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  • How to deal with "partial" dates (2010-00-00) from MySQL in Django?

    - by Etienne
    In one of my Django projects that use MySQL as the database, I need to have a date fields that accept also "partial" dates like only year (YYYY) and year and month (YYYY-MM) plus normal date (YYYY-MM-DD). The date field in MySQL can deal with that by accepting 00 for the month and the day. So 2010-00-00 is valid in MySQL and it represent 2010. Same thing for 2010-05-00 that represent May 2010. So I started to create a PartialDateField to support this feature. But I hit a wall because, by default, and Django use the default, MySQLdb, the python driver to MySQL, return a datetime.date object for a date field AND datetime.date() support only real date. So it's possible to modify the converter for the date field used by MySQLdb and return only a string in this format 'YYYY-MM-DD'. Unfortunately the converter use by MySQLdb is set at the connection level so it's use for all MySQL date fields. But Django DateField rely on the fact that the database return a datetime.date object, so if I change the converter to return a string, Django is not happy at all. Someone have an idea or advice to solve this problem? How to create a PartialDateField in Django ? EDIT Also I should add that I already thought of 2 solutions, create 3 integer fields for year, month and day (as mention by Alison R.) or use a varchar field to keep date as string in this format YYYY-MM-DD. But in both solutions, if I'm not wrong, I will loose the special properties of a date field like doing query of this kind on them: Get all entries after this date. I can probably re-implement this functionality on the client side but that will not be a valid solution in my case because the database can be query from other systems (mysql client, MS Access, etc.)

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  • Java: Implement own message queue (threadsafe)

    - by derMax
    The task is to implement my own messagequeue that is thread safe. My approach: public class MessageQueue { /** * Number of strings (messages) that can be stored in the queue. */ private int capacity; /** * The queue itself, all incoming messages are stored in here. */ private Vector<String> queue = new Vector<String>(capacity); /** * Constructor, initializes the queue. * * @param capacity The number of messages allowed in the queue. */ public MessageQueue(int capacity) { this.capacity = capacity; } /** * Adds a new message to the queue. If the queue is full, it waits until a message is released. * * @param message */ public synchronized void send(String message) { //TODO check } /** * Receives a new message and removes it from the queue. * * @return */ public synchronized String receive() { //TODO check return "0"; } } If the queue is empty and I call remove(), I want to call wait() so that another thread can use the send() method. Respectively, I have to call notifyAll() after every iteration. Question: Is that possible? I mean does it work that when I say wait() in one method of an object, that I can then execute another method of the same object? And another question: Does that seem to be clever?

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  • Error while updating Database record with Entity Framework on ASP.NET MVC Page

    - by Rupa
    Hi I have an ASP.NET Page that updates registered User Address Details for a selected record. Below is the Update method that i am calling from Controller. When i am calling ApplyPropertyChanges method, I am getting the below error. Did anyone run into the same error while updating the record with Entity Framework. Appreciate your responses. Error Message: The existing object in the ObjectContext is in the Added state. Changes can only be applied when the existing object is in an unchanged or modified state. My Update Method Code: [HttpPost] public bool UpdateAddressDetail([Bind(Prefix = "RegUser")] AddressDetail regUserAddress, FormCollection formData) { regUserAddress.AD_Id = 3; regUserAddress.LastUpdated = HttpContext.User.Identity.Name; regUserAddress.UpdatedOn = DateTime.Now; regUserAddress.AddressType = ((AddressDetail)Session["CurrentAddress"]).AddressType ?? "Primary"; regUserAddress.Phone = ((AddressDetail)Session["CurrentAddress"]).Phone; regUserAddress.Country = ((AddressDetail)Session["CurrentAddress"]).AddressType ?? "USA"; miEntity.ApplyPropertyChanges(regUserAddress.EntityKey.EntitySetName, regUserAddress); miEntity.SaveChanges(); return true; }

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  • NHibernate, legacy database, foreign keys that aren't

    - by Joe
    The project I'm working on has a legacy database with lots of information in it that's used to alter application behavior. Basically I'm stuck with something that I have to be super careful about changing. Onto my problem. In this database is a table and in this table is a column. This column contains integers and most of the pre-existing data have a value of zero for this column. The problem is that this column is in fact a foreign key reference to another entity, it was just never defined as such in the database schema. Now in my new code I defined my Fluent-NHibernate mapping to treat this column as a Reference so that I don't have to deal with entity id's directly in my code. This works fine until I come across an entity that has a value of 0 in this column. NHibernate thinks that a value of 0 is a valid reference. When my code tries to use that referenced object I get an ObjectNotFoundException as obviously there is no object in my database with an id of 0. How can I, either through mapping or some kind of convention (I'm using Fluent-nhibernate), get NHibernate to treat id's that are 0 the same as if it was NULL?

