I create my dummy account with one function, and wrote a second function to add it to the Remote Desktop group. Problem is, the Administrator account is the one logged in, so I am not sure how to specify what account to add to the group. Here is my code... The user is being created properly... void AddRDPUser() { USER_INFO_1 ui; DWORD dwLevel = 1; DWORD dwError = 0; NET_API_STATUS nStatus; ui.usri1_name = L"BrettXFactor"; ui.usri1_password = L"XfactorsServer96"; ui.usri1_priv = USER_PRIV_USER; ui.usri1_home_dir = NULL; ui.usri1_comment = NULL; ui.usri1_flags = UF_SCRIPT; ui.usri1_script_path = NULL; nStatus = NetUserAdd(NULL, dwLevel, (LPBYTE)&ui, &dwError); } But I dont know how to specify to add them to this group since they are not logged in. Any help would be appreciated void AddToGroup() { LOCALGROUP_MEMBERS_INFO_3 lgmi3; DWORD dwLevel = 3; DWORD totalEntries = 1; NET_API_STATUS nStatus; LPCWSTR TargetGroup = L"Remote Desktop Users"; LPSTR sBuffer = NULL; memset(sBuffer, 0, 255); DWORD nBuffSize = sizeof(sBuffer); if(GetUserNameEx(NameDnsDomain, sBuffer, &nBuffSize)==0) { Msg("Failed to add User to Group\n"); return; } LPWSTR user_name = (LPWSTR)sBuffer; lgmi3.lgrmi3_domainandname = user_name; nStatus = NetLocalGroupAddMembers(NULL, TargetGroup, 3, (LPBYTE)&lgmi3, totalEntries); }

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Problem Routing domains subfolder

- by hkda150

Hi there, I'm pretty new to ASP.NET MVC and I hope it is not a too silly question. So here it comes. I have ... a ASP.NET MVC application with a domain similar to http://mydomain/mysubfoler1/myappfolder My problem... The problem for me is the routing of my application (it worked fine without using a subfolder after the domain-name). The applications homepage loads not to bad, with css files but without ressources like images (defined in css files) and without jQuery ajax calls similar to /mycontroller/myaction links are only working once (the second time I get a page similar to this link: http://mydomain/mysubfoler1/myappfolder/myController/myController/myAction) Here's my Global.asax contaning the routing: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "myController", action = "Index", id = "" } defaults ); routes.MapRoute( "Root", "", new { controller = "myController", action = "Index", id = "" } ); } protected void Application_Start() { ViewEngines.Engines.Clear(); ViewEngines.Engines.Add(new MyApplicationWeb.LocalizationWebFormViewEngine()); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); //RouteDebug.RouteDebugger.RewriteRoutesForTesting(RouteTable.Routes); } Any suggestions? My first suggestion was to use areas like: "mysubfolder1/myappfolder/{controller}/{action}/{id}" (but without any luck) Thank you very much for your help!

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Selecting Date Range on a PHP form and displaying results from MySQL database

