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  • Oracle JDBC intermittent Connection Issue

    - by Lipska
    I am experiencing a very strange problem This is a very simple use of JDBC connecting to an Oracle database OS: Ubuntu Java Version: 1.5.0_16-b02 1.6.0_17-b04 Database: Oracle 11g Release 11.1.0.6.0 When I make use of the jar file JODBC14.jar it connects to the database everytime When I make use of the jar file JODBC5.jar it connects some times and other times it throws an error ( shown below) If I recompile with Java 6 and use JODBC6.jar I get the same results as JODBC5.jar I need specific features in JODB5.jar that are not available in JODBC14.jar Any ideas Error Connecting to oracle java.sql.SQLException: Io exception: Connection reset at oracle.jdbc.driver.SQLStateMapping.newSQLException(SQLStateMapping.java:74) at oracle.jdbc.driver.DatabaseError.newSQLException(DatabaseError.java:110) at oracle.jdbc.driver.DatabaseError.throwSqlException(DatabaseError.java:171) at oracle.jdbc.driver.DatabaseError.throwSqlException(DatabaseError.java:227) at oracle.jdbc.driver.DatabaseError.throwSqlException(DatabaseError.java:494) at oracle.jdbc.driver.T4CConnection.logon(T4CConnection.java:411) at oracle.jdbc.driver.PhysicalConnection.(PhysicalConnection.java:490) at oracle.jdbc.driver.T4CConnection.(T4CConnection.java:202) at oracle.jdbc.driver.T4CDriverExtension.getConnection(T4CDriverExtension.java:33) at oracle.jdbc.driver.OracleDriver.connect(OracleDriver.java:474) at java.sql.DriverManager.getConnection(DriverManager.java:525) at java.sql.DriverManager.getConnection(DriverManager.java:171) at TestConnect.main(TestConnect.java:13) Code Below is the code I am using import java.io.; import java.sql.; public class TestConnect { public static void main(String[] args) { try { System.out.println("Connecting to oracle"); Connection con=null; Class.forName("oracle.jdbc.driver.OracleDriver"); con=DriverManager.getConnection( "jdbc:oracle:thin:@172.16.48.100:1535:sample", "JOHN", "90009000"); System.out.println("Connected to oracle"); con.close(); System.out.println("Goodbye"); } catch(Exception e){e.printStackTrace();} } }

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  • Why can't c# use inline anonymous lambdas or delegates?

    - by Samuel Meacham
    I hope I worded the title of my question appropriately. In c# I can use lambdas (as delegates), or the older delegate syntax to do this: Func<string> fnHello = () => "hello"; Console.WriteLine(fnHello()); Func<string> fnHello2 = delegate() { return "hello 2"; }; Console.WriteLine(fnHello2()); So why can't I "inline" the lambda or the delegate body, and avoid capturing it in a named variable (making it anonymous)? // Inline anonymous lambda not allowed Console.WriteLine( (() => "hello inline lambda")() ); // Inline anonymous delegate not allowed Console.WriteLine( (delegate() { return "hello inline delegate"; })() ); An example that works in javascript (just for comparison) is: alert( (function(){ return "hello inline anonymous function from javascript"; })() ); Which produces the expected alert box. UPDATE: It seems you can have an inline anonymous lambda in C#, if you cast appropriately, but the amount of ()'s starts to make it unruly. // Inline anonymous lambda with appropriate cast IS allowed Console.WriteLine( ((Func<string>)(() => "hello inline anonymous lambda"))() ); Perhaps the compiler can't infer the sig of the anonymous delegate to know which Console.WriteLine() you're trying to call? Does anyone know why this specific cast is required?

