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• Move SELECT to SQL Server side

  - by noober

  Hello all, I have an SQLCLR trigger. It contains a large and messy SELECT inside, with parts like: (CASE WHEN EXISTS(SELECT * FROM INSERTED I WHERE I.ID = R.ID) THEN '1' ELSE '0' END) AS IsUpdated -- Is selected row just added? as well as JOINs etc. I like to have the result as a single table with all included. Question 1. Can I move this SELECT to SQL Server side? If yes, how to do this? Saying "move", I mean to create a stored procedure or something else that can be executed before reading dataset in while cycle. The 2 following questions make sense only if answer is "yes". Why do I want to move SELECT? First off, I don't like mixing SQL with C# code. At second, I suppose that server-side queries run faster, since the server have more chances to cache them. Question 2. Am I right? Is it some sort of optimizing? Also, the SELECT contains constant strings, but they are localizable. For instance, WHERE R.Status = "Enabled" "Enabled" should be changed for French, German etc. So, I want to write 2 static methods -- OnCreate and OnDestroy -- then mark them as stored procedures. When registering/unregistering my assembly on server side, just call them respectively. In OnCreate format the SELECT string, replacing {0}, {1}... with required values from the assembly resources. Then I can localize resources only, not every script. Question 3. Is it good idea? Is there an existing attribute to mark methods to be executed by SQL Server automatically after (un)registartion an assembly? Regards,

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• What is Wordpress doing for content encoding in it's mysql database?

  - by qbxk

  For some convoluted reasons best left behind us, I require direct access the contents of a wordpress database. I'm using mysql 5.0.70-r1 on gentoo with wordpress 2.6, and perl 5.8.8 ftr. So, sometimes we get high-order characters in the blog, we have quite a few authors contributing too, for the most part these characters end up in wp's database in wp_posts.post_content or wp_postmeta.meta_value, Wordpress is displaying these correctly on it's site, but the database stores it using single byte encoding that I can't figure out how to convert to the correct string. Today's example: the blog shows this, and doesn't even seem to escape any chars in the html, Hãhãhães but the database, when viewed via the mysql prompt, has, Hãhãhães So clearly this is some kind of double-byte encoding issue, but I don't know how I can correct it. I need to be able to pull that second string from the database (b/c that's what it gives me) and convert it to the first one, and i need to do so using perl. also, just to help unmuddy any waters, I took these strings and printed out the ascii codes for each character using perl's ord() function. Here is the output of the "wrong" string H = 72 à = 195 £ = 163 h = 104 à = 195 £ = 163 h = 104 à = 195 £ = 163 e = 101 s = 115 This is the correct string, that I need to produce in my script H = 72 ã = 227 h = 104 ã = 227 h = 104 ã = 227 e = 101 s = 115

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• retrieve image from gallery in android

  - by smsys

  I have created an Activity where i have a Button. By pressing the button an android Gallery opens. When i choose an image from the gallery it is shows it in an ImageView of my Activity but after choosing second time the following error occuring 01-13 17:55:25.323: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(14899): java.lang.OutOfMemoryError: bitmap size exceeds VM budget Here is the source code i am using: public class MyImage extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ Gallery gallery; private Uri[] mUrls; String[] mFiles=null; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); File images = Environment.getDataDirectory(); File[] imagelist = images.listFiles(); mFiles = new String[imagelist.length]; for(int i= 0 ; i< imagelist.length; i++) { mFiles[i] = imagelist[i].getAbsolutePath(); } mUrls = new Uri[mFiles.length]; for(int i=0; i < mFiles.length; i++) { mUrls[i] = Uri.parse(mFiles[i]); } Gallery g = (Gallery) findViewById(R.id.Gallery01); g.setAdapter(new ImageAdapter(this)); g.setFadingEdgeLength(40); } public class ImageAdapter extends BaseAdapter{ int mGalleryItemBackground; public ImageAdapter(Context c) { mContext = c; } public int getCount(){ return mUrls.length; } public Object getItem(int position){ return position; } public long getItemId(int position) { return position; } public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent){ ImageView i = new ImageView(mContext); i.setImageURI(mUrls[position]); i.setScaleType(ImageView.ScaleType.FIT_XY); i.setLayoutParams(new Gallery.LayoutParams(260, 210)); return i; } private Context mContext; } }

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• Inline function v. Macro in C -- What's the Overhead (Memory/Speed)?