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  • Why overload true and false instead of defining bool operator?

    - by Joe Enos
    I've been reading about overloading true and false in C#, and I think I understand the basic difference between this and defining a bool operator. The example I see around is something like: public static bool operator true(Foo foo) { return (foo.PropA > 0); } public static bool operator false(Foo foo) { return (foo.PropA <= 0); } To me, this is the same as saying: public static implicit operator bool(Foo foo) { return (foo.PropA > 0); } The difference, as far as I can tell, is that by defining true and false separately, you can have an object that is both true and false, or neither true nor false: public static bool operator true(Foo foo) { return true; } public static bool operator false(Foo foo) { return true; } //or public static bool operator true(Foo foo) { return false; } public static bool operator false(Foo foo) { return false; } I'm sure there's a reason this is allowed, but I just can't think of what it is. To me, if you want an object to be able to be converted to true or false, a single bool operator makes the most sense. Can anyone give me a scenario where it makes sense to do it the other way? Thanks

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  • Quartz.Net scheduler works locally but not on remote host

    - by Glinkot
    Hi. I have a timed quartz.net job working fine on my dev machine, but once deployed to a remote server it is not triggering. I believe the job is scheduled ok, because if I postback, it tells me the job already exists (I normally check for postback however). The email code definitely works, as the 'button1_click' event sends emails successfully. I understand I have full or medium trust on the remove server. My host says they don't apply restrictions that they know of which would affect it. Any other things I need to do to get it running? using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using Quartz; using Quartz.Impl; using Quartz.Core; using Aspose.Network.Mail; using Aspose.Network; using Aspose.Network.Mime; using System.Text; namespace QuartzTestASP { public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!Page.IsPostBack) { ISchedulerFactory schedFact = new StdSchedulerFactory(); IScheduler sched = schedFact.GetScheduler(); JobDetail jobDetail = new JobDetail("testJob2", null, typeof(testJob)); //Trigger trigger = TriggerUtils.MakeMinutelyTrigger(1, 3); Trigger trigger = TriggerUtils.MakeSecondlyTrigger(10, 5); trigger.StartTimeUtc = DateTime.UtcNow; trigger.Name = "TriggertheTest"; sched.Start(); sched.ScheduleJob(jobDetail, trigger); } } protected void Button1_Click1(object sender, EventArgs e) { myutil.sendEmail(); } } class testJob : IStatefulJob { public testJob() { } public void Execute(JobExecutionContext context) { myutil.sendEmail(); } } public static class myutil { public static void sendEmail() { // tested code lives here and works fine when called from elsewhere } } }

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  • Separating columnName and Value in C#

    - by KungfuPanda
    hi, I have a employee object as shown below class emp { public int EmpID { get; set; } public string EmpName { get; set; } public int deptID { get; set; } } I need to create a mapping either in this class or a different class to map the properties with column name of my SQL for eg. EmpdID="employeeID" EmpName="EmployeeName" deptID="DepartmentID" When from my asp.net page when I create the employee class and pass it to a function: for eg: emp e=new emp(); e.EmpID=1; e.EmpName="tommy"; e.deptID=10; When the emp object is populated and passed to the buildValues function it should return array of ComumnName(e.g.employeeID):Value(e.g.1),EmployeeName:tommy,DepartmentID:10) string[] values=buildValues(emp); public string[] buildValues(emp e) { string[] values=null; return values; } I have 2 questions: 1. Where do I specify the mappings 2. How do I use the mappings in my buildValues function shown above and build the values string array. I would really appreciate if you can help me with this

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  • Understanding Java Wait and Notify methods