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  • Add a custom variable to an email header already within a gmail inbox

    - by Ali
    Hi guys - this may seem odd but I was wondering if it was possible to add custom header details to emails already in an inbox. Like lets say I wish to add in the Header of the email something like - myvariable = myvalue and then be able to query it somehow. I'm looking at code from Iloha mail and most of the details like subject and from recieved etc are in the headers and you can search through them. SO is it possible to add my own custom variable to an email header and query it in the same way? How can it be done using php? EDIT ==================== Thanks I know how you can modify the headers of sent messages plus also query for custom variables in message headers however in this case I want to know if it would be possible to add a custom variable in a recieved message already in my inbox. Actually let me define the situation here. I'm working on a google apps solution which requires maintaining references to emails. Basically the application is as such that when an email comes in - we create an order from that email and wish to maintain a reference to that EXACT email by some kind of identifier which would enable us to identify that email. The fact is that we don't want to download the emails in a database and maintain a separate store as we would want to keep all the emailing on GMAIL. We just need: A way to be able to 'link' to a specific email permanently - the UID is just a sequence number and not very reliable. We couldn't find any property of emails that could function as a unique ID or primary key and so we thought if we could instead generate a key on our end and store it in a custom variable on the email itself. However it seems unfortunately that there isn't a way to manipulate headers of an already existing email. :( is there any solution to this problem I could use any IDEA !

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  • JSON and Microformats

    - by Tauren
    I'm looking for opinions on whether microformats should be used to name JSON elements. For instance, there is a microformat for physical addresses, that looks like this: <div class="adr"> <div class="street-address">665 3rd St.</div> <div class="extended-address">Suite 207</div> <span class="locality">San Francisco</span>, <span class="region">CA</span> <span class="postal-code">94107</span> <div class="country-name">U.S.A.</div> </div> There is a document available on using JSON and Microformats. The information above could be represented as JSON data like this: "adr": { "street-address":"665 3rd St.", "extended-address":"Suite 207", "locality":"San Fransicso", "region":"CA", "postal-code":"94107", "country-name":"U.S.A." }, The issue I have with this is that I'd like my JSON data to be as lightweight as possible, but still human readable. While still supporting international addresses, I would prefer something like this: "address": { "street":"665 3rd St.", "extended":"Suite 207", "locality":"San Fransicso", "region":"CA", "code":"94107", "country":"U.S.A." }, If I'm designing a new JSON API right now, does it make sense to use microformats from the start? Or should I not really worry about it? Is there some other standard that is more specific to JSON that I should look at?

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  • Output redirection still with colors in PowerShell

    - by stej
    Suppose I run msbuild like this: function Clean-Sln { param($sln) MSBuild.exe $sln /target:Clean } Clean-Sln c:\temp\SO.sln In Posh console the output is in colors. That's pretty handy - you spot colors just by watching the output. And e.g. not important messages are grey. Question I'd like to add ability to redirect it somewhere like this (simplified example): function Clean-Sln { param($sln) MSBuild.exe $sln /target:Clean | Redirect-AccordingToRedirectionVariable } $global:Redirection = 'Console' Clean-Sln c:\temp\SO.sln $global:Redirection = 'TempFile' Clean-Sln c:\temp\Another.sln If I use 'Console', the cmdlet/function Redirect-AccordingToRedirectionVariable should output the msbuild messages with colors the same way as the output was not piped. In other words - it should leave the output as it is. If I use 'TempFile', Redirect-AccordingToRedirectionVariable will store the output in a temp file. Is it even possible? I guess it is not :| Or do you have any advice how to achieve the goal? Possible solution: if ($Redirection -eq 'Console) { MSBuild.exe $sln /target:Clean | Redirect-AccordingToRedirectionVariable } else { MSBuild.exe $sln /target:Clean | Out-File c:\temp.txt } But if you imagine there can be many many msbuild calls, it's not ideal. Don't be shy to tell me any new suggestion how to cope with it ;) Any background info about redirections/coloring/outpu is welcome as well. (The problem is not msbuild specific, the problem touches any application that writes colored output)

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  • How to implement DisplayMemberPath for my Wpf UserControl?