  - by Jason R. Mick

  I searched Stack Overflow for the pros/cons of function-like macros v. inline functions. I found the following discussion: Pros and Cons of Different macro function / inline methods in C ...but it didn't answer my primary burning question. Namely, what is the overhead in c of using a macro function (with variables, possibly other function calls) v. an inline function, in terms of memory usage and execution speed? Are there any compiler-dependent differences in overhead? I have both icc and gcc at my disposal. My code snippet I'm modularizing is: double AttractiveTerm = pow(SigmaSquared/RadialDistanceSquared,3); double RepulsiveTerm = AttractiveTerm * AttractiveTerm; EnergyContribution += 4 * Epsilon * (RepulsiveTerm - AttractiveTerm); My reason for turning it into an inline function/macro is so I can drop it into a c file and then conditionally compile other similar, but slightly different functions/macros. e.g.: double AttractiveTerm = pow(SigmaSquared/RadialDistanceSquared,3); double RepulsiveTerm = pow(SigmaSquared/RadialDistanceSquared,9); EnergyContribution += 4 * Epsilon * (RepulsiveTerm - AttractiveTerm); (note the difference in the second line...) This function is a central one to my code and gets called thousands of times per step in my program and my program performs millions of steps. Thus I want to have the LEAST overhead possible, hence why I'm wasting time worrying about the overhead of inlining v. transforming the code into a macro. Based on the prior discussion I already realize other pros/cons (type independence and resulting errors from that) of macros... but what I want to know most, and don't currently know is the PERFORMANCE. I know some of you C veterans will have some great insight for me!!

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• Enterprise Platform in Python, Design Advice

  - by Jason Miesionczek

  I am starting the design of a somewhat large enterprise platform in Python, and was wondering if you guys can give me some advice as to how to organize the various components and which packages would help achieve the goals of scalability, maintainability, and reliability. The system is basically a service that collects data from various outside sources, with each outside source having its own separate application. These applications would poll a central database and get any requests that have been submitted to perform on the external source. There will be a main website and REST/SOAP API that should also have access to the central data service. My initial thought was to use Django for the web site, web service and data access layer (using its built-in ORM), and then the outside source applications can use the web service(s) to get the information they need to process the request and save the results. Using this method would allow me to have multiple instances of the service applications running on the same or different machines to balance out the load. Are there more elegant means of accomplishing this? i've heard of messaging systems such as MQ, would something like that be beneficial in this scenario? My other thought was to use a completely separate data service not based on Django, and use some kind of remoting or remote objects (in they exist in Python) to interact with the data model. The downside here would be with the website which would become much slower if it had to push all of its data requests through a second layer. I would love to hear what other developers have come up with to achieve these goals in the most flexible way possible.

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• Can I use drawRect to refresh a UIView subclass?

  - by Timbo

  I've created a subclass of UIView called Status which is designed to display a rectangle of a certain size (within a view) depending on the value of a variable. // Interface #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import <QuartzCore/QuartzCore.h> @interface Status: UIView { NSString* name; int someVariable; } @property int someVariable; @property (assign) NSString *name; - (void) createStatus: (NSString*)withName; - (void) drawRect:(CGRect)rect; @end // Implementation #import "Status.h" @implementation Status @synthesize name, someVariable; - (void) createStatus: (NSString*)withName { name = withName; someVariable = 10000; } - (void) drawRect:(CGRect)rect { CGContextRef context = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); //Draw Status CGContextSetRGBFillColor(context, 0.0, 0.0, 1.0, 1); // fill CGContextFillRect(context, CGRectMake(0.0, 0.0, someVariable, 40.0)); } //// myviewcontroller implementation - (void) viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewDidAppear:animated]; myStatus = [[Status alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(8,8,200,56)]; myStatus.backgroundColor = [UIColor grayColor]; [self.view addSubview:myStatus]; } How do I set this up so I can repeatedly call a refresh of the status bar? I'll probably call the refresh 4 times per second using a NSTimer, I'm just not sure what to call or if I should move this rectangle drawing to a separate function or something... Thanks in advance for your help :)

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• How to debug memory allocation issues?