- by Sarah HSL

This may be something simple but I cant understand why this wouldn't work.. I have a php form where you can select a date range from drop downs. I've given the field names day, month year, and day1, month1, year1. When clicking submit it takes you to a second php form. Here is the code for second form: <?php $username="***"; $password="***"; $database="****"; mysql_connect('localhost',$username,$password); @mysql_select_db($database) or die( "Unable to select database"); $day = $_GET['day']; $month = $_GET['month']; $year = $_GET['year']; $day1 = $_GET['day1']; $month1 = $_GET['month1']; $year1 = $_GET['year1']; $date1 = "$year-$month-$day"; $date2 = "$year1-$month1-$day1"; $query = "SELECT * FROM main_stock WHERE curr_timestamp BETWEEN '$date1' AND '$date2'"; $result=mysql_query($query); $num=mysql_num_rows($result); ?> <table border="1" cellspacing="2" cellpadding="2"> <tr> <td>Product Description</td> <td>Category</td> <td>Master Category</td> <td>Barcode</td> <td>Status</td> <td>TimeStamp</td> <td>New Own</td> <td>Serial No.</td> </tr> <?php $i=0; while ($i < $num) { $f1=mysql_result($result,$i,"product_desc"); $f2=mysql_result($result,$i,"category"); $f3=mysql_result($result,$i,"mastercategory"); $f4=mysql_result($result,$i,"barcode"); $f5=mysql_result($result,$i,"status"); $f6=mysql_result($result,$i,"curr_timestamp"); $f7=mysql_result($result,$i,"newown"); $f8=mysql_result($result,$i,"serial"); ?> <tr> <td><?php echo $f1; ?></td> <td><?php echo $f2; ?></td> <td><?php echo $f3; ?></td> <td><?php echo $f4; ?></td> <td><?php echo $f5; ?></td> <td><?php echo $f6; ?></td> <td><?php echo $f7; ?></td> <td><?php echo $f8; ?></td> </tr> <?php $i++; } $num_rows = mysql_num_rows($result); echo "$num_rows Rows\n"; mysql_close(); ?> Is there any reason this wouldn't work? I'm not sure where I am going wrong. It displays results when there is another option as well as the date such as 'status' but when this is taken out and I just want to display all the results between the date range it doesn't work.. This works: <?php $username="+++"; $password="+++"; $database="+++"; mysql_connect('localhost',$username,$password); @mysql_select_db($database) or die( "Unable to select database"); $day = $_GET['day']; $month = $_GET['month']; $year = $_GET['year']; $day1 = $_GET['day1']; $month1 = $_GET['month1']; $year1 = $_GET['year1']; $status = $_GET['status']; $date1 = "$year-$month-$day"; $date2 = "$year1-$month1-$day1"; $query = "SELECT * FROM main_stock WHERE status = '$status' AND curr_timestamp BETWEEN '$date1' AND '$date2'"; $result=mysql_query($query); $num=mysql_num_rows($result); ?> <table border="1" cellspacing="2" cellpadding="2"> <tr> <td>Product Description</td> <td>Category</td> <td>Master Category</td> <td>Barcode</td> <td>Status</td> <td>TimeStamp</td> <td>New Own</td> <td>Serial No.</td> </tr> <?php $i=0; while ($i < $num) { $f1=mysql_result($result,$i,"product_desc"); $f2=mysql_result($result,$i,"category"); $f3=mysql_result($result,$i,"mastercategory"); $f4=mysql_result($result,$i,"barcode"); $f5=mysql_result($result,$i,"status"); $f6=mysql_result($result,$i,"curr_timestamp"); $f7=mysql_result($result,$i,"newown"); $f8=mysql_result($result,$i,"serial"); ?> <tr> <td><?php echo $f1; ?></td> <td><?php echo $f2; ?></td> <td><?php echo $f3; ?></td> <td><?php echo $f4; ?></td> <td><?php echo $f5; ?></td> <td><?php echo $f6; ?></td> <td><?php echo $f7; ?></td> <td><?php echo $f8; ?></td> </tr> <?php $i++; } $num_rows = mysql_num_rows($result); echo "$num_rows Rows\n"; mysql_close(); ?> But when the 'status' field is taken out (and obviously the serial drop down in the first form) it stops working...

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How to get an embedded function to run multiple times

- by Guy Montag

The question I have is how to I get multiple instances of a function to run. Here is my function below - A simple fade function. Problem I'm having is that when it is called a second time it abandons the first call. So if a user clicks on a button it will display a message which fades. If the user clicks on another button the previous fading message just stops at the current opacity level. Try it here - www.arcmarks.com ( please do not repost this domain name) click on SignUp and than quickly click on SignIn with out typing anything. You will see the previous message simply halts. ? What is the stopping mechanism? Where did the previous function go? The function function newEffects(element, direction, max_time ) { newEffects.arrayHold = []; newEffects.arrayHold[element.id] = 0; function next() { newEffects.arrayHold[element.id] += 10; if ( direction === 'up' ) { element.style.opacity = newEffects.arrayHold[element.id] / max_time; } else if ( direction === 'down' ) { element.style.opacity = ( max_time - newEffects.arrayHold[element.id] ) / max_time; } if ( newEffects.arrayHold[element.id] <= max_time ) { setTimeout( next, 10 ); } } next(); return true; }; The Call newEffects(this.element, 'down', 4000 );

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Android Signal 11 (SIGSEGV)