    - by Bevan
    I'm writing a WPF User Control for my application, wrapping a ListBox and a few other items. The ListBox has a new ItemTemplate that presents four pieces of information for each item in my list. I can hard code each of the four bindings to specific properties on my list items and they display fine. However, I want my UserControl to be a bit more flexible. On ListBox and ComboBox there is a property DisplayMemberPath (inherited from ItemsControl) that seems to "inject" the appropriate property binding into the standard ItemTemplate. How do I achieve the same result with my user control? I'd like to set up four new properties to allow configuration of the information displayed: public string LabelDisplayPath { get; set; } public string MetricDisplayPath { get; set; } public string TitleDisplayPath { get; set; } public string SubtitleDisplayPath { get; set; } Reviewing ItemsControl.DisplayMemberPath with Reflector seems to go down the rabbit hole, I haven't been able to fathom how it works. Also, if I'm completely off course - and there's another, more "WPF" technique that I should be using instead, please point me in that direction.

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  • Windows-Mobile Directshow: Specifying bitrate/quality of a WMV video capture

    - by Landstander
    Hi- I'm stumped on this, and I'm really hoping someone could point me in the right direction. I'm currently capturing video in Windows Mobile and encoding it using the WMV 9 DMO (CLSID_CWMV9EncMediaObject). That all works well enough, but the output video's bitrate is too high, resulting in a video file that's much too large for my needs. Ultimately, my goal is to mimic the video settings that Microsoft's Camera Capture Dialog outputs in the "messaging" quality mode (64kbps) from my C++ code. Currently, my code's outputting a WMV file with a bitrate of 352kbps. The only example I could find of specifying the capture bitrate with a WMV9 DMO was this. The idea in that code was basically to use a propertybag to write a bitrate to a property of the DMO. Update: In windows mobile, the closest codec property I can find that seems to equate to the bitrate is "g_wszWMVCVBRQuality". Microsoft's documentation of this property is extremely confusing to me: It basically seems to say that a higher number equates to a higher quality, but it gives absolutely no explanation of the specifics for each number. When I attempt to set this property to value like "1" via a propertybag for the WMV9 DMO, I run into a -2147467259 (unknown) error. To summarize: What is the basic strategy to specify the bitrate/quality of a video being captured via directshow (wmv9) on a windows mobile platform? I've heard (or wondered about) the following methods: Use the propertybag to change the encoder DMO's property that corresponds to bitrate/quality (currently failing) Create your own custom transcoder/encoder to specify it. This seems unnecessary since the WMV encoder works well enough- it's just at too high a bitrate. The VIDEOINFOHEADER has a bitrate property, but I suspect that specifying new settings here will do nothing to alter the actual encoding process since I wouldn't think file attributes would come into play until after the encoding. Any suggestions? PS: I would post specific source code, but at this point it may confuse more than it helps since I'm floundering so much on how to do this. At this point, I'm just trying to validate the general strategy. THANKS!

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  • How to use OSGi getServiceReference() right

    - by Jens
    Hello, I am new to OSGi and came across several examples about OSGi services. For example: import org.osgi.framework.*; import org.osgi.service.log.*; public class MyActivator implements BundleActivator { public void start(BundleContext context) throws Exception { ServiceReference logRef = context.getServiceReference(LogService.class.getName()); } } My question is, why do you use getServiceReference(LogService.class.getName()) instead of getServiceReference("LogService") If you use LogService.class.getName() you have to import the Interface. This also means that you have to import the package org.osgi.services.log in your MANIFEST.MF. Isn't that completely counterproductive if you want to reduce dependencies to push loose coupling? As far as I know one advantage of services is that the service consumer doesn't have to know the service publisher. But if you have to import one specific Interface you clearly have to know who's providing it. By only using a string like "LogService" you would not have to know that the Interface is provided by org.osgi.services.log.LogService. What am I missing here?