    - by Maddy
    Hello all: I have a following program: import java.util.concurrent.ExecutorService; import java.util.concurrent.Executors; public class SimpleWaitNotify implements Runnable { final static Object obj = new Object(); static boolean value = true; public synchronized void flag() { System.out.println("Before Wait"); try { obj.wait(); } catch (InterruptedException e) { System.out.println("Thread interrupted"); } System.out.println("After Being Notified"); } public synchronized void unflag() { System.out.println("Before Notify All"); obj.notifyAll(); System.out.println("After Notify All Method Call"); } public void run() { if (value) { flag(); } else { unflag(); } } public static void main(String[] args) throws InterruptedException { ExecutorService pool = Executors.newFixedThreadPool(4); SimpleWaitNotify sWait = new SimpleWaitNotify(); pool.execute(sWait); SimpleWaitNotify.value = false; SimpleWaitNotify sNotify = new SimpleWaitNotify(); pool.execute(sNotify); pool.shutdown(); } } When I wait on obj, I get the following exception Exception in thread "pool-1-thread-1" java.lang.IllegalMonitorStateException: current thread not owner for each of the two threads. But if I use SimpleWaitNotify's monitor then the program execution is suspended. In other words, I think it suspends current execution thread and in turn the executor. Any help towards understanding what's going on would be duly appreciated. This is an area1 where the theory and javadoc seem straightforward, and since there aren't many examples, conceptually left a big gap in me.

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  • Inode to device information

    - by Methos
    I have 3 questions: I want to figure out if a file belongs to a USB device given the file inode. By looking in the latest kernel sources (2.6.33) on LXR, I think one can find that information by following pointers as follows: inode-super_block-block_device-backing_dev_info-device-device_driver(or device_type). However, the kernel that I am working with - 2.6.22.14 - does not have struct device pointer in the backing_dev_info object. So how can I figure out to which device does a file belong to from just the inode? I see that each of the inode, super_block and block_device contain an object of type 'dev_t'. But even after searching a lot, I could not find out how to convert 'dev_t' into struct device *. Is there any way to get that infomation? I tried to print device major and minor numbers using imajor(inode) and iminor(inode). However, for every file - belonging to hdd or usb - it always prints major and minor number as zero. Why would that be happening? I searched online for USB major numbers and I found out that major number for a USB is 180. However, on multiple machines, it showed me the major number associated with the USB dev as 253. $ ls -ltr /dev/usb* crw-rw---- 1 root root 253, 4 2010-04-13 17:20 /dev/usbmon4 crw-rw---- 1 root root 253, 3 2010-04-13 17:20 /dev/usbmon3 crw-rw---- 1 root root 253, 8 2010-04-13 17:20 /dev/usbmon8 crw-rw---- 1 root root 253, 5 2010-04-13 17:20 /dev/usbmon5 crw-rw---- 1 root root 253, 1 2010-04-13 17:20 /dev/usbmon1 crw-rw---- 1 root root 253, 7 2010-04-13 17:20 /dev/usbmon7 Why is that so?

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  • How to create a semi transparent window in WPF that allows mouse events to pass through

    - by RMK
    I am trying to create an effect similar to the Lights out /lights dim feature in Adobe Lightroom (http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=87hNd3vaENE) except in WPF. What I tried was to create another window over-top of my existing window, make it transparent and put a semi transparent Path geometry on it. But I want mouse events to be able to pass through this semi transparent window (on to windows below). This is a simplified version of what I have: <Window x:Class="LightsOut.MaskWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" AllowsTransparency="True" WindowStyle="None" ShowInTaskbar="False" Topmost="True" Background="Transparent"> <Grid> <Button HorizontalAlignment="Left" Height="20" Width="60">click</Button> <Path IsHitTestVisible="False" Stroke="Black" Fill="Black" Opacity="0.3"> <Path.Data> <RectangleGeometry Rect="0,0,1000,1000 "/> </Path.Data> </Path> </Grid> The window is fully transparent, so on places where the Path doesn't cover, mouse events pass right through. So far so good. The IsHitTestvisible is set to false on the path object. So mouse events will pass through it to other controls on the same form (ie you can click on the Button, because it is on the same form). But mouse events wont pass through the Path object onto windows that are below it. Any ideas? Or better ways to solve this problem? Thanks.