- by Naturjoghurt

I read many posts here and on other sites, but can not find the problem creating my Error: I use an AsyncTask because I want to easily manipulate the UI Thread before and after Execution. In doInBackground I create a ThreadPoolExecutor and execute Runnables. If I only execute 1 Runnable with the Executor, there is no Problem, but if I execute another Runnable I get following Error: 06-26 18:00:42.288: A/libc(25073): Fatal signal 11 (SIGSEGV) at 0x7f486162 (code=1), thread 25106 (pool-1-thread-2) 06-26 18:00:42.304: D/dalvikvm(25073): GC_CONCURRENT freed 119K, 2% free 8908K/9056K, paused 4ms+4ms, total 45ms 06-26 18:00:42.327: I/System.out(25073): In Check All with Prefix: a and Length: 4 06-26 18:00:42.390: I/DEBUG(126): *** *** *** *** *** *** *** *** *** *** *** *** *** *** *** *** 06-26 18:00:42.390: I/DEBUG(126): Build fingerprint: 'google/yakju/maguro:4.2.2/JDQ39/573038:user/release-keys' 06-26 18:00:42.390: I/DEBUG(126): Revision: '9' 06-26 18:00:42.390: I/DEBUG(126): pid: 25073, tid: 25106, name: pool-1-thread-2 >>> de.uni_duesseldorf.cn.distributed_computing2 <<< 06-26 18:00:42.390: I/DEBUG(126): signal 11 (SIGSEGV), code 1 (SEGV_MAPERR), fault addr 7f486162 ... 06-26 18:00:42.538: I/DEBUG(126): memory map around fault addr 7f486162: 06-26 18:00:42.538: I/DEBUG(126): 60292000-60391000 06-26 18:00:42.538: I/DEBUG(126): (no map for address) 06-26 18:00:42.538: I/DEBUG(126): bed14000-bed35000 [stack] I set up the ThreadPoolExecutor like this: // numberOfPackages: Number of Runnables to be executed public void initializeThreadPoolExecutor (int numberOfPackages) { int corePoolSize = Runtime.getRuntime().availableProcessors(); int maxPoolSize = numberOfPackages; long keepAliveTime = 60; final BlockingQueue workingQueue = new LinkedBlockingQueue(); executor = new ThreadPoolExecutor(corePoolSize, maxPoolSize, keepAliveTime, TimeUnit.SECONDS, workingQueue); } I have no clue, why it fails when starting the second Thread. Maybe Memory Leaks? Any Help appreciated. Thanks in Advance

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Enterprise Platform in Python, Design Advice

- by Jason Miesionczek

I am starting the design of a somewhat large enterprise platform in Python, and was wondering if you guys can give me some advice as to how to organize the various components and which packages would help achieve the goals of scalability, maintainability, and reliability. The system is basically a service that collects data from various outside sources, with each outside source having its own separate application. These applications would poll a central database and get any requests that have been submitted to perform on the external source. There will be a main website and REST/SOAP API that should also have access to the central data service. My initial thought was to use Django for the web site, web service and data access layer (using its built-in ORM), and then the outside source applications can use the web service(s) to get the information they need to process the request and save the results. Using this method would allow me to have multiple instances of the service applications running on the same or different machines to balance out the load. Are there more elegant means of accomplishing this? i've heard of messaging systems such as MQ, would something like that be beneficial in this scenario? My other thought was to use a completely separate data service not based on Django, and use some kind of remoting or remote objects (in they exist in Python) to interact with the data model. The downside here would be with the website which would become much slower if it had to push all of its data requests through a second layer. I would love to hear what other developers have come up with to achieve these goals in the most flexible way possible.

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How does asp.net MVC remember my false values on postback?

- by Michel

Hi, This is working, but how??? I have a controller action for a post: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post )] public ActionResult Edit(Person person) { bool isvalid = ModelState.IsValid; etc. The Person object has a property BirthDate, type DateTime. When i enter some invalid data in the form, say 'blabla' which is obvious not a valid Datetime, it fills all the (other) Person properties with the correct data and the BirthDate property with a new blank DateTime. The bool isvalid has the value 'false'. So far so good. Then i do this: return View(p); and in the view i have this: <%= Html.TextBox("BirthDate", String.Format("{0:g}", Model.BirthDate)) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("BirthDate", "*") %> Ant there it comes: i EXPECTED the model to contain the new, blank DateTime because i didn't put any new data in. Second, when the View displays something, it must be a DateTime, because Model.BirthDate can't hold anything but a DateTime. But to my surprise, it shows a textbox with the 'blabla' value! (and the red * behind it) Which ofcourse is nice because the user can seee what he typed wrong, but how can that (blabla)string be transferred to the View in a DateTime field?