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  • Internal and External Bug-Tracking Setup

    - by devdude
    Most of you certainly use some kind of bugtracker. Maybe internally only, once a customer files a bug via email or phone you add a new ticket by yourself. Sometimes weekly project meetings can be great source of new tickets coming preferably in flavors of excel sheets that the PM on the other side of the table loves to maintain and chase after you. The more advanced (and transparent) version: Allow the customer to file (and see the progress of) his bugs directly into you bugtracker. Systems like JIRA allow you to use profiles to have certain access rights, etc. But now the question: The bug raised by a user not necessary translates into 1 bug in a specific module/method/EJB/class. The version of the (your) web application he uses does not translate into the version of the class that is causing the error. How you maintain the internal part of the ticket with all the nasty techy details and the same time the make-the-user-feel-good ticket (need more info, accepted, in progress,..) ? Creating 2 tickets for internal and external ? Link them ? Any smart recipes to share ?

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  • Unit Testing - Validation of ViewModel ASP.NET MVC 2

    - by dean nolan
    I am currently unit testing a service that adds users to a repository. I am using dependency injection to test using a fake repository. The repository has a method CreateUser(User user) which just adds it to the database or in this case a List of Users. The logic for the creation is in the UserServices class. The application has a form for creating a user that requires some properties such as name and address. This is an MVC 2 app and I will be using the new validation using data annotations. This makes me wonder about a few things: 1) Should I annotate a POCO object that will map to the database? Or should I create a specific View Model that has these annotations and pass this data to the UserServices class? 2)Should the UserServicesClass also check this data? Would I best be constructing a Usr out of the ViewModel and passing this into the Service as a parameter? 3) The actual unit testing would depend on 2), I either populate a User object and pass that in, or I pass a large list of strings to the method CreateUser. Writing this out I get a basic idea that I should probably annotate the view model only, pass in a user (constructed by the view model if the data is valid) and also just construct the user in the unit test also. Is this the best way to go?

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  • Structuremap and generic types

    - by James D
    Hi I have a situation which seems a bit different from others I've seen. For clarrification, this isn't the normal question eg; something like IAClass maps to AClass etc - that involves using basically a single concrete classes per interface. This involves having a single generic class, but I want to be able to load ALL possible usages of it. Eg - the main class is of public class MyClass<TDomainObject> : IMyClass<TDomainObject> where TDomainObject : DomainObject So example usages would be IMyClass<Person> p = new MyClass<Person>; IMyClass<Employer> p = new MyClass<Employer>; I.e. for all DomainObjects I would like to be able to load a MyClass< for. So you can see I don't use a specific class for each declaration, they all use the same one. How would I get this loaded into StructureMap?

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  • How do you determine subtype of an entity using Inheritance with Entity Framework 4?

    - by KallDrexx
    I am just starting to use the Entity Framework 4 for the first time ever. So far I am liking it but I am a bit confused on how to correctly do inheritance. I am doing a model-first approach, and I have my Person entity with two subtype entities, Employee and Client. EF is correctly using the table per type approach, however I can't seem to figure out how to determine what type of a Person a specific object is. For example, if I do something like var people = from p in entities.Person select p; return people.ToList<Person>(); In my list that I form from this, all I care about is the Id field so i don't want to actually query all the subtype tables (this is a webpage list with links, so all I need is the name and the Id, all in the Persons table). However, I want to form different lists using this one query, one for each type of person (so one list for Clients and another for Employees). The issue is if I have a Person entity, I can't see any way to determine if that entity is a Client or an Employee without querying the Client or Employee tables directly. How can I easily determine the subtype of an entity without performing a bunch of additional database queries?

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  • iPhone apps: Webapps or native?

    - by jpartogi
    Hi all, I am planning to create an iPhone apps version for our online webapps. I am still new to iPhone apps development so I don't know whether to choose iPhone native or a webapps that runs on iPhone browser. The requirement is actually pretty basic. The iPhone apps need to submit data and get data from the database that is also used by the webapps. User would have the same access to the webapps, only I want this specific to iPhone, as the user experience would be different using a webapps and iPhone apps. I am also interested to sell the application on Apple store. Based on your experience, what would be better for this kind of requirement, iPhone native or webapps? What are the drawbacks building a native iPhone apps and webapps that runs on iPhone browser? Also, am I only limited to Objective-C to build a native iPhone apps? Or is there any other framework for that? Please be gentle on me, I am not starting a flamewar.