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  • Geolocation and jQuery - Can't post results using ajax

    - by etombaugh
    I'm currently working on a project to make a location-aware site. In essence, the user comes to the page, and their location is found using the HTML5 method and then using jQuery, the location is posted to a page which saves the location/address to a codeigniter session, but if they want to update their location, or change to a different location(IE they want to use their work address as the location instead of their present address), theres a jQuery colorbox that displays and lets them type in a custom address. Everything works flawlessly to get the initial location, but when I try and get the updated location saved, I receive the error "Uncaught TypeError: Object [object DOMWindow] has no method 'lat'" which then Google Chrome references as being an error not in jQuery, but in the file for Google Maps API. Any suggestions? jQuery('.inputsubmit').click(function() { //Takes values from user submitted fields and parses them into an address string var street = jQuery('.inputaddress').val(); var city = jQuery('.inputcity').val(); var state = jQuery('.inputstate').val(); var address = street +" "+ city +", " +state; geocoder = new google.maps.Geocoder(); var geocoderresult= geocoder.geocode({'address': address}, function(results, status) { if (status == google.maps.GeocoderStatus.OK) { var newlocation = results[0].geometry.location; //Posts coordinates and address string to a CodeIgniter function to update users session information jQuery.post("somepage", {location: newlocation, address: address},function(data) { alert("Data Loaded: " + data); }); } else { alert("Geocoder failed due to: " + status); } }); }); I've tried everything I can think of to get the post to work. All of the code works up till the point, and I've commented out the post line and everything works correctly. This is one of our main website's features, to provide instant and quick results based off of location. Thanks!

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  • wpf dispatcher/threading issue

    - by phm
    Hello I have a problem in my code and I am not able to fix it at all. private static void SetupImages(object o) { int i = (int)o; BitmapImage bi = GetBitmapObject(i); img = new System.Windows.Controls.Image();//declared as static outside img.Source = bi;//crash here img.Stretch = Stretch.Uniform; img.Margin = new Thickness(5, 5, 5, 5); } which is called like this: for (int i = 0; i < parameters.ListBitmaps.Count; i++) { ParameterizedThreadStart ts = new ParameterizedThreadStart(SetupImages); Thread t = new Thread(ts); t.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.STA); t.Start(i); t.Join(); //SetupImages(i); parameters.ListImageControls.Add(img); } It always crashes on this line: img.Source = bi; The error is: "An unhandled exception of type 'System.InvalidOperationException' occurred in WindowsBase.dll Additional information: The calling thread cannot access this object because a different thread owns it." Thanks

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  • Trying to insert a row using stored procedured with a parameter binded to an expression.

    - by Arvind Singh
    Environment: asp.net 3.5 (C# and VB) , Ms-sql server 2005 express Tables Table:tableUser ID (primary key) username Table:userSchedule ID (primary key) thecreator (foreign key = tableUser.ID) other fields I have created a procedure that accepts a parameter username and gets the userid and inserts a row in Table:userSchedule Problem: Using stored procedure with datalist control to only fetch data from the database by passing the current username using statement below works fine protected void SqlDataSourceGetUserID_Selecting(object sender, SqlDataSourceSelectingEventArgs e) { e.Command.Parameters["@CurrentUserName"].Value = Context.User.Identity.Name; } But while inserting using DetailsView it shows error Procedure or function OASNewSchedule has too many arguments specified. I did use protected void SqlDataSourceCreateNewSchedule_Selecting(object sender, SqlDataSourceSelectingEventArgs e) { e.Command.Parameters["@CreatedBy"].Value = Context.User.Identity.Name; } DetailsView properties: autogen fields: off, default mode: insert, it shows all the fields that may not be expected by the procedure like ID (primary key) not required in procedure and CreatedBy (user id ) field . So I tried removing the 2 fields from detailsview and shows error Cannot insert the value NULL into column 'CreatedBy', table 'D:\OAS\OAS\APP_DATA\ASPNETDB.MDF.dbo.OASTest'; column does not allow nulls. INSERT fails. The statement has been terminated. For some reason parameters value is not being set. Can anybody bother to understand this and help?