  - by amitabh

  Hi I am writing an iPhone app that that is trying to create a second a view when the user clicks on an element in UITableView. The code looks like ReplyToViewController *reply = [[ReplyToViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ReplyTo" bundle:nil]; reply.delegate = self; Message *message = [resultData objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; int dbid = [message.bizid intValue]; NSLog(@"dbid=%d",dbid); reply.currentMessage = message; reply.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController:reply animated:YES]; The reply object gets created properly and the view is proper. Last line in above code segment calls some framework code which eventually calls the viewDidLoad method of the ReplyToViewController. Address of the reply object in the above code and the address of the object in viewDidLoad is not same. Any idea where this new object is coming from? How do I debug? I also added init method the following method in ReplyToViewController hoping that it will get called and I can find who is creating this new object. But it does not stop in this method. Any help will be greatly appreciated. - (id) init { /* first initialize the base class */ self = [super init]; return self; } // Following gets called from the 1st code segment. - (id)initWithNibName:(NSString *)nibNameOrNil bundle:(NSBundle *)nibBundleOrNil { if (self = [super initWithNibName:nibNameOrNil bundle:nibBundleOrNil]) { // Custom initialization } return self; } - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; NSLog(currentMessage.text]; // THIS returns nil and the program fails later in the code. }

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• Excel - Best Way to Connect With Access Data

  - by gamerzfuse

  Hello there, Here is the situation we have: a) I have an Access database / application that records a significant amount of data. Significant fields would be hours, # of sales, # of unreturned calls, etc b) I have an Excel document that connects to the Access database and pulls data in to visualize it As it stands now, the Excel file has a Refresh button that loads new data. The data is loaded into a large PivotTable. The main 'visual form' then uses VLOOKUP to get the results from the form, based on the related hours. This operation is slow (~10 seconds) and seems to be redundant and inefficient. Is there a better way to do this? I am willing to go just about any route - just need directions. Thanks in advance! Update: I have confirmed (due to helpful comments/responses) that the problem is with the data loading itself. removing all the VLOOKUPs only took a second or two out of the load time. So, the questions stands as how I can rapidly and reliably get the data without so much time involvement (it loads around 3000 records into the PivotTables).

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• How does asp.net MVC remember my false values on postback?

  - by Michel

  Hi, This is working, but how??? I have a controller action for a post: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post )] public ActionResult Edit(Person person) { bool isvalid = ModelState.IsValid; etc. The Person object has a property BirthDate, type DateTime. When i enter some invalid data in the form, say 'blabla' which is obvious not a valid Datetime, it fills all the (other) Person properties with the correct data and the BirthDate property with a new blank DateTime. The bool isvalid has the value 'false'. So far so good. Then i do this: return View(p); and in the view i have this: <%= Html.TextBox("BirthDate", String.Format("{0:g}", Model.BirthDate)) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("BirthDate", "*") %> Ant there it comes: i EXPECTED the model to contain the new, blank DateTime because i didn't put any new data in. Second, when the View displays something, it must be a DateTime, because Model.BirthDate can't hold anything but a DateTime. But to my surprise, it shows a textbox with the 'blabla' value! (and the red * behind it) Which ofcourse is nice because the user can seee what he typed wrong, but how can that (blabla)string be transferred to the View in a DateTime field?

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• How can I debug a session

  - by Organ Grinding Monkey

  I have been asked to work of a very large web application and deploy it. The problem that I'm facing here is that when I deploy the application and more that 1 user logs into the system, the sessions seem to cross over i.e: Person A logs in and works on the site, all good. When person B logs in, person A will then be logged in as person B as well. I have been asked to work of a very large web application and deploy it. The problem that I'm facing here is that when I deploy the application and more that 1 user logs into the system, the sessions seem to cross over i.e: Person A logs in and works on the site, all good. When person B logs in, person A will then be logged in as person B as well. If anyone has experienced this behaviour before and can steer me in the right direction, that would be first prize, Second prize would be to show me how I can debug this situation so that I can find out where the problem is and fix it. Some information about the application. From what I've been told and what I've seen within the app is that it started as a .Net 1.1 application and got upgraded to .Net 2 and that's why the log in system was done the way it is. (The application is huge and now complete and that's why I cant rewrite the whole user authentication process, it will just take to long and I don't know what effect it might have) All the Logged in User information is stored in properties that have been added in the Global.asax.vb file. (could this be the problem?) Any help here would be greatly appreciated

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• PHP: Use a string as an array index path to retreive a value.

  - by Charles

  Say I have an array like: Array ( [0] => Array ( [Data] => Array ( [id] => 1 [title] => Manager [name] => John Smith ) ) [1] => Array ( [Data] => Array ( [id] => 1 [title] => Clerk [name] => ( [first] => Jane [last] => Smith ) ) ) ) I want to be able to build a function that I can pass a string to that will act as the array index path and return the appropriate array value without using eval(). Is that possible? function($indexPath, $arrayToAccess) { //$indexPath would be something like [0]['Data']['name'] which would return //"Manager" or it could be [1]['Data']['name']['first'] which would return //"Jane" but the amount of array indexs that will be in the index path can //change, so there might be 3 like the first example, or 4 like the second. return $arrayToAccess[$indexPath] <-obviously wont work }

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• print friendly version of floated list

  - by Brad

  I have a list of phone extensions that I want to print a friendly version of it. I have a print css for it to print appropriately onto paper, the extensions are located within an unordered list, which are floated to the left. <ul> <li>Larry Hughes <span class="ext">8291</span></li> <li>Chuck Davis <span class="ext">3141</span></li> <li>Kevin Skillis <span class="ext">5115</span></li> </ul> I float it left, and when it prints the second page, it leaves off the name part of the list (in Firefox, works fine in Google Chrome and IE), see here: http://cl.ly/de965aea63f66c13ba32 I am referring to this: http://www.alistapart.com/articles/goingtoprint/ - they mentioned something about applying a float:none; to the content part of the page. If I do that, how should I go about making the list show up in 4 columns? It is a dynamic list, pulled from a database. Any help is appreciated.

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• Display one div if nothing is selected

  - by Levani

  I use this javascript to display different div classes upon selection. I need to display one div class if nothing is selected, for example when page is loaded, and that replace it with one of the divs according to the selection... <script type="text/javascript"><!-- var lastDiv = ""; function showDiv(divName) { // hide last div if (lastDiv) { document.getElementById(lastDiv).className = "hiddenDiv"; } //if value of the box is not nothing and an object with that name exists, then change the class if (divName && document.getElementById(divName)) { document.getElementById(divName).className = "visibleDiv"; lastDiv = divName; } } //--> </script> css: <style type="text/css" media="screen"><!-- .hiddenDiv { display: none; } .visibleDiv { display: block; border: 1px grey solid; } --></style> HTML: <form id="FormName" action="blah.php" method="get" name="FormName"> <select name="selectName" size="1" onChange="showDiv(this.value);"> <option value="">Choose One...</option> <option value="one">first</option> <option value="two">second</option> <option value="three">third</option> </select> </form> <p id="one" class="hiddenDiv">This is paragraph 1.</p> <p id="two" class="hiddenDiv">This is paragraph 2.</p> <p id="three" class="hiddenDiv">This is paragraph 3.</p> Can anyone please help?

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• Unpacking varargin to individual variables

  - by Richie Cotton

  I'm writing a wrapper to a function that takes varargin as its inputs. I want to preserve the function signature in the wrapper, but nesting varargin causes all the variable to be lumped together. function inner(varargin) %#ok<VANUS> % An existing function disp(nargin) end function outer(varargin) % My wrapper inner(varargin); end outer('foo', 1:3, {}) % Uh-oh, this is 1 I need a way to unpack varargin in the outer function, so that I have a list of individual variables. There is a really nasty way to do this by constructing a string of the names of the variables to pass the inner, and calling eval. function outer2(varargin) %#ok<VANUS> % My wrapper, second attempt inputstr = ''; for i = 1:nargin inputstr = [inputstr 'varargin{' num2str(i) '}']; %#ok<AGROW> if i < nargin inputstr = [inputstr ', ']; %#ok<AGROW> end end eval(['inner(' inputstr ')']); end outer2('foo', 1:3, {}) % 3, as it should be Can anyone think of a less hideous way of doing things, please?

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• recvfrom returns invalid argument when *from* is passed

  - by Aditya Sehgal

  I am currently writing a small UDP server program in linux. The UDP server will receive packets from two different peers and will perform different operations based on from which peer it received the packet. I am trying to determine the source from where I receive the packet. However, when select returns and recvfrom is called, it returns with an error of Invalid Argument. If I pass NULL as the second last arguments, recvfrom succeeds. I have tried declaring fromAddr as struct sockaddr_storage, struct sockaddr_in, struct sockaddr without any success. Is their something wrong with this code? Is this the correct way to determine the source of the packet? The code snippet follows. ` /*TODO : update for TCP. use recv */ if((pkInfo->rcvLen=recvfrom(psInfo->sockFd, pkInfo->buffer, MAX_PKTSZ, 0, /* (struct sockaddr*)&fromAddr,*/ NULL, &(addrLen) )) < 0) { perror("RecvFrom failed\n"); } else { /*Apply Filter */ #if 0 struct sockaddr_in* tmpAddr; tmpAddr = (struct sockaddr_in* )&fromAddr; printf("Received Msg From %s\n",inet_ntoa(tmpAddr->sin_addr)); #endif printf("Packet Received of len = %d\n",pkInfo->rcvLen); } `

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• ADO.NET Data Services Media type requires a ';' character before a parameter definition.

  - by idahosaedokpayi

  I am experimenting with ADO.NET and I am seeing this error on the second attempt to browse the service: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" standalone="yes" ?> <error xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/ado/2007/08/dataservices/metadata"> <code /> <message xml:lang="en-US">Media type requires a ';' character before a parameter definition.</message> </error> The first attempt is normal. I am working with an exactly identical service on an internal development network and it is fine. I am including my connection string: <add name="J4Entities" connectionString="metadata=res://*;provider=System.Data.SqlClient;provider connection string=&quot;Data Source=MNSTSQL01N;Initial Catalog=J4;Integrated Security=True;MultipleActiveResultSets=True&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient"/> and my Data service class: using System; using System.Data.Services; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.ServiceModel.Web; public class Data : DataService< J4Model.J4Entities > { // This method is called only once to initialize service-wide policies. public static void InitializeService(IDataServiceConfiguration config) { // TODO: set rules to indicate which entity sets and service operations are visible, updatable, etc. // Examples: config.SetEntitySetAccessRule("*", EntitySetRights.AllRead); // config.SetServiceOperationAccessRule("MyServiceOperation", ServiceOperationRights.All); } } Is there something obvious I am not doing?

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• Difference between two PHP times as years, months and days for PHP version 5.2

  - by Dominor Novus

  Forward: I've scanned through the existing questions/answers on this matter. This is not a duplicitous question; I cannot find a working solution from the accepted answers. The main questions/answers I've reviewed can be found here: How to calculate the difference between two dates using PHP? What I need: A calucalation of the difference between two dates expressed as years, months and days that works with PHP version: 5.2. <?php $current_date = date('d-M-Y'); $future_date = '2012-11-01'; ?> What I've tried: Most answers I find online don't seem to exact in that they don't factor in leap years. This highly rated answer won't work because DateTime-diff() is php 5.3+. This accepted answer results in (i.e. the second block of code aimed at PHP 5.2) results in the following being parsed: Array ( [y] = 25 [m] = 11 [d] = 7 [h] = 3 [i] = 15 [s] = 19 [invert] = 0 [days] = 9473 ) Array ( [y] = 25 [m] = 11 [d] = 7 [h] = 3 [i] = 15 [s] = 19 [invert] = 1 [days] = 9473 ) I can't tell if I've incorrectly applied the code or it's simply a case of me not knowing how to manipulate the array.

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• Are you using C++0x today? [closed]

  - by Roger Pate

  This is a question in two parts, the first is the most important and concerns now: Are you following the design and evolution of C++0x? What blogs, newsgroups, committee papers, and other resources do you follow? Even where you're not using any new features, how have they affected your current choices? What new features are you using now, either in production or otherwise? The second part is a follow-up, concerning the new standard once it is final: Do you expect to use it immediately? What are you doing to prepare for C++0x, other than as listed for the previous questions? Obviously, compiler support must be there, but there's still co-workers, ancillary tools, and other factors to consider. What will most affect your adoption? Edit: The original really was too argumentative; however, I'm still interested in the underlying question, so I've tried to clean it up and hopefully make it acceptable. This seems a much better avenue than duplicating—even though some answers responded to the argumentative tone, they still apply to the extent that they addressed the questions, and all answers are community property to be cleaned up as appropriate, too.

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• C++ design related question

  - by Kotti

  Hi! Here is the question's plot: suppose I have some abstract classes for objects, let's call it Object. It's definition would include 2D position and dimensions. Let it also have some virtual void Render(Backend& backend) const = 0 method used for rendering. Now I specialize my inheritance tree and add Rectangle and Ellipse class. Guess they won't have their own properties, but they will have their own virtual void Render method. Let's say I implemented these methods, so that Render for Rectangle actually draws some rectangle, and the same for ellipse. Now, I add some object called Plane, which is defined as class Plane : public Rectangle and has a private member of std::vector<Object*> plane_objects; Right after that I add a method to add some object to my plane. And here comes the question. If I design this method as void AddObject(Object& object) I would face trouble like I won't be able to call virtual functions, because I would have to do something like plane_objects.push_back(new Object(object)); and this should be push_back(new Rectangle(object)) for rectangles and new Circle(...) for circles. If I implement this method as void AddObject(Object* object), it looks good, but then somewhere else this means making call like plane.AddObject(new Rectangle(params)); and this is generally a mess because then it's not clear which part of my program should free the allocated memory. ["when destroying the plane? why? are we sure that calls to AddObject were only done as AddObject(new something).] I guess the problems caused by using the second approach could be solved using smart pointers, but I am sure there have to be something better. Any ideas?

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• Stored Procedure: Reducing Table Data

  - by SumGuy

  Hi Guys, A simple question about Stored Procedures. I have one stored procedure collecting a whole bunch of data in a table. I then call this procedure from within another stored procedure. I can copy the data into a new table created in the calling procedure but as far as I can see the tables have to be identical. Is this right? Or is there a way to insert only the data I want? For example.... I have one procedure which returns this: SELECT @batch as Batch, @Count as Qty, pd.Location, cast(pd.GL as decimal(10,3)) as [Length], cast(pd.GW as decimal(10,3)) as Width, cast(pd.GT as decimal(10,3)) as Thickness FROM propertydata pd GROUP BY pd.Location, pd.GL, pd.GW, pd.GT I then call this procedure but only want the following data: DECLARE @BatchTable TABLE ( Batch varchar(50), [Length] decimal(10,3), Width decimal(10,3), Thickness decimal(10,3), ) INSERT @BatchTable (Batch, [Length], Width, Thickness) EXEC dbo.batch_drawings_NEW @batch So in the second command I don't want the Qty and Location values. However the code above keeps returning the error: "Insert Error: Column name or number of supplied values does not match table"

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• Bizzare results when running two Visual Studio Express C++ 2008 solutions

  - by Jamie Keeling

  This is a follow on from my previous question although this is about something else. I've been having a problem where for some reason my message that I pass from one process to another only displays the first letter, in this case "M". My application based on a MSDN sample so to make sure I hadn't missed something I create a seperate solution, added the MSDN sample (Without any changes for my needs) and unsuprisingly it works fine. Now for the weird bit, when I run the MSDN sample running (As in debugging) and have my own application running, the text prints out fine without any problems. The second I run my on it's own without the original MSDN sample being open it fails to work and only shows an "M". I've looked in the debugger and don't seem to notice anything suspicious (It's a slightly dated picture, I've fixed the data type inconsistency). Can anyone provide a solution as to this? I've never encountered anything like this before. To look at my source code it's easier to just look at the link I posted at the top of the question, there's no point in me posting it twice. Thank you for any help.

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• Best practices for encrytping continuous/small UDP data

  - by temp

  Hello everyone, I am having an application where I have to send several small data per second through the network using UDP. The application need to send the data in real-time (on waiting). I want to encrypt these data and insure that what I am doing is as secure as possible. Since I am using UDP, there is no way to use SSL/TLS, so I have to encrypt each packet alone since the protocol is connectionless/unreliable/unregulated. Right now, I am using a 128-bit key derived from a passphrase from the user, and AES in CBC mode (PBE using AES-CBC). I decided to use a random salt with the passphrase to derive the 128-bit key (prevent dictionary attack on the passphrase), and of course use IVs (to prevent statistical analysis for packets). However I am concerned about few things: Each packet contains small amount of data (like a couple of integer values per packet) which will make the encrypted packets vulnerable to known-plaintext attacks (which will result in making it easier to crack the key). Also, since the encryption key is derived from a passphrase, this will make the key space way less (I know the salt will help, but I have to send the salt through the network once and anyone can get it). Given these two things, anyone can sniff and store the sent data, and try to crack the key. Although this process might take some time, once the key is cracked all the stored data will be decrypted, which will be a real problem for my application. So my question is, what is the best practices for sending/encrypting continuous small data using a connectionless protocol (UDP)? Is my way the best way to do it? ...flowed? ...Overkill? ... Please note that I am not asking for a 100% secure solution, as there is no such thing. Cheers

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• What changed in the DataGrid that means it won't work anymore?

  - by Jeff Yates

  I have a Silverlight app with a DataGrid containing some custom columns and all was working well. Then I updated to Silverlight 3 tools for VS 2008 SP1 and rebuilt it. Now it has the following problems: Rows aren't added when the collection is modified. The ItemsSource property is (and always has been) set to an ObservableCollection instance, which notifies when its contents change. This worked fine for Silverlight 2. However, in Silverlight 3 to get this working at all, I now have to null and then re-set ItemsSource - this seems like I'm hiding a bigger issue but I can't work out what that might be. I cannot select a row or a cell anymore. If I'm lucky, I can select one whole row before it stops working. I can't edit anything. I suspect this is related to the previous point. I'll post some source when I am able, but first I have to strip it down to the bare minimum. In the meantime, I was hoping someone might have some idea of what may be going on here. My gut feeling on the second two points is that my bindings are no longer working, but that's just a guess and if it is the case, I have no idea which ones. Thanks for any help anyone might be able to provide. Update So, I finally reduced my problem down to a simple works/doesn't work comparison. The problem seems to occur if I override Equals in my element type. As soon as I do that, something happens strangely in the ObservableCollection that contains that type, it seems, and my application breaks. To make it more interesting, there is a check to make sure that duplicate items don't even get close to being added to the collection. I don't exactly know why ObservableCollection needs to compare equality when inserting items (the stack trace indicates it is using IndexAt) but this seems to cause the issue. So, any thoughts?

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• Clearing Session in Global Application_Error

  - by Zarigani

  Whenever an unhandled exception occurs on our site, I want to: Send a notification email Clear the user's session Send the user to a error page ("Sorry, a problem occurred...") The first and last I've had working for a long time but the second is causing me some issues. My Global.asax.vb includes: Sub Application_Error(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) ' Send exception report Dim ex As System.Exception = Nothing If HttpContext.Current IsNot Nothing AndAlso HttpContext.Current.Server IsNot Nothing Then ex = HttpContext.Current.Server.GetLastError End If Dim eh As New ErrorHandling(ex) eh.SendError() ' Clear session If HttpContext.Current IsNot Nothing AndAlso HttpContext.Current.Session IsNot Nothing Then HttpContext.Current.Session.Clear() End If ' User will now be sent to the 500 error page (by the CustomError setting in web.config) End Sub When I run a debug, I can see the session being cleared, but then on the next page the session is back again! I eventually found a reference that suggests that changes to session will not be saved unless Server.ClearError is called. Unfortunately, if I add this (just below the line that sets "ex") then the CustomErrors redirect doesn't seem to kick in and I'm left with a blank page? Is there a way around this?

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• Is there a reason why SSIS significantly slows down after a few minutes?

  - by Mark

  I'm running a fairly substantial SSIS package against SQL 2008 - and I'm getting the same results both in my dev environment (Win7-x64 + SQL-x64-Developer) and the production environment (Server 2008 x64 + SQL Std x64). The symptom is that initial data loading screams at between 50K - 500K records per second, but after a few minutes the speed drops off dramatically and eventually crawls embarrasingly slowly. The database is in Simple recovery model, the target tables are empty, and all of the prerequisites for minimally logged bulk inserts are being met. The data flow is a simple load from a RAW input file to a schema-matched table (i.e. no complex transforms of data, no sorting, no lookups, no SCDs, etc.) The problem has the following qualities and resiliences: Problem persists no matter what the target table is. RAM usage is lowish (45%) - there's plenty of spare RAM available for SSIS buffers or SQL Server to use. Perfmon shows buffers are not spooling, disk response times are normal, disk availability is high. CPU usage is low (hovers around 25% shared between sqlserver.exe and DtsDebugHost.exe) Disk activity primarily on TempDB.mdf, but I/O is very low (< 600 Kb/s) OLE DB destination and SQL Server Destination both exhibit this problem. To sum it up, I expect either disk, CPU or RAM to be exhausted before the package slows down, but instead its as if the SSIS package is taking an afternoon nap. SQL server remains responsive to other queries, and I can't find any performance counters or logged events that betray the cause of the problem. I'll gratefully reward any reasonable answers / suggestions.

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