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  • Annotation to make available generic type

    - by mdma
    Given an generic interface like interface DomainObjectDAO<T> { T newInstance(); add(T t); remove(T t); T findById(int id); // etc... } I'd like to create a subinterface that specifies the type parameter: interface CustomerDAO extends DomainObjectDAO<Customer> { // customer-specific queries - incidental. } The implementation needs to know the actual template parameter type, but of course type erasure means isn't available at runtime. Is there some annotation that I could include to declare the interface type? Something like @GenericParameter(Customer.class) interface CustomerDAO extends DomainObjectDAO<Customer> { } The implementation could then fetch this annotation from the interface and use it as a substitute for runtime generic type access. Some background: This interface is implemented using JDK dynamic proxies as outlined here. The non-generic version of this interface has been working well, but it would be nicer to use generics and not have to create a subinterface for each domain object type. The actual type is needed at runtime to implement the newInstance method, amongst others.

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  • Accounting System for Winforms / SQL Server applications

    - by Craig L
    If you were going to write a vertical market C# / WinForms / SQL Server application and needed an accounting "engine" for it, what software package would you chose ? By vertical market, I mean the application is intended to solve a particular set of business problems, not be a generic accounting application. Thus the value add of the program is the 70% of non-accounting related functionality present in the finished product. The 30% of accounting functionality is merely to enable the basic accounting needs of the business. I said all that to lead up to this: The accounting engine needs to be a royalty-free runtime license and not super expensive. I've found a couple C#/SQL Server accounting apps that can be had with source code and a royalty free run time for $150k+ and that would be fine for greenfield development funded by a large bankroll, but for smaller apps, that sort of capital outlay isn't feasible. Something along the lines of $5k to $15k for a royalty-free runtime would be more reasonable. Open-source would be even better. By accounting engine, I mean something that takes care of at a minimum: General Ledger Invoices Statements Accounts Receivable Payments / Credits Basically, an accounting engine should be something that lets the developer concentrate on the value added (industry specific business best practices / processes) part of the solution and not have to worry about how to implement the low level details of a double entry accounting system. Ideally, the accounting engine would be something that is licensed on a royalty free run-time basis. Suggestions, please ?

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  • Java/Spring: Why won't Spring use the validator object I have configured?

    - by GMK
    I'm writing a web app with Java & Spring 2.5.6 and using annotations for bean validation. I can get the basic annotation validation working fine, and Spring will even call a custom Validator declared with @Validator on the target bean. But it always instantiates a brand new Validator object to do it. This is bad because the new validator has none of the injected dependencies it needs to run, and so it throws a null pointer exception on validate. I need one of two things and I don't know how to do either. Convince Spring to use the validator I have already configured. Convince Spring to honor the @Autowired annotations when it creates the new validator. The validator has the @Component annotation, like this. @Component public class AccessCodeBeanValidator implements Validator { @Autowired private MessageSource messageSource; Spring finds the validator in the component scan, injects the autowired dependencies, but then ignores it and creates a new one at validation time. The only thing that I can do at the moment is add a validator reference into the controller for each validator object and use that ref directly, instead of relying on the bean validation framework to call the validator for me. It looks like this. // first validate via the annotations on the bean beanValidator.validate(accessCodeBean, result); // then validate using the specific validator class acbValidator.validate(accessCodeBean, result); if (result.hasErrors()) { If anyone knows how to convince spring to use the existing validator, instead of creating a new one, or how to make it do the autowiring when it creates a new one, I'd love to know.

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  • To (monkey)patch or not to (monkey)patch, that is the question

    - by gsakkis
    I was talking to a colleague about one rather unexpected/undesired behavior of some package we use. Although there is an easy fix (or at least workaround) on our end without any apparent side effect, he strongly suggested extending the relevant code by hard patching it and posting the patch upstream, hopefully to be accepted at some point in the future. In fact we maintain patches against specific versions of several packages that are applied automatically on each new build. The main argument is that this is the right thing to do, as opposed to an "ugly" workaround or a fragile monkey patch. On the other hand, I favor practicality over purity and my general rule of thumb is that "no patch" "monkey patch" "hard patch", at least for anything other than a (critical) bug fix. So I'm wondering if there is a consensus on when it's better to (hard) patch, monkey patch or just try to work around a third party package that doesn't do exactly what one would like. Does it have mainly to do with the reason for the patch (e.g. fixing a bug, modifying behavior, adding missing feature), the given package (size, complexity, maturity, developer responsiveness), something else or there are no general rules and one should decide on a case-by-case basis ?

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  • git branch naming best practices

    - by skiphoppy
    I've been using a local git repository interacting with my group's CVS repository for several months, now. I've made an almost neurotic number of branches, most of which have thankfully merged back into my trunk. But naming is starting to become an issue. If I have a task easily named with a simple label, but I accomplish it in three stages which each include their own branch and merge situation, then I can repeat the branch name each time, but that makes the history a little confusing. If I get more specific in the names, with a separate description for each stage, then the branch names start to get long and unwieldy. I did learn looking through old threads here that I could start naming branches with a / in the name, i.e., topic/task, or something like that. I may start doing that and seeing if it helps keep things better organized. What are some best practices for naming git branches? Edit: Nobody has actually suggested any naming conventions. I do delete branches when I'm done with them. I just happen to have several around due to management constantly adjusting my priorities. :) As an example of why I might need more than one branch on a task, suppose I need to commit the first discrete milestone in the task to the group's CVS repository. At that point, due to my imperfect interaction with CVS, I would perform that commit and then kill that branch. (I've seen too much weirdness interacting with CVS if I try to continue to use the same branch at that point.)

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  • Detecting ClearType-optimized fonts

    - by Josh Kelley
    Question: Is there a way to check if a given font is one of Microsoft's ClearType-optimized fonts? I guess I could simply hard-code the list of font names, since it's a relatively short list, but that seems a bit ugly. Would the font names be the same regardless of Windows' locale and language settings? Background: PuTTY looks really ugly with bold, ClearType-enabled, Consolas text. I decided to play around with the source and see if I could figure out the problem, and I think I tracked it down to the following (abbreviated) code: font_height = cfg.font.height; if (font_height > 0) { font_height = -MulDiv(font_height, GetDeviceCaps(hdc, LOGPIXELSY), 72); } } font_width = 0; #define f(i,c,w,u) \ fonts[i] = CreateFont (font_height, font_width, 0, 0, w, FALSE, u, FALSE, \ c, OUT_DEFAULT_PRECIS, \ CLIP_DEFAULT_PRECIS, FONT_QUALITY(cfg.font_quality), \ FIXED_PITCH | FF_DONTCARE, cfg.font.name) f(FONT_NORMAL, cfg.font.charset, fw_dontcare, FALSE); SelectObject(hdc, fonts[FONT_NORMAL]); GetTextMetrics(hdc, &tm); font_height = tm.tmHeight; font_width = tm.tmAveCharWidth; f(FONT_BOLD, cfg.font.charset, fw_bold, FALSE); The intent is to pick a bold font that fits the same dimensions as the normal font. I'm assuming that PuTTY's Consolas text looks ugly because, since Consolas is so heavily optimized to be layed out on specific pixel boundaries, trying to shoehorn it into arbitrary dimensions produces bad results. So it seems like an appropriate fix would be to detect ClearType-optimized fonts and try and create the bold versions of those fonts using the same width and height as the initial CreateFont call.

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  • seam iText integration libraries

    - by Joshua
    seam iText integration seems to use older version of iText jars, would it be possible to use the latest iText 5.0.2 specific jars as part of the maven dependencies. Has anyone done this before? http://repository.jboss.org/maven2/org/jboss/seam/jboss-seam-pdf/2.2.0.GA/jboss-seam-pdf-2.2.0.GA.pom http://repository.jboss.org/maven2/com/lowagie/itext/2.1.2/itext-2.1.2.pom The following dependency uses 2.1.2 version of iText, not sure how to make it use the latest version 5.0.2 of iText. <dependency> <groupId>org.jboss.seam</groupId> <artifactId>jboss-seam-pdf</artifactId> <version>${jboss-seam.version}</version> <exclusions> <exclusion> <groupId>org.jboss.seam</groupId> <artifactId>jboss-seam</artifactId> </exclusion> <exclusion> <groupId>org.jboss.seam</groupId> <artifactId>jboss-seam-ui</artifactId> </exclusion> </exclusions> </dependency>

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  • CATiledLayer blanking tiles before drawing contents

    - by Greg Plesur
    All, I'm having trouble getting behavior that I want from CATiledLayer. Is there a way that I can trigger the tiles to redraw without having the side-effect that their areas are cleared to white first? I've already subclassed CATiledLayer to set fadeDuration to return 0. To be more specific, here are the details of what I'm seeing and what I'm trying to achieve: I have a UIScrollView with a big content size...~12000x800. Its content view is a UIView backed by a CATiledLayer. The UIView is rendered with a lot of custom-drawn lines Everything works fine, but the contents of the UIView sometimes change. When that happens, I'd like to redraw the tiles as seamlessly as possible. When I use setNeedsDisplay on the view, the tiles redraw but they are first cleared to white and there's a fraction-of-a-second delay before the new content is drawn. I've already subclassed CATiledLayer so that fadeDuration is set to 0. The behavior that I want seems like it should be possible...when you zoom in on the scrollview and the content gets redrawn at a higher resolution, there's no blanking before the redraw; the new content is drawn right on top of the old one. That's what I'm looking for. Thanks; I appreciate your ideas. Update: Just to follow up - I realized that the tiles weren't being cleared to white before the redraw, they're being taken out entirely; the white that I was seeing is the color of the view that's beneath my CATiledLayer-backed view. As a quick hack/fix, I put a UIImageView beneath the UIScrollView, and before triggering a redraw of the CATiledLayer-backed view I render its visible section into the UIImageView and let it show. This smooths out the redraw significantly. If anyone has a better solution, like keeping the redraw-targeted tiles from going away before being redrawn in the first place, I'd still love to hear it.

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  • Server http://www.myopenid.com/server responds that the 'check_authentication' call is not valid

    - by viatropos
    I've been struggling with this for a few days now, haven't pinpointed the problem. I am trying to get OpenID to work in Rails 2.3 and Rails 3, using ruby-openid rack-openid open_id_authentication I am logging in using my viatropos.myopenid.com account, but it consistently returns this error: Server http://www.myopenid.com/server responds that the 'check_authentication' call is not valid What could that be from, it's not a very descriptive error... Does it have to do with something ruby-specific, or is this entirely on the OpenID protocol side of things? More specifically, I am using Authlogic and ActiveRecord, so could this be a problem with my User or UserSession models somehow? Or is it more to do with the header or request? In ruby response I'm getting (from puts inside ruby-openid) is: #<OpenID::Consumer::FailureResponse:0x25e282c @reference=nil, @endpoint=#<OpenID::OpenIDServiceEndpoint:0x2601984 @local_id="http://viatropos.myopenid.com/", @display_identifier=nil, @type_uris=["http://specs.openid.net/auth/2.0/signon", "http://openid.net/sreg/1.0", "http://openid.net/extensions/sreg/1.1", "http://schemas.openid.net/pape/policies/2007/06/phishing-resistant", "http://openid.net/srv/ax/1.0"], @used_yadis=true, @server_url="http://www.myopenid.com/server", @canonical_id=nil, @claimed_id="http://viatropos.myopenid.com/">, @message="Server http://www.myopenid.com/server responds that the 'check_authentication' call is not valid", @contact=nil> Any tips would be greatly appreciated. Thanks

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  • changing user permissions dynamically

    - by ephieste
    I am designing a system on SharePoint. There is a approval list for the items. The members can approve, reject and edit the items. One from approval list has to fill the "assigned to" field in the item while approving it. The user who is added to "assigned to" field should able to edit the content of the item after it is approved. So, how can I give the edit permission to the users after they are added assigned to field of a specific item? The situation is: approval list: A, B ,C (edit, view permission) users: x,y,z .... (no permission, view after approval) items: item1, item2, item3.... items are invisible. A approved the item1 and added X to "assigned to" field. It means This item is under X's responsibility. But X hasn't got edit permission. we can't give edit permission to X for every item. He should edit the items after he is written into the "assigned to" field. How can I create this workflow in SharePoint? Please urgent help needed.

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  • CSS Rotation & IE: absolute positioning seems to break IE

    - by user263900
    I'm trying to rotate a variety of text blocks so they are vertically oriented, and position them in very specific locations on a diagram which will be previewed and then printed. CSS rotates the text very nicely in IE, FF, even Opera. But when I try to position a rotated element, IE 7 & 8 (not worried about 6) breaks completely and the element stays in its original location. Any way around this? I really need to-the-pixel control of where these labels are located. HTML <div class="content rotate"> <div id="Div1" class="txtblock">Ardvark Avacado<br />Awkward</div> <div id="Div2" class="txtblock">Brownies<br />Bacteria Brussel Sprouts</div> </div> CSS div.content { position: relative; width: 300px; height: 300px; margin: 30px; border-top: black 4px solid; border-right: blue 4px solid; border-bottom: black 4px dashed; border-left: blue 4px dashed; } .rotate { -webkit-transform: rotate(-90deg); -moz-transform: rotate(-90deg); -o-transform: rotate(-90deg); filter: progid:DXImageTransform.Microsoft.BasicImage(rotation=3); } .txtblock { width: auto; position: absolute; } #Div1 { left:44px; top:70px; border:red 3px solid; } #Div2 { left:13px; top:170px; border:purple 3px solid; }

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  • Cron Job on Ubuntu Hardy Executing But Not Deleting Files As Expected

    - by Patrick McKenzie
    I have a bit of a pickle here and wonder if anyone can give me some pointers: I have a cron job which executes for a particular user daily and is supposed to sweep files in a particular directory. Technically, it is two jobs. I've turned on cron.log to verify they're actually executing, and they are: May 24 11:03:01 AppNameGoesHere /USR/SBIN/CRON[11257]: (mongrel_AppNameGoesHere) CMD (rm -rf /var/www/apps/AppNameGoesHere/current/public/ {popular,index,purchasing,purchasing-alternate,support,about-us,guarantee,screenshots}.htm{,l}) May 24 11:04:01 AppNameGoesHere /USR/SBIN/CRON[11260]: (mongrel_AppNameGoesHere) CMD (rm -rf /var/www/apps/AppNameGoesHere/current/public/ {stats,popular,bcf,articles,expenses}) I have removed the actual usernames and formatted it so that it is less ugly on StackOverflow. Now, my question: Despite the fact that I can see these deletions executing and apparently succeeding in the log, if I go to the specified directory, the files are still there. I initially suspected permission hijinx were going on, but I've verified that I can delete the files manually by su-ing into the mongrel_AppNameGoesHere user and issuing individual rm commands or by copy/pasting the cron job to the command line. Anything that I don't manually zap stays unzapped despite days of that cron job executing successfully. Any suggestions on to what might be happening? I was previously using Dapper Drake with these cron jobs in the /etc/crontab file directly, and when I upgraded to Hardy I moved them to user-specific crontabs (via sudo crontab -e - u mongrel_AppNameGoesHere), which was the point where they appear to have stopped working.)

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