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  • Firebug error causing code to fail in Sitecore when using IE8 to view the Content Editor

    - by iamdudley
    Hi, I have a Sitecore 6 CMS with a custom data provider to create child items on the fly based on items added to a field in the parent item. This was working okay (about a week ago was the last time I was working on this project), but now I am getting errors in the web client which are originating in the FirebugLite html and JS files. Basically, I click on a content item, the FirebugLite js fails, and then my code in my custom data provider fails to run. I would have thought any FirebugLite scripts would be disabled or ignored when running under IE8 (isn't FirebugLite a Firefox addin?) When I remove the FirebugLite folder from ..\sitecore\shell\Controls\Lib\ my code runs fine and I don't get the clientside errors. I'm not really sure what my question is. I guess it is should FirebugLite affect IE8? What am I missing out on if I remove FirebugLite from the Sitecore directory tree? I'm running WindowsXP SP3, VS2008. The errors I get are the following: Webpage error details User Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 5.1; Trident/4.0; .NET CLR 1.1.4322; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.0.4506.2152; .NET CLR 3.5.30729) Timestamp: Fri, 14 May 2010 06:42:04 UTC Message: Invalid argument. Line: 301 Char: 9 Code: 0 URI: http://xxxxxxx.com.au/sitecore/shell/controls/lib/FirebugLite/firebug.js Message: Object doesn't support this property or method Line: 21 Char: 1 Code: 0 URI: http://xxxxxxxx.com.au/sitecore/shell/controls/lib/FirebugLite/firebug.html Message: Invalid argument. Line: 301 Char: 9 Code: 0 URI: http://xxxxxxxx.com.au/sitecore/shell/controls/lib/FirebugLite/firebug.js Message: Object doesn't support this property or method Line: 21 Char: 1 Code: 0 URI: http://xxxxxxxx.com.au/sitecore/shell/controls/lib/FirebugLite/firebug.html Cheers, James.

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  • asp.net ajax + http module fails

    - by Sri Kumar
    Hi, I am trying my hands on asp.net+ajax+httpmodule. My Form <form id="LoginForm" runat="server"> <asp:ScriptManager ID="LoginScriptMgr" runat="server"></asp:ScriptManager> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="LoginPanel" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:Label ID="lblLoginHeader" Text="Login" runat="server"></asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="txtUserName" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:TextBox ID="txtPassword" runat="server" TextMode="Password"></asp:TextBox> <asp:Button ID="btnLogin" Text="Login" runat="server" OnClick="Login" /> <asp:Label ID="lblLoginStatus" runat="server" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </form> C# Code protected void Login(object sender, EventArgs e) { lblLoginStatus.Text = "Login Successful"; } Web.config <httpModules> <add name="TimeModule" type="MyWebPortal.App_Code.TimeModule,App_Code"/> </httpModules> HTTP Module public class TimeModule : IHttpModule { private HttpApplication oApps = null; public void Dispose() { } public void Init(System.Web.HttpApplication context) { oApps = context; context.PreSendRequestContent += new EventHandler (context_PreSendRequestContent); } void context_PreSendRequestContent(object sender, EventArgs e) { string message = "&lt;!-- This page is being processed at " + System.DateTime.Now.ToString() + " -->"; oApps.Context.Response.Output.Write(message); } } When i remove the TimeModule from Web.config my ajax works. If add the TimeModule then the label doesn't show the message "Login Successful". Removing the ajax panel and with httpmodule available the label shows the message. So, how ajax panel was related to httpmodules?

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  • Display subclass data in XCode Expression window

    - by Nick VanderPyle
    I'm debugging an iPhone application I've written using XCode 3.2 and I cannot view the relevant public properties of an object I pull from Core Data. When I watch the object in the Expressions window it only displays the data from the base NSManagedObject. I'd like to see the properties that are on the subclass, not the superclass. If it helps, here's some of the code I'm using. Settings is a subclass of NSManagedObject. I created it using XCode's built-in modeler. Declared like: @interface Settings : NSManagedObject { } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSNumber * hasNews; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString * logoUrl; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSNumber * hasPaymentGateway; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString * customerCode; ... In the interface of my controller I have: Settings *settings; I populate settings with: settings = (Settings *)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"Settings" inManagedObjectContext:UIAppManagedObjectContext()]; I then set the properties like: settings.hasNews = [NSNumber numberWithBool:TRUE]; I've tried casting settings as (Settings *) in the Expression window but that doesn't help. All I see are the properties to NSManagedObject. I'm using NSLog but would rather not.

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  • How to get the title and subtitle for a pin when we are implementing the MKAnnotation?

    - by wolverine
    I have implemented the MKAnnotation as below. I will put a lot of pins and the information for each of those pins are stored in an array. Each member of this array is an object whose properties will give the values for the title and subtitle of the pin. Each object corresponds to a pin. But how can I display these values for the pin when I click a pin?? @interface UserAnnotation : NSObject <MKAnnotation> { CLLocationCoordinate2D coordinate; NSString *title; NSString *subtitle; NSString *city; NSString *province; } @property (nonatomic, assign) CLLocationCoordinate2D coordinate; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *title; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *subtitle; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *city; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *province; -(id)initWithCoordinate:(CLLocationCoordinate2D)c; And .m is @implementation UserAnnotation @synthesize coordinate, title, subtitle, city, province; - (NSString *)title { return title; } - (NSString *)subtitle { return subtitle; } - (NSString *)city { return city; } - (NSString *)province { return province; } -(id)initWithCoordinate:(CLLocationCoordinate2D)c { coordinate=c; NSLog(@"%f,%f",c.latitude,c.longitude); return self; } @end

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  • Problem with UserControl with custom Dependency Property

    - by Mathias Koch
    Hi, I'm writing a user control with a dependency property for a search text called SearchText. It is a dependency property because I want to allow consumers of the control to use data binding. The user control contains a WPF TextBox where the user can enter the search text. I could use data binding to connect the SearchText dependency property of the user control with the Text dependency property of the TextBox, but this binding only fires when the text box looses input focus. What I want is SearchText to be updated after every change of Text. So I have added a TextChanged event handler to the user control where I set SearchText to the value of Text. My Problem is, the SearchText binding doesn't work, the source never gets updated. What am I doing wrong? Here's the relevant part of the user controls code-behind: public partial class UserControlSearchTextBox : UserControl { public string SearchText { get { return (string)GetValue(SearchTextProperty); } set { SetValue(SearchTextProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty SearchTextProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("SearchText", typeof(string), typeof(UserControlSearchTextBox), new UIPropertyMetadata("")); private void TextBox_TextChanged(object sender, TextChangedEventArgs e) { SearchText = ((TextBox)sender).Text; } ... } The window that contains an instance of the user control has its DataContext set to an object that has a property also called SearchText. <uc:UserControlSearchTextBox SearchText="{Binding SearchText}" /> The data context of the Window: public class DataSourceUserManual : DataSourceBase { private string _searchText; public string SearchText { get { return _searchText; } set { _searchText = value; ... OnPropertyChanged("SearchText"); } } } Unfortunately, this setter is not called when I type into the text box. Any ideas?

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  • Using Silverlight for Views in ASP.Net MVC - a bad idea?

    - by bplus
    I'm currently writing a small application for use internally at my office. I started out teaching myself some MVC (I've been a C# dev for 3 years). One of the main requirements is editable grids - I quickly realised that silverlight (i have zero silverlight experience) could be a big help in this. I've managed to create a proof of concept of getting MVC and silverlight to talk back an forth by combining these two techniques: Creating a Rest API using MVC MVC SilverLight I also got some help on stackoverflow: silverlight-grids-mvc-http-post Essentially all I'm doing is embedding a silver light object in a view. Serializing the Model data as JSON and passing it to silverlight(using intit params written into the response). The silverlight object can post data back to the controller as JSON. So far this seems like it could work quite well. However I am a bit concerned that I could be painting myself into a corner with this approach, as in I don't have much experience with either technology so I'm worried I'm going get hit with something further down the line that I won't be able to work around. Has anybody else tried doing this? Any advice would be much appreciated!

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  • What are the options for overriding Django's cascading delete behaviour?

    - by Tom
    Django models generally handle the ON DELETE CASCADE behaviour quite adequately (in a way that works on databases that don't support it natively.) However, I'm struggling to discover what is the best way to override this behaviour where it is not appropriate, in the following scenarios for example: ON DELETE RESTRICT (i.e. prevent deleting an object if it has child records) ON DELETE SET NULL (i.e. don't delete a child record, but set it's parent key to NULL instead to break the relationship) Update other related data when a record is deleted (e.g. deleting an uploaded image file) The following are the potential ways to achieve these that I am aware of: Override the model's delete() method. While this sort of works, it is sidestepped when the records are deleted via a QuerySet. Also, every model's delete() must be overridden to make sure Django's code is never called and super() can't be called as it may use a QuerySet to delete child objects. Use signals. This seems to be ideal as they are called when directly deleting the model or deleting via a QuerySet. However, there is no possibility to prevent a child object from being deleted so it is not usable to implement ON CASCADE RESTRICT or SET NULL. Use a database engine that handles this properly (what does Django do in this case?) Wait until Django supports it (and live with bugs until then...) It seems like the first option is the only viable one, but it's ugly, throws the baby out with the bath water, and risks missing something when a new model/relation is added. Am I missing something? Any recommendations?

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  • C# - Naming a value combined "getter/setter" method (WebForms & Binding)

    - by tyndall
    Looking for some help on some names for a project I'm currently working on. I don't have a compsci degree so I don't know what to call this. I have a method called TryToGetSetValue(Direction direction, object value, object valueOnFail) Then there would be a Direction enum public enum Direction { ModelToForm, FormToModel } Background This is a legacy ASP.NET application. The models, database, and mainframe are designed poorly. I can't put in MVP or MVC patterns yet (too much work). ASP.NET code is a ridiculous mess (partial pages, single-page design, 5x the normal amount of jQuery, everything is a jQuery UI dialog). I'm just trying to put in a bridge so then I can do more refactoring over the next year. I have ~200 fields that need to be set on a GET and written back on a POST. I trying not to x2 these 200 fields and have 400 lines of code to support. What would you call my method? enum? Is there so other form of binding that would be easy to use instead? I'm not a fan of the DetailsView or FormView built-ins of ASP.NET WebForms.

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  • xmlEncoder not writing in netBeans

    - by Greg
    Hi, I am trying to use the xmlEncoder to write to xml file in net-beans but it doesnt work. Here is the call to the writing function: dbManipulator.writeStudents(deps); where deps = new Hashtable<String, Department>(); dbManipulator = new DataBaseManipulator(); Department is an class-object I made, and here is writeStudents method which is located in the DataBaseManipulator class: public void writeStudents(Hashtable<Integer, Student> students) { XMLEncoder encoder = null; try { encoder = new XMLEncoder(new FileOutputStream(".\\test\\Students.xml")); } catch(Exception e){} encoder.writeObject(students); encoder.close(); }//end of function writeStudents() Any ideas why it isnt working? I tried changing the hashtable to vector but still the xml file looks like that after the writing: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <java version="1.6.0_18" class="java.beans.XMLDecoder"> <object class="java.util.Hashtable"/> </java> Thanks in advance, Greg

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  • Unexplained crashs with coregraphic

    - by Ziggy
    Hello there, i'm on this bug for a week now, and i can't solve it. I have some crash with coregraphic calls, it happen randomly (sometimes after 2 mn, or just at the start), but often at the same places in the code. I have a class that just wrap a CGContext, it have a CGContextRef as member. This Object is re-created each time DrawRect() is called, so the CGContextRef is always up-to-date. The draw calls came from the main thread, only After looking for this kind of error, it appear that it should be object Release related. Here is an example of an error : #0 0x90d8a7a7 in ___forwarding___ #1 0x90d8a8b2 in __forwarding_prep_0___ #2 0x90d0d0b6 in CFRetain #3 0x95e54a5d in CGColorRetain #4 0x95e5491d in CGGStateCreateCopy #5 0x95e5486d in CGGStackSave #6 0x95e54846 in CGContextSaveGState #7 0x00073500 in CAutoContextState::CAutoContextState at Context.cpp:47 the AutoContextSave() class look like this : class CAutoContextState { private: CGContextRef m_Hdc; public: CAutoContextState(const CGContextRef& Hdc) { m_Hdc = Hdc; CGContextSaveGState(m_Hdc); } virtual ~CAutoContextState() { CGContextRestoreGState(m_Hdc); } }; It crash at CGContextSaveGState(m_Hdc). Here is what i see into GDB: * -[Not A Type retain]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x16a148b0. When i type malloc-history on the address, i have this : 0: 0x954cf10c in malloc_zone_malloc 1: 0x90d0d201 in _CFRuntimeCreateInstance 2: 0x95e3fe88 in CGTypeCreateInstanceWithAllocator 3: 0x95e44297 in CGTypeCreateInstance 4: 0x95e58f57 in CGColorCreate 5: 0x71fdd in _ZN4Flux4Draw8CContext10DrawStringERKNS_7CStringEPKNS0_5CFontEPKNS0_6CBrushERKNS_5CRectENS0_12tagAlignmentESE_NS0_17tagStringTrimmingEfiPKf at /Volumes/Sources Mac/Flux/Sources/DotFlux/Projects/../Draw/CoreGraphic/Context.cpp:1029 Which point me at this line of code : f32 components[] = {pSolidBrush->GetColor().GetfRed(), pSolidBrush->GetColor().GetfGreen(), pSolidBrush->GetColor().GetfBlue(), pSolidBrush->GetColor().GetfAlpha()}; //{ 1.0, 0.0, 0.0, 0.8 }; CGColorRef TextColor = CGColorCreate(rgbColorSpace, components); Point this func : CGColorCreate(); Any help would be appreciated, i need to finish this task very soon, but i don't know how to resolve this :( Thanks.

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  • When to Store Temporary Values in Hidden Field vs. Session vs. Database?

    - by viatropos
    I am trying to build a simple OpenID login panel similar to how Stack Overflow's works. The goal is: User clicks OpenID/Oauth provider OpenID/Oauth stuff happens, we end up with the result (already made that) Then we want to confirm that the user wants to actually create a new account (vs. associating account with another OpenID account). In StackOverflow, they keep a hidden field on a form that looks like this: <form action="/users/openidconfirm" method="post"> <p>This is an OpenID we haven't seen on Stack Overflow before:</p> <p class="openid-identifier">https://me.yahoo.com/a/some-hash</p> <p>Do you want to associate this OpenID with your Stack Overflow account?</p> <div> <input type="hidden" name="fkey" value="9792ab2zza1q2a4ac414casdfa137eafba7"> <input type="hidden" name="s" value="c1a3q133-11fa-49r0-a7bz-da19849383218"> <input type="submit" value="Associate OpenID"> <input type="button" value="Cancel" onclick="window.location.href = 'http://stackoverflow.com/users/169992/viatropos?s=c1a3q133-11fa-49r0-a7bz-da19849383218'"> </div> </form> Initial question is, what are those hashes fkey and s? Not that I really care what these specific hashes are, but what it seems like is happening is they have processed the openid response and saved it to the DB in a temporary object or something, and from there they generate these keys, because they don't look like Oauth keys to me. Main situation is: after I have processed OpenID/Oauth responses, I don't yet want to create a new user/account until the user submits the "confirm" form. Should I store the keys and tokens temporarily in a "Confirm" form like this? Or is there a better way? It seems that using a temp database object would be a lot of work to manage properly. Thanks for the help. Lance

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  • sort outer array based on values in inner array, javascript

    - by ptrn
    I have an array with arrays in it, where I want to sort the outer arrays based on values in a specific column in the inner. I bet that sounded more than a bit confusing, so I'll skip straight to an example. Initial data: var data = [ [ "row_1-col1", "2-row_1-col2", "c-row_1-coln" ], [ "row_2-col1", "1-row_2-col2", "b-row_2-coln" ], [ "row_m-col1", "3-row_m-col2", "a-row_m-coln" ] ]; Sort data, based on column with index 1 data.sortFuncOfSomeKind(1); where the object then would look like this; var data = [ [ "row_2-col1", "1-row_2-col2", "b-row_2-coln" ], [ "row_1-col1", "2-row_1-col2", "c-row_1-coln" ], [ "row_m-col1", "3-row_m-col2", "a-row_m-coln" ] ]; Sort data, based on column with index 2 data.sortFuncOfSomeKind(2); where the object then would look like this; var data = [ [ "row_m-col1", "3-row_m-col2", "a-row_m-coln" ], [ "row_2-col1", "1-row_2-col2", "b-row_2-coln" ], [ "row_1-col1", "2-row_1-col2", "c-row_1-coln" ] ]; The big Q Is there an existing solution to this that you know of, or would I have to write one myself? If so, which would be the easiest sort algorithm to use? QuickSort? _L

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