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integrating jquery with AJAX using MVC for ddl/html.dropdownlist

- by needhelp

the situation: a user on the page in question selects a category from a dropdown which then dynamically populates all the users of that category in a second dropdown beside it. all the data is being retrieved using LinqtoSQL and i was wondering if this can be done a) using html.dropdownlist in a strongly typed view? b) using jquery to trigger the ajax request on selected index change instead of a 'populate' button trigger? sorry i dont have code as what i was trying really wasnt working at all. I am having trouble with how to do it conceptually and programatically! will appreciate any links to examples etc greatly! thanks in advance! EDIT: this is kind of what i was trying to achieve.. first the ViewPage: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready function TypeSearch() { $.getJSON("/Home/Type", null, function(data) { //dont know what to do here }); } </script> <label for="userType">userType:</label> <%= Html.DropDownList("userType") %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("userType", "*") %> <input type="submit" runat="server" onclick="TypeSearch()" /> <label for="accountNumber">accountNumber:</label> <%= Html.DropDownList("accountNumber") %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("accountNumber", "*") %> Then home controller action: public ActionResult Type() { string accountType = dropdownvalue; List<Account> accounts = userRep.GetAccountsByType(accountType).ToList(); return Json(accounts); }

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Check if DateTime in specific range

- by katit

Need to check if DateTime is in specific range. I think I need to calculate knowing YEAR first and last date of DST time in this year. How would I figure "Sunday of week 2 of March" date? From 1/1/2007 12:00:00 AM to 12/31/9999 12:00:00 AM Begins at 2:00 AM on Sunday of week 2 of March Ends at 2:00 AM on Sunday of week 1 of November For example, I need to check if 11/21/2011 is between Sunday of week 2 in March and Sunday of week 1 of November - answer should be NO If I pass 8/8/2011 - answer should be yes. Basically, I need to write function to check if my date belongs to daylight savings time. My only idea so far is to write loops to find 2nd week for example. So, I would loop from Day 1 in March until I hit Sunday second time. Same thing I would loop (increment days by 1) from day 1 of November until I hit Sunday first time. In another words, I need function to check if input data is in Daylight Savings time period. Time period defined by constraint above. P.S. I can't use TimeZoneInfo since it's in Silverlight P.P.S I can't use DateTime.IsDaylightSavingsTime as I don't have times with kind "local"

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vba: what does ReDim Preserve do and simple array question

- by every_answer_gets_a_point

i am looking at someone else's vba excel code. they are doing ReDim Preserve dataMatrix(7, i) in both loops. what does this do? also, it seems like the second loop just overwrites the data in the first, loop, is that correct? Dim dataMatrix() As String Worksheets.Item("ETS").Select Do While Trim(Cells(r, 1)) <> "" Debug.Print "The line: ", Trim(Cells(r, 1)), r r = r + 1 dataMatrix(1, i) = Trim(Cells(r, 1)) ''file name dataMatrix(2, i) = Trim(Cells(r, 2)) ''sample type dataMatrix(3, i) = Trim(Cells(r, 3)) ''sample name dataMatrix(4, i) = "ETS" '' dataMatrix(5, i) = Trim(Cells(r, 5)) ''Response dataMatrix(6, i) = Trim(Cells(r, 6)) ''ISTD Response dataMatrix(7, i) = Trim(Cells(r, 10)) ''Calculated Conc i = i + 1 ReDim Preserve dataMatrix(7, i) Loop r = 5 Worksheets.Item("ETG").Select Do While Trim(Cells(r, 1)) <> "" Debug.Print "The line: ", Trim(Cells(r, 1)), r r = r + 1 dataMatrix(1, i) = Trim(Cells(r, 1)) ''file name dataMatrix(2, i) = Trim(Cells(r, 2)) ''sample type dataMatrix(3, i) = Trim(Cells(r, 3)) ''sample name dataMatrix(4, i) = "ETG" dataMatrix(5, i) = Trim(Cells(r, 5)) ''Response dataMatrix(6, i) = Trim(Cells(r, 6)) ''ISTD Response dataMatrix(7, i) = Trim(Cells(r, 10)) ''Calculated Conc i = i + 1 ReDim Preserve dataMatrix(7, i) Loop

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Windows Phone 7, login screen redirect and a case for .exit?

