Search Results

Search found 25022 results on 1001 pages for 'lua table'.

Page 557/1001 | < Previous Page | 553 554 555 556 557 558 559 560 561 562 563 564  | Next Page >

  • Best way to migrate export/import from SQL Server to oracle

    - by matao
    Hi guys! I'm faced with needing access for reporting to some data that lives in Oracle and other data that lives in a SQL Server 2000 database. For various reasons these live on different sides of a firewall. Now we're looking at doing an export/import from sql server to oracle and I'd like some advice on the best way to go about it... The procedure will need to be fully automated and run nightly, so that excludes using the SQL developer tools. I also can't make a live link between databases from our (oracle) side as the firewall is in the way. The data needs to be transformed in the process from a star schema to a de-normalised table ready for reporting. What I'm thinking about is writing a monster query for SQL Server (which I mostly have already) that will denormalise and read out the data from SQL Server into a flat file using the sql server equivalent of sqlplus as a scheduled task, dump into a Well Known Location, then on the oracle side have a cron job that copies down the file and loads it with sql loader and rebuilds indexes etc. This is all doable, but very manual. Is there one or a combination of FOSS or standard oracle/SQL Server tools that could automate this for me? the Irreducible complexity is the query on one side and building indexes on the other, but I would love to not have to write the CSV dumping detail or the SQL loader script, just say dump this view out to CSV on one side, and on the other truncate and insert into this table from CSV and not worry about mapping column names and all other arcane sqlldr voodoo... best practices? thoughts? comments? edit: I have about 50+ columns all of varying types and lengths in my dataset, which is why I'd prefer to not have to write out how to generate and map each single column...

    Read the article

  • MSBuild: automate collecting of db migration scripts?

    - by P Dub
    Summary of environment. Asp.net web application (source stored in svn) sqlserver database. (Database schema (tables/sprocs) stored in svn) db version is synced with web application assembly version. (stored in table 'CurrentVersion') CI hudson server that checks out web app from repo and runs custom msbuild file to publish/package app. My msbuild script updates the assembly version of the web app (Major.Minor.Revision.Build) on each build. The 'Revision' is set to the currently checked out svn revision and the 'Build' to the hudson build number (incremented on each automated build). This way i can match the app to a specific trunk revision also get other build stats from the hudson build number. I'd like to automate the collecting of migration scripts (updated sprocs etc) to add to the zip package. I guess by comparing the svn revision of the db that has yet to be deployed to, to the revision being deployed, i can find what db files have changed in the trunk since the last deployment to that database/environment. This could easily be achieved by manually calling the svn diff -r REVNO:REVNO command to list changed .sql files. These files could then manually have to be added to the package. It would be great if this could be automated. Firstly i'd imagine I'll have to write a custom task to check the version of the db that has yet to be deployed to. After that I'm quite unsure. Does anyone have any suggestion on how this would be achieved through an msbuild task either existing or custom? Finally I'll have to autogen a script to add to the package that updates the database version table so as to be in sync with the application.

    Read the article

  • Compound Primary Key in Hibernate using Annotations

    - by Rich
    Hi, I have a table which uses two columns to represent its primary key, a transaction id and then the sequence number. I tried what was recommended http://docs.jboss.org/hibernate/stable/annotations/reference/en/html_single/#entity-mapping in section 2.2.3.2.2, but when I used the Hibernate session to commit this Entity object, it leaves out the TXN_ID field in the insert statement and only includes the BA_SEQ field! What's going wrong? Here's the related code excerpt: @Id @Column(name="TXN_ID") private long txn_id; public long getTxnId(){return txn_id;} public void setTxnId(long t){this.txn_id=t;} @Id @Column(name="BA_SEQ") private int seq; public int getSeq(){return seq;} public void setSeq(int s){this.seq=s;} And here are some log statements to show what exactly happens to fail: In createKeepTxnId of DAO base class: about to commit Transaction :: txn_id->90625 seq->0 ...<Snip>... Hibernate: insert into TBL (BA_ACCT_TXN_ID, BA_AUTH_SRVC_TXN_ID, BILL_SRVC_ID, BA_BILL_SRVC_TXN_ID, BA_CAUSE_TXN_ID, BA_CHANNEL, CUSTOMER_ID, BA_MERCHANT_FREETEXT, MERCHANT_ID, MERCHANT_PARENT_ID, MERCHANT_ROOT_ID, BA_MERCHANT_TXN_ID, BA_PRICE, BA_PRICE_CRNCY, BA_PROP_REQS, BA_PROP_VALS, BA_REFERENCE, RESERVED_1, RESERVED_2, RESERVED_3, SRVC_PROD_ID, BA_STATUS, BA_TAX_NAME, BA_TAX_RATE, BA_TIMESTAMP, BA_SEQ) values (?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?) [WARN] util.JDBCExceptionReporter SQL Error: 1400, SQLState: 23000 [ERROR] util.JDBCExceptionReporter ORA-01400: cannot insert NULL into ("SCHEMA"."TBL"."TXN_ID") The important thing to note is I print out the entity object which has a txn_id set, and then the following insert into statement does not include TXN_ID in the listing and thus the NOT NULL table constraint rejects the query.

    Read the article

  • need help optimizing oracle query

    - by deming
    I need help in optimizing the following query. It is taking a long time to finish. It takes almost 213 seconds . because of some constraints, I can not add an index and have to live with existing ones. INSERT INTO temp_table_1 ( USER_ID, role_id, participant_code, status_id ) WITH A AS (SELECT USER_ID user_id,ROLE_ID, STATUS_ID,participant_code FROM USER_ROLE WHERE participant_code IS NOT NULL), --1 B AS (SELECT ROLE_ID FROM CMP_ROLE WHERE GROUP_ID = 3), C AS (SELECT USER_ID FROM USER) --2 SELECT USER_ID,ROLE_ID,PARTICIPANT_CODE,MAX(STATUS_ID) FROM A INNER JOIN B USING (ROLE_ID) INNER JOIN C USING (USER_ID) GROUP BY USER_ID,role_id,participant_code ; --1 = query when ran alone takes 100+ seconds --2 = query when ran alone takes 19 seconds DELETE temp_table_1 WHERE ROWID NOT IN ( SELECT a.ROWID FROM temp_table_1 a, USER_ROLE b WHERE a.status_id = b.status_id AND ( b.ACTIVE IN ( 1 ) OR ( b.ACTIVE IN ( 0,3 ) AND SYSDATE BETWEEN b.effective_from_date AND b.effective_to_date )) ); It seems like the person who wrote the query is trying to get everything into a temp table first and then deleting records from the temp table. whatever is left is the actual results. Can't it be done such a way that there is no need for the delete? We just get the results needed since that will save time?

    Read the article

  • SQL Grouping with multiple joins combining results incorrectly

    - by Matt
    Hi I'm having trouble with my query combining records when it shouldn't. I have two tables Authors and Publications, they are related by Publication ID in a many to many relationship. As each author can have many publications and each publication has many Authors. I want my query to return every publication for a set of authors and include the ID of each of the other authors that have contributed to the publication grouped into one field. (I am working with mySQL) I have tried to picture it graphically below Table: authors Table:publications AuthorID | PublicationID PublicationID | PublicationName 1 | 123 123 | A 1 | 456 456 | B 2 | 123 789 | C 2 | 789 3 | 123 3 | 456 I want my result set to be the following AuthorID | PublicationID | PublicationName | AllAuthors 1 | 123 | A | 1,2,3 1 | 456 | B | 1,3 2 | 123 | A | 1,2,3 2 | 789 | C | 2 3 | 123 | A | 1,2,3 3 | 456 | B | 1,3 This is my query Select Author1.AuthorID, Publications.PublicationID, Publications.PubName, GROUP_CONCAT(TRIM(Author2.AuthorID)ORDER BY Author2.AuthorID ASC)AS 'AuthorsAll' FROM Authors AS Author1 LEFT JOIN Authors AS Author2 ON Author1.PublicationID = Author2.PublicationID INNER JOIN Publications ON Author1.PublicationID = Publications.PublicationID WHERE Author1.AuthorID ="1" OR Author1.AuthorID ="2" OR Author1.AuthorID ="3" GROUP BY Author2.PublicationID But it returns the following instead AuthorID | PublicationID | PublicationName | AllAuthors 1 | 123 | A | 1,1,1,2,2,2,3,3,3 1 | 456 | B | 1,1,3,3 2 | 789 | C | 2 It does deliver the desired output when there is only one AuhorID in the where statement. I have not been able to figure it out, does anyone know where i'm going wrong?

    Read the article

  • LINQ to SQL Where Clause Optional Criteria

    - by RSolberg
    I am working with a LINQ to SQL query and have run into an issue where I have 4 optional fields to filter the data result on. By optional, I mean has the choice to enter a value or not. Specifically, a few text boxes that could have a value or have an empty string and a few drop down lists that could have had a value selected or maybe not... For example: using (TagsModelDataContext db = new TagsModelDataContext()) { var query = from tags in db.TagsHeaders where tags.CST.Equals(this.SelectedCust.CustCode.ToUpper()) && Utility.GetDate(DateTime.Parse(this.txtOrderDateFrom.Text)) <= tags.ORDDTE && Utility.GetDate(DateTime.Parse(this.txtOrderDateTo.Text)) >= tags.ORDDTE select tags; this.Results = query.ToADOTable(rec => new object[] { query }); } Now I need to add the following fields/filters, but only if they are supplied by the user. Product Number - Comes from another table that can be joined to TagsHeaders. PO Number - a field within the TagsHeaders table. Order Number - Similar to PO #, just different column. Product Status - If the user selected this from a drop down, need to apply selected value here. The query I already have is working great, but to complete the function, need to be able to add these 4 other items in the where clause, just don't know how!

    Read the article

  • CakePHP: Need help using saveField to update a fields in a belongsTo model

    - by afrisch
    I am trying to update a password into two different models/tables in CakePHP. I can update it fine in the parent model, but not the second model. Models: Users (hasOne GameProfile) PK=id Gameprofiles (belongsTo User) FK=user_id Here is a stripped down version of my function in the Users_controller.php: function updatepass() { if (!empty($this->data)) { $this->User->id = $this->Auth->user('id'); $this->User->saveField('sha1password', $this->Auth->password($this->data['User']['newpass'])); $this->User->Gameprofile->saveField('plainpassword', $this->data['User']['newpass']); } } When I execute the function, the users table is updated fine. But the gameprofile table is not updated, rather Cake does an insert. SQL Query Log: 1195 Query UPDATE `users` SET `sha1password` = 'e9443e9f5e1a07832aad1b2f84de1a666daf89b5' WHERE `users`.`id` = 30 1195 Query INSERT INTO `gameprofiles` (`plainpassword`) VALUES ