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  • Why does the Java Collections Framework offer two different ways to sort?

    - by dvanaria
    If I have a list of elements I would like to sort, Java offers two ways to go about this. For example, lets say I have a list of Movie objects and I’d like to sort them by title. One way I could do this is by calling the one-argument version of the static java.util.Collections.sort( ) method with my movie list as the single argument. So I would call Collections.sort(myMovieList). In order for this to work, the Movie class would have to be declared to implement the java.lang.Comparable interface, and the required method compareTo( ) would have to be implemented inside this class. Another way to sort is by calling the two-argument version of the static java.util.Collections.sort( ) method with the movie list and a java.util.Comparator object as it’s arguments. I would call Collections.sort(myMovieList, titleComparator). In this case, the Movie class wouldn’t implement the Comparable interface. Instead, inside the main class that builds and maintains the movie list itself, I would create an inner class that implements the java.util.Comparator interface, and implement the one required method compare( ). Then I'd create an instance of this class and call the two-argument version of sort( ). The benefit of this second method is you can create an unlimited number of these inner class Comparators, so you can sort a list of objects in different ways. In the example above, you could have another Comparator to sort by the year a movie was made, for example. My question is, why bother to learn both ways to sort in Java, when the two-argument version of Collections.sort( ) does everything the first one-argument version does, but with the added benefit of being able to sort the list’s elements based on several different criteria? It would be one less thing to have to keep in your mind while coding. You’d have one basic mechanism of sorting lists in Java to know.

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  • Is there a way to automaticly call all versions of an inherited method?

    - by Eric
    I'm writing a plug-in for a 3D modeling program. I have a custom class that wraps instances of elements in the 3D model, and in turn derives it's properties from the element it wraps. When the element in the model changes I want my class(es) to update their properties based on the new geometry. In the simplified example below. I have classes AbsCurveBasd, Extrusion, and Shell which are all derived from one another. Each of these classes implement a RefreshFromBaseShape() method which updates specific properties based on the current baseShape the class is wrapping. I can call base.RefreshFromBaseShape() in each implementation of RefreshFromBaseShape() to ensure that all the properties are updated. But I'm wondering if there is a better way where I don't have to remember to do this in every implementation of RefershFromBaseShape()? For example because AbsCurveBased does not have a parameterless constructor the code wont even compile unless the constructors call the base class constructors. public abstract class AbsCurveBased { internal Curve baseShape; double Area{get;set;} public AbsCurveBased(Curve baseShape) { this.baseShape = baseShape; RefreshFromBaseShape(); } public virtual void RefreshFromBaseShape() { //sets the Area property from the baseShape } } public class Extrusion : AbsCurveBased { double Volume{get;set;} double Height{get;set;} public Extrusion(Curve baseShape):base(baseShape) { this.baseShape = baseShape; RefreshFromBaseShape(); } public override void RefreshFromBaseShape() { base.RefreshFromBaseShape(); //sets the Volume property based on the area and the height } } public class Shell : Extrusion { double ShellVolume{get;set;} double ShellThickness{get;set;} public Shell(Curve baseShape): base(baseShape) { this.baseShape = baseShape; RefreshFromBaseShape(); } public void RefreshFromBaseShape() { base.RefreshFromBaseShape(); //sets this Shell Volume from the Extrusion properties and ShellThickness property } }

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  • PHPUnit: Testing if a protected method was called

    - by Luiz Damim
    I´m trying to test if a protected method is called in a public interface. <?php abstract class SomeClassAbstract { abstract public foo(); public function doStuff() { $this->_protectedMethod(); } protected function _protectedMethod(); { // implementation is irrelevant } } <?php class MyTest extends PHPUnit_Framework_TestCase { public function testCalled() { $mock = $this->getMockForAbstractClass('SomeClass'); $mock->expects($this->once()) ->method('_protectedMethod'); $mock->doStuff(); } } I know it is called correctly, but PHPUnit says its never called. The same happens when I test the other way, when a method is never called: <?php abstract class AnotherClassAbstract { abstract public foo(); public function doAnotherStuff() { $this->_loadCache(); } protected function _loadCache(); { // implementation is irrelevant } } <?php class MyTest extends PHPUnit_Framework_TestCase { public function testCalled() { $mock = $this->getMockForAbstractClass('AnotherClass'); $mock->expects($this->once()) ->method('_loadCache'); $mock->doAnotherStuff(); } } The method is called but PHPUnit says that it is not. What I´m doing wrong? Edit I wasn´t declaring my methods with double colons, it was just for denoting that it was a public method (interface). Updated to full class/methods declarations. Edit 2 I should have said that I´m testing some method implementations in an abstract class (edited the code to reflect this). Since I can not instantiate the class, how can I test this? I´m thinking in creating an SomeClassSimple extending SomeClassAbstract and testing this one instead. Is it the right approach?

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  • What's wrong with this jQuery fading gallery code?

    - by Meep3D
    So I am creating a fading gallery and am a bit of a noob to javascript (but not to programming). I have no idea what is wrong though. Here's the function in question: /* */ function show_next () { // Hide current $('.s_gallery_images li.s_current').fadeTo(200, .2); $('.s_gallery_images li.s_current').css("border","1px green solid"); // if ($('.s_gallery_images li').hasClass ('.s_current')) { console.log ('Incrementing existing'); // Class already exists $('.s_current:first').removeClass('s_current').next().addClass('s_current'); // Was that the last one? if ($('.s_gallery_images li').hasClass ('.s_current')) { console.log ('Current found'); } else { // Class doesn't exist - add to first $('.s_gallery_images li:first').addClass ('.s_current'); console.log ('Wrapping'); } } else { console.log ('Adding new class'); // Class doesn't exist - add to first $('.s_gallery_images li:first').addClass ('.s_current'); } // Show new marked item $('.s_gallery_images li.s_current').fadeTo(200, .8); } The HTML is a very simple: <ul class="s_gallery_images"> <li><img src="imagename" alt="alt" /></li> <li><img src="imagename" alt="alt" /></li> <li><img src="imagename" alt="alt" /></li> </ul> And it displays the list and the images fine. I am using firebugs console.log for debugging, plus have a class set for s_current (bright border) but nothing happens at all. The firebug console log says: Adding New Class Incrementing Existing Current Found Incrementing Existing Current Found Incrementing Existing Current Found Incrementing Existing Current Found ... to infinity The function is called on a setInterval timer, and as far as I can tell it should be working (and I have done something similar before), but it just isn't happening :(

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  • Object Oriented Programming in AS3

    - by Jordan
    I'm building a game in as3 that has balls moving and bouncing off the walls. When the user clicks an explosion appears and any ball that hits that explosion explodes too. Any ball that then hits that explosion explodes and so on. My question is what would be the best class structure for the balls. I have a level system to control levels and such and I've already come up with working ways to code the balls. Here's what I've done. My first attempt was to create a class for Movement, Bounce, Explosion and finally Orb. These all extended each other in the order I just named them. I got it working but having Bounce extend Movement and Explosion extend Bounce, it just doesn't seem very object oriented because what if I wanted to add a box class that didn't move, but did explode? I would need a separate class for that explosion. My second attempt was to create Movement, Bounce and Explosion without extending anything. Instead I passed in a reference to the Orb class to each. Then the class stores that reference and does what it needs to do based on events that are dispatched by the Orb such as update, which was broadcast from Orb every enter frame. This would drive the movement and bounce and also the explosion when the time came. This attempt worked as well but it just doesn't seem right. I've also thought about using Interfaces but because they are more of an outline for classes, I feel like code reuse goes out the window as each class would need its own code for a specific task even if that task is exactly the same. I feel as if I'm searching for some form of multiple inheritance for classes that as3 does not support. Can someone explain to me a better way of doing what I'm attempting to do? Am I being to "Object Oriented" by having classed for Movement, Bounce, Explosion and Orb? Are Interfaces the way to go? Any feedback is appreciated!

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  • Partial Classes - are they bad design?

    - by dferraro
    Hello, I'm wondering why the 'partial class' concept even exists in .NET. I'm working on an application and we are reading a (actually very good) book relavant to the development platform we are implementing at work. In the book he provides a large code base /wrapper around the platform API and explains how he developed it as he teaches different topics about the platform development. Anyway, long story short - he uses partial classes, all over the place, as a way to fake multiple inheritence in C# (IMO). Why he didnt just split the classes up into multiple ones and use composition is beyond me. He will have 3 'partial class' files to make up his base class, each w/ 3-500 lines of code... And does this several times in his API. Do you find this justifiable? If it were me, I'd have followed the S.R.P. and created multiple classes to handle different required behaviors, then create a base class that has instances of these classes as members (e.g. composition). Why did MS even put partial class into the framework?? They removed the ability to expand/collapse all code at each scope level in C# (this was allowed in C++) because it was obviously just allowing bad habits - partial class is IMO the same thing. I guess my quetion is: Can you explain to me when there would be a legitimate reason to ever use a partial class? I do not mean this to be a rant / war thread. I'm honeslty looking to learn something here. Thanks

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  • jQuery tooltip: Trouble with remove()

    - by Rosarch
    I'm using a jQuery tooltip plugin. I have HTML like this: <li class="term ui-droppable"> <strong>Fall 2011</strong> <li class="course ui-draggable">Biological Statistics I<a class="remove-course-button" href="">[X]</a></li> <div class="term-meta-data"> <p class="total-credits too-few-credits">Total credits: 3</p> <p class="median-GPA low-GPA">Median Historical GPA: 2.00</p> </div> </li> I want to remove the .course element. So, I attach a click handler to the <a>: function _addDeleteButton(course, term) { var delete_button = $('<a href="" class="remove-course-button" title="Remove this course">[X]</a>'); course.append(delete_button); $(delete_button).click(function() { course.remove(); return false; }).tooltip(); } This all works fine, in terms of attaching the click handler. However, when course.remove() is called, Firebug reports an error in tooltip.js: Line 282 tsettings is null if ((!IE || !$.fn.bgiframe) && tsettings.fade) { What am I doing wrong? If the link has a tooltip attached, do I need to remove it specially? UPDATE: Removing .tooltip() solve the problem. I'd like to keep it in, but that makes me suspect that my use of .tooltip() is incorrect here.

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  • Apply the REL attibute automatically to posts using jQuery

    - by Couto
    Edited: I mean grouping as giving the same REL attibute to all IMGs in the same post, but each post has different REL as the example at the end of this question. So, I need to do the following: <div id="Blog1" class="widget Blog"> <div class="blog-posts hfeed"> <div class="post hentry uncustomized-post-template"> <a name="8829400899632947948"/> <div class="post-body entry-content"> <div id="8829400899632947948"> <div class="separator"> <a imageanchor="1" href="/images/outta.png"> <img src="/images/outta.png"/></a></div></div> <div style="clear: both;"/> </div> <div class="post-footer"> </div></div></div></div> I'm using jQuery and Colorbox. The first two DIVs are posts containers. I need to group the IMGs in each <div class="post hentry uncustomized-post-template"> using the REL attribute, like: 1 - Post 1.1 - IMG - REL="group0" 1.2 - IMG - REL="group0" 1.3 - IMG - REL="group0" 1.4 - IMG - REL="group0" 2 - Post 2.1 - IMG - REL="group1" 3 - Post 3.1 - IMG - REL="group2" 3.2 - IMG - REL="group2" I've tryied HAS, PARENT > CHILDREN and CHILDREN() from jQuery and REL: from Colorbox, but it seems I'm lacking somewhere in logic. Could someone help me?

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  • Declare module name of classes for logging

    - by Space_C0wb0y
    I currently am adding some features to our logging-library. One of these is the possibility to declare a module-name for a class that automatically gets preprended to any log-messages writing from within that class. However, if no module-name is provided, nothing is prepended. Currently I am using a trait-class that has a static function that returns the name. template< class T > struct ModuleNameTrait { static std::string Value() { return ""; } }; template< > struct ModuleNameTrait< Foo > { static std::string Value() { return "Foo"; } }; This class can be defined using a helper-macro. The drawback is, that the module-name has to be declared outside of the class. I would like this to be possible within the class. Also, I want to be able to remove all logging-code using a preprocessor directive. I know that using SFINAE one can check if a template argument has a certain member, but since other people, that are not as friendly with templates as I am, will have to maintain the code, I am looking for a much simpler solution. If there is none, I will stick with the traits approach. Thanks in advance!

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  • jquery toggle on hover for multiple divs

    - by Oterox
    I have some divs with identical structure and i want to toggle when the mouse hovers the div so a hides and b shows: <ul class="tweets"> <li> <div class="a"> <p>show a</p> </div> <div class="b"> <p>show b</p> </div> </li> <li> <div class="a"> <p>show a</p> </div> <div class="b"> <p>show b</p> </div> </li> <li> <div class="a"> <p>show a</p> </div> <div class="b"> <p>show b</p> </div> </li> </ul> This is the jquery i'm using: $(document).ready(function(){ var tweet = $("ul.tweets .a"); tweet.hover(function(){ $('.a').toggle(); $('.b').toggle(); }); }); But this toggles ALL the divs and i only need to toggle one.I should use $(this) but i don't know how.How could i make this work? The fiddle is here

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  • What is the best way to use Guice and JMock together?

    - by Yishai
    I have started using Guice to do some dependency injection on a project, primarily because I need to inject mocks (using JMock currently) a layer away from the unit test, which makes manual injection very awkward. My question is what is the best approach for introducing a mock? What I currently have is to make a new module in the unit test that satisfies the dependencies and bind them with a provider that looks like this: public class JMockProvider<T> implements Provider<T> { private T mock; public JMockProvider(T mock) { this.mock = mock; } public T get() { return mock; } } Passing the mock in the constructor, so a JMock setup might look like this: final CommunicationQueue queue = context.mock(CommunicationQueue.class); final TransactionRollBack trans = context.mock(TransactionRollBack.class); Injector injector = Guice.createInjector(new AbstractModule() { @Override protected void configure() { bind(CommunicationQueue.class).toProvider(new JMockProvider<QuickBooksCommunicationQueue>(queue)); bind(TransactionRollBack.class).toProvider(new JMockProvider<TransactionRollBack>(trans)); } }); context.checking(new Expectations() {{ oneOf(queue).retrieve(with(any(int.class))); will(returnValue(null)); never(trans); }}); injector.getInstance(RunResponse.class).processResponseImpl(-1); Is there a better way? I know that AtUnit attempts to address this problem, although I'm missing how it auto-magically injects a mock that was created locally like the above, but I'm looking for either a compelling reason why AtUnit is the right answer here (other than its ability to change DI and mocking frameworks around without changing tests) or if there is a better solution to doing it by hand.

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  • Potential g++ template bug?

    - by Evan Teran
    I've encountered some code which I think should compile, but doesn't. So I'm hoping some of the local standards experts here at SO can help :-). I basically have some code which resembles this: #include <iostream> template <class T = int> class A { public: class U { }; public: U f() const { return U(); } }; // test either the work around or the code I want... #ifndef USE_FIX template <class T> bool operator==(const typename A<T>::U &x, int y) { return true; } #else typedef A<int> AI; bool operator==(const AI::U &x, int y) { return true; } #endif int main() { A<int> a; std::cout << (a.f() == 1) << std::endl; } So, to describe what is going on here. I have a class template (A) which has an internal class (U) and at least one member function which can return an instance of that internal class (f()). Then I am attempting to create an operator== function which compares this internal type to some other type (in this case an int, but it doesn't seem to matter). When USE_FIX is not defined I get the following error: test.cc: In function 'int main()': test.cc:27:25: error: no match for 'operator==' in 'a.A<T>::f [with T = int]() == 1' Which seems odd, because I am clearly (I think) defining a templated operator== which should cover this, in fact if I just do a little of the work for the compiler (enable USE_FIX), then I no longer get an error. Unfortunately, the "fix" doesn't work generically, only for a specific instantiation of the template. Is this supposed to work as I expected? Or is this simply not allowed? BTW: if it matters I am using gcc 4.5.2.

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  • Am I abusing Policies?

    - by pmr
    I find myself using policies a lot in my code and usually I'm very happy with that. But from time to time I find myself confronted with using that pattern in situations where the Policies are selected and runtime and I have developed habbits to work around such situations. Usually I start with something like that: class DrawArrays { protected: void sendDraw() const; }; class DrawElements { protected: void sendDraw() const; }; template<class Policy> class Vertices : public Policy { using Policy::sendDraw(); public: void render() const; }; When the policy is picked at runtime I have different choices of working around the situation. Different code paths: if(drawElements) { Vertices<DrawElements> vertices; } else { Vertices<DrawArrays> vertices; } Inheritance and virtual calls: class PureVertices { public: void render()=0; }; template<class Policy> class Vertices : public PureVertices, public Policy { //.. }; Both solutions feel wrong to me. The first creates an umaintainable mess and the second introduces the overhead of virtual calls that I tried to avoid by using policies in the first place. Am I missing the proper solutions or do I use the wrong pattern to solve the problem?

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  • How to distribute the android reusable code in a package?

    - by Kaillash
    Hi, I have developed some reusable android component which is basically a class . This class has some resource dependencies e.g. some png drawables, some xml layouts etc. So this class referenced the auto-generated R file.I would like to distribute this code in a single package like jar file to other developers for use in their applications. I have read that the only possible solution is to distribute code together with all my resources, which others have to copy to their "res" folder (source). So I created a jar file having the class file (say MyClass which is in the package com.xyz.android.app) and resources and tried to use this in my new application. So I added the jar file to my new applications build path using add external jars option in eclipse and copied all the resources to my new application's res folder. (The activity class say MainActivity of my new application is in com.abc.myapplication package, just for the case if it may helpful) But when I run this new application there is java.lang.ClassCastException in the MyClass class. I tried to debug the application and then I found that in the MyClass class, there is "R cannot be resolved" problem. Then I changed MainActivity's package to com.xyz.android.app (which is not the way, other developers will be happy to do), But again the same problem. But When I just copy the source java file such that both MainActivity.java and MyClass.java are in com.xyz.android.app package then application runs fine. So if I need to distribute such that other users need not to bother these package naming things, how can I accomplish this? Please help !!

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  • Passing IDisposable objects through constructor chains

    - by Matt Enright
    I've got a small hierarchy of objects that in general gets constructed from data in a Stream, but for some particular subclasses, can be synthesized from a simpler argument list. In chaining the constructors from the subclasses, I'm running into an issue with ensuring the disposal of the synthesized stream that the base class constructor needs. Its not escaped me that the use of IDisposable objects this way is possibly just dirty pool (plz advise?) for reasons I've not considered, but, this issue aside, it seems fairly straightforward (and good encapsulation). Codes: abstract class Node { protected Node (Stream raw) { // calculate/generate some base class properties } } class FilesystemNode : Node { public FilesystemNode (FileStream fs) : base (fs) { // all good here; disposing of fs not our responsibility } } class CompositeNode : Node { public CompositeNode (IEnumerable some_stuff) : base (GenerateRaw (some_stuff)) { // rogue stream from GenerateRaw now loose in the wild! } static Stream GenerateRaw (IEnumerable some_stuff) { var content = new MemoryStream (); // molest elements of some_stuff into proper format, write to stream content.Seek (0, SeekOrigin.Begin); return content; } } I realize that not disposing of a MemoryStream is not exactly a world-stopping case of bad CLR citizenship, but it still gives me the heebie-jeebies (not to mention that I may not always be using a MemoryStream for other subtypes). It's not in scope, so I can't explicitly Dispose () it later in the constructor, and adding a using statement in GenerateRaw () is self-defeating since I need the stream returned. Is there a better way to do this? Preemptive strikes: yes, the properties calculated in the Node constructor should be part of the base class, and should not be calculated by (or accessible in) the subclasses I won't require that a stream be passed into CompositeNode (its format should be irrelevant to the caller) The previous iteration had the value calculation in the base class as a separate protected method, which I then just called at the end of each subtype constructor, moved the body of GenerateRaw () into a using statement in the body of the CompositeNode constructor. But the repetition of requiring that call for each constructor and not being able to guarantee that it be run for every subtype ever (a Node is not a Node, semantically, without these properties initialized) gave me heebie-jeebies far worse than the (potential) resource leak here does.

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  • Stuck on Object scope in Java

    - by ivor
    Hello, I'm working my way through an exercise to understand Java, and basically I need to merge the functionality of two classes into one app. I'm stuck on one area though - the referencing of objects across classes. What I have done is set up a gui in one class (test1), and this has a textfield in ie. chatLine = new JTextField(); in another class(test2), I was planning on leaving all the functionality in there and referencing the various gui elements set up in test1 - like this test1.chatLine I understand this level of referencing, I tested this by setting up a test method in the test2 class public static void testpass() { test1.testfield.setText("hello"); } I'm trying to understand how to implement the more complex functionality in test2 class though, specifically this existing code; test1.chatLine.addActionListener(new ActionAdapter() { public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent e) { String s = Game.chatLine.getText(); if (!s.equals("")) { appendToChatBox("OUTGOING: " + s + "\n"); Game.chatLine.selectAll(); // Send the string sendString(s); } } }); This is the bit I'm stuck on, if I should be able to do this - as it's failing on the compile, can I add the actionadapter stuff to the gui element thats sat in test1, but do this from test2 - I'm wondering if I'm trying to do something that's not possible. Hope this makes sense, I'm pretty confused over this - I'm trying to understand how the scope and referencing works. Ideally what i'm trying to achieve is one class that has all the main stuff in, the gui etc, then all the related functionality in the other class, and target the first class's gui elements with the results etc. Any thoughts greatly appreciated.

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  • Resolve php endless recursion issue

    - by Matt
    Hey all, I'm currently running into an endless recursion situation. I'm implementing a message service that calls various object methods.. it's quite similar to observer pattern.. Here's whats going on: Dispatcher.php class Dispatcher { ... public function message($name, $method) { // Find the object based on the name $object = $this->findObjectByName($name); // Slight psuedocode.. for ease of example if($this->not_initialized($object)) $object = new $object(); // This is where it locks up. } return $object->$method(); ... } class A { function __construct() { $Dispatcher->message("B", "getName"); } public function getName() { return "Class A"; } } class B { function __construct() { // Assume $Dispatcher is the classes $Dispatcher->message("A", "getName"); } public function getName() { return "Class B"; } } It locks up when neither object is initialized. It just goes back and forth from message each other and no one can be initialized. I'm looking for some kind of queue implementation that will make messages wait for each other.. One where the return values still get set. I'm looking to have as little boilerplate code in class A and class B as possible Any help would be immensely helpful.. Thanks! Matt Mueller

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  • Basic Question on storing variables c# for use in other classes

    - by Calibre2010
    Ok guys I basically have a class which takes in 3 strings through the parameter of one of its method signatures. I've then tried to map these 3 strings to global variables as a way to store them. However, when I try to call these global variables from another class after instantiating this class they display as null values. this is the class which gets the 3 strings through the method setDate, and the mapping.. public class DateLogic { public string year1; public string month1; public string day1; public DateLogic() { } public void setDate(string year, string month, string day) { year1 = year; month1 = month; day1 = day; // getDate(); } public string getDate() { return year1 + " " + month1 + " " + day1; } } After this I try call this class from here public static string TimeLine2(this HtmlHelper helper, string myString2) { DateLogic g = new DateLogic(); string sday = g.day1; string smonth = g.month1; string syr = g.year1; } I've been debugging and the values make it all the way to the global variables but when called from this class here it doesnt show them, just shows null. Is this cause I'm creating a brand new instance, how do i resolve this?

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  • django: How to make one form from multiple models containing foreignkeys

    - by Tim
    I am trying to make a form on one page that uses multiple models. The models reference each other. I am having trouble getting the form to validate because I cant figure out how to get the id of two of the models used in the form into the form to validate it. I used a hidden key in the template but I cant figure out how to make it work in the views My code is below: views: def the_view(request, a_id,): if request.method == 'POST': b_form= BForm(request.POST) c_form =CForm(request.POST) print "post" if b_form.is_valid() and c_form.is_valid(): print "valid" b_form.save() c_form.save() return HttpResponseRedirect(reverse('myproj.pro.views.this_page')) else: b_form= BForm() c_form = CForm() b_ide = B.objects.get(pk=request.b_id) id_of_a = A.objects.get(pk=a_id) return render_to_response('myproj/a/c.html', {'b_form':b_form, 'c_form':c_form, 'id_of_a':id_of_a, 'b_id':b_ide }) models class A(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=256, null=True, blank=True) classe = models.CharField(max_length=256, null=True, blank=True) def __str__(self): return self.name class B(models.Model): aid = models.ForeignKey(A, null=True, blank=True) number = models.IntegerField(max_length=1000) other_number = models.IntegerField(max_length=1000) class C(models.Model): bid = models.ForeignKey(B, null=False, blank=False) field_name = models.CharField(max_length=15) field_value = models.CharField(max_length=256, null=True, blank=True) forms from mappamundi.mappa.models import A, B, C class BForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = B exclude = ('aid',) class CForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = C exclude = ('bid',) B has a foreign key reference to A, C has a foreign key reference to B. Since the models are related, I want to have the forms for them on one page, 1 submit button. Since I need to fill out fields for the forms for B and C & I dont want to select the id of B from a drop down list, I need to somehow get the id of the B form into the form so it will validate. I have a hidden field in the template, I just need to figure how to do it in the views

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  • jQuery attribute question

    - by Nick Simone
    I'm trying to select a series of divs one at a time. I'm sure theres a better way to do this, but I gave them all unique rels and I'm using the rels to select them one at a time. I want to move them over the width of the div, then animate it dropping down the screen. What I have is: $(document).ready(function(){ var totalbricks = 7; var index = 2; $(".brick").animate({top:"600px"}); while(index < totalbricks) { var postion = 45*index; $(".brick[rel='+index+']").css('left', postion+'px'); $(".brick[rel='+index+']").animate({top:"600px"}); index++; } }); All the divs are in a container div. Jquery docs say, 'Variables can be used using the following syntax: [name='" +MyVar+ "']' What am I doing wrong? Here is the HTML that is being used by the jQuery <body> <div id="container"> <div id="canvas"> <div class="brick" rel="1"> </div> <div class="brick" rel="2"> </div> <div class="brick" rel="3"> </div> <div class="brick" rel="4"> </div> <div class="brick" rel="5"> </div> <div class="brick" rel="6"> </div> <div class="brick" rel="7"> </div> </div> </div> </body>

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  • jQuery UI selectable won't work with anything besides '#selectable'

    - by Ross Murphy
    I am trying to use 2 instances of the jquery selector UI on my site and it won't seem to work with anything besides '#selectable' as the ordered list id. Here is my code.. <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#selectable").selectable(); }); </script> <ol id="selectable"> <li class="ui-widget-content">Item 1</li> <li class="ui-widget-content">Item 2</li> <li class="ui-widget-content">Item 3</li> <li class="ui-widget-content">Item 4</li> <li class="ui-widget-content">Item 5</li> <li class="ui-widget-content">Item 6</li> <li class="ui-widget-content">Item 7</li> </ol> But if i try to use something other than selectable, it doesn't work.. anyone have similar issues?

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  • Encapsulate update method inside of object or have method which accepts an object to update

    - by Tom
    Hi, I actually have 2 questions related to each other: I have an object (class) called, say MyClass which holds data from my database. Currently I have a list of these objects ( List < MyClass ) that resides in a singleton in a "communal area". I feel it's easier to manage the data this way and I fail to see how passing a class around from object to object is beneficial over a singleton (I would be happy if someone can tell me why). Anyway, the data may change in the database from outside my program and so I have to update the data every so often. To update the list of the MyClass I have a method called say, Update, written in another class which accepts a list of MyClass. This updates all the instances of MyClass in the list. However would it be better instead to encapulate the Update() method inside the MyClass object, so instead I would say foreach(MyClass obj in MyClassList) { obj.update(); } What is a better implementation and why? The update method requires a XML reader. I have written an XML reader class which is basically a wrapper over the standard XML reader the language natively provides which provides application specific data collection. Should the XML reader class be in anyway in the "inheritance path" of the MyClass object - the MyClass objects inherits from the XML reader because it uses a few methods. I can't see why it should. I don't like the idea of declaring an instance of the XML Reader class inside of MyClass and an MyClass object is meant to be a simple "record" from the database and I feel giving it loads of methods, other object instances is a bit messy. Perhaps my XML reader class should be static but C#'s native XMLReader isn't static.? Any comments would be greatly appreciated Thanks Thomas

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  • Delete element from Set

    - by Blitzkr1eg
    Hi. I have 2 classes Tema(Homework) and Disciplina (course), where a Course has a Set of homeworks. In Hibernate i have mapped this to a one-to-many associations like this: <class name="model.Disciplina" table="devgar_scoala.discipline" > <id name="id" > <generator class="increment"/> </id> <set name="listaTeme" table="devgar_scoala.teme"> <key column="Discipline_id" not-null="true" ></key> <one-to-many class="model.Tema" ></one-to-many> </set> </class> <class name="model.Tema" table="devgar_scoala.teme" > <id name="id"> <generator class="increment" /> </id> <property name="titlu" type="string" /> <property name="cerinta" type="binary"> <column name="cerinta" sql-type="blob" /> </property> </class> The problem is that it will add (insert rows in the table 'Teme') but it won't delete any rows and i get no exceptions thrown. Im using the merge() method.

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  • Change classloader

    - by Chris
    I'm trying to switch the class loader at runtime: public class Test { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { final InjectingClassLoader classLoader = new InjectingClassLoader(); Thread.currentThread().setContextClassLoader(classLoader); Thread thread = new Thread("test") { public void run() { System.out.println("running..."); // approach 1 ClassLoader cl = TestProxy.class.getClassLoader(); try { Class c = classLoader.loadClass("classloader.TestProxy"); Object o = c.newInstance(); c.getMethod("test", new Class[] {}).invoke(o); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } // approach 2 new TestProxy().test(); }; }; thread.setContextClassLoader(classLoader); thread.start(); } } and: public class TestProxy { public void test() { ClassLoader tcl = Thread.currentThread().getContextClassLoader(); ClassLoader ccl = ClassToLoad.class.getClassLoader(); ClassToLoad classToLoad = new ClassToLoad(); } } (it is not relevant what the InjectingClassLoader is) I'd like to make the result of "approach 1" and "approach 2" exactly same, but it looks like thread.setContextClassLoader(classLoader) does nothing and the "approach 2" always uses the system classloader (can be determined by comparing tcl and ccl variables while debugging). Is it possible to make all classes loaded by new thread use given classloader?

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  • Need help to make link active with change background-position onClick

    - by Erik
    I can't figure out how to make my image links change background-position onClick on ACTIVE. Nothing works: .active { background-position-y: -96px 0px; } <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { //Default Action $(".tab_content").hide(); //Hide all content $("ul.tabs li:first").addClass("active").show(); //Activate first tab $(".tab_content:first").show(); //Show first tab content //On Click Event $("ul.tabs li").click(function() { $("ul.tabs li").removeClass("active"); $(this).addClass("active"); $(".tab_content").hide(); var activeTab = $(this).find("a").attr("href"); $(activeTab).fadeIn(); return false; }); }); </script> <ul class="tabs"> <li><a class="a1" href="#tab1"></a></li> <li><a class="a22" href="#tab22"></a></li> <li><a class="a23" href="#tab23"></a></li> <li><a class="a24" href="#tab24"></a></li> <li><a class="a25" href="#tab25"></a></li> <li><a class="a26" href="#tab26"></a></li> </ul>

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