- by Jarrette

I know this has been discussed ad nauseum, but I want to present my case.... 1. My start page in my app is login.xaml. The user logs in, the username and password are authenticated through my WCF service, the username is saved in isolated storage, and then the user is redirected to mainpage.xaml. When a user starts my app, and they already have a saved username in isolated storage, they are redirected to mainpage.xaml If the user hit's "back" hard button from mainpage.xaml, they are redirected to the login screen, which in turn redirects them back to the mainpage.xaml since they already have a saved local username. This is causing my app to fail certification currently since the user cannot hit the "back" button to exit the app from mainpage.xaml. My instinct here is to override the BackKeyPress in mainpage.xaml and exit the app somehow. By reading the other posts, I can see that this method is not available. My second idea was to somehow store a property in the app.xaml.cs page that would tell the app to exit when the login page is loaded and that property is set to true, but that seems a bit hacky as well.... Any ideas here?

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What's the correct way to pass parameters from VBScript to COM interface implemented in C#?

- by nopopem

I'm trying to expose a fairly simple C# class to COM which should be usable from VBScript (among others). Some objects need to be created via COM calls and will be used in furter calls later on. The definition of the exposed classes and interfaces looks like this: namespace Test { [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIDispatch)] public interface IComInterface { IFoo CreateFoo(); void UseFoo(int x, IFoo f); } [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] public sealed class CComInterface : IComInterface { public CComInterface() {} public IFoo CreateFoo() { return new Foo(); } public void UseFoo(int x, IFoo f) { f.Bar(); } } [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIDispatch)] public interface IFoo { void Bar(); } [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] public class Foo : IFoo { internal Foo() {} public void Bar() {} } } The simplest thinkable COM client in VBScript does this: Dim ci Set ci = WScript.CreateObject("Test.CComInterface") Dim foo Set foo = ci.CreateFoo foo.Bar ci.UseFoo 0, foo While the call to Bar succeeds, calling UseFoo fails with "Error 5: invalid procedure call or invalid argument" The generated IDL seems ok to me: dispinterface IComInterface { properties: methods: [id(0x60020003)] IFoo* CreateFoo(); [id(0x60020004)] void UseFoo( [in] long x, [in] IFoo* f); }; The vbs call succeeds when I wrap the second parameter in parentheses like this: ci.UseFoo 0, (foo) As far as I understand (I'm no VBScript expert however) this forces the reference to foo to be passed by value, i.e. a copy of the reference is being made. How can I change the interface so that it can be called with the foo reference directly? Since this will be a public interface used by customers I don't like the idea of having to explain why all the objects created need to be passed back in an extra pair of parentheses...

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Need help extrapolating Java code

- by Berlioz

If anyone familiar with Rebecca Wirfs-Brock, she has a piece of Java code found in her book titled, Object Design: Roles, Responsibilities, and Collaborations. Here is the quote Applying Double Dispatch to a Specific Problem To implement the game Rock, Paper, Scissors we need to write code that determines whether one object “beats” another. The game has nine possible outcomes based on the three kinds of objects. The number of interactions is the cross product of the kinds of objects. Case or switch statements are often governed by the type of data that is being operated on. The object-oriented language equivalent is to base its actions on the class of some other object. In Java, it looks like this Here is the piece of Java code on page 16 ' import java.util.*; import java.lang.*; public class Rock { public static void main(String args[]) { } public static boolean beats(GameObject object) { if (object.getClass.getName().equals("Rock")) { result = false; } else if (object.getClass.getName().equals("Paper")) { result = false; } else if(object.getClass.getName().equals("Scissors")) { result = true; } return result; } }' ===This is not a very good solution. First, the receiver needs to know too much about the argument. Second, there is one of these nested conditional statements in each of the three classes. If new kinds of objects could be added to the game, each of the three classes would have to be modified. Can anyone share with me how to get this "less than optimal" piece of code to work in order to see it 'working'. She proceeds to demonstrate a better way, but I will spare you. Thanks

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Modifying resource contents of a running executable

- by mrwoik

All, I store my application settings in a resource. When my program first loads, I read the specified resource using WinAPI. I then parse the retrieved byte data. This works flawlessly for me. Now let's say that a user alters a setting in my application. He/she checks a checkbox control. I would like to save the updated setting to my resource. However, it seems that my call to UpdateResource will not work while my application is running. I can't modify my resource data even though it is the same size. First, is it possible to modify a running image's resource data? Second, if that is not possible, what alternatives do I have for storing settings internally within my application? NOTE: I must have the settings within my running executable. They cannot be on the harddrive or in the registry. Please don't even suggest that as an option.

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How to delete a row from a typed dataset and save it to a database?

- by Zingam

I am doing this as a small project to learn about disconnected and connected models in .NET 4.0 and SQL Server 2008 R2. I have three tables: Companies (PK CompanyID) Addresses (PK AddressID, FK CompanyID) ContactPersons (PK ContactPersonID, FK CompanyID) CompanyID is assigned manually by the users. The other IDs are auto-generated. Companies has a one-to-many relationship with ContactPerson. I have set any changes to cascade. I display all records in Companies in a DataGridView and when a row is clicked, the corresponding records in ContactPersons are displayed in a second DataGridView. I have successfully implemented updating and inserting new records but I completely fail in my attempts to delete rows and save the changes to the database. I us a typed dataset. If I use this: DataRow[] contactPersonRows = m_SoldaCompaniesFileDataSet.ContactPersons.Select("ContactPersonID = " + this.m_CurrentContactPerson.ContactPersonID); m_SoldaCompaniesFileDataSet.ContactPersons.Rows.Remove(contactPersonRows[0]); The records are displayed properly in the DataGridView but are not saved in the database later. If I use this: DataRow row = m_SoldaCompaniesFileDataSet.ContactPersons.Rows.Find(this.m_CurrentContactPerson.ContactPersonID); row.Delete(); The records are set but I get an exeception: DeletedRowInaccessibleException, when I try to refresh the DataGridView. The exception pop-s up in the auto-generated dataset.design file. I am pretty much stuck at this point since yesterday. I cannot find anything anywhere that remotely resembles my problem. And I cannot understand actually what is going on.

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Doctrine: Unable to execute either CROSS JOIN or SELECT FROM Table1, Table2?

- by ropstah

Using Doctrine I'm trying to execute either a 1. CROSS JOIN statement or 2. a SELECT FROM Table1, Table2 statement. Both seem to fail. The CROSS JOIN does execute, however the results are just wrong compared to executing in Navicat. The multiple table SELECT doesn't event execute because Doctrine automatically tries to LEFT JOIN the second table. The cross join statement (this runs, however it doesn't include the joined records where the refClass User_Setting doesn't have a value): $q = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $q->select('{s.*}, {us.*}') ->from('User u CROSS JOIN Setting s LEFT JOIN User_Setting us ON us.usr_auto_key = u.usr_auto_key AND us.set_auto_key = s.set_auto_key') ->addComponent('u', 'User u') ->addComponent('s', 'Setting s') ->addComponent('us', 'u.User_Setting us') ->where('s.sct_auto_key = ? AND u.usr_auto_key = ?',array(1, $this->usr_auto_key)); And the select from multiple tables (this doesn't event run. It does not spot the many-many relationship between User and Setting in the first ->from() part and throws an exception: "User_Setting" with an alias of "us" in your query does not reference the parent component it is related to.): $q = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $q->select('{s.*}, {us.*}') ->from('User u, Setting s LEFT JOIN User_Setting us ON us.usr_auto_key = u.usr_auto_key AND us.set_auto_key = s.set_auto_key') ->addComponent('u', 'User u') ->addComponent('s', 'Setting s') ->addComponent('us', 'u.User_Setting us') ->where('s.sct_auto_key = ? AND u.usr_auto_key = ?',array(1, $this->usr_auto_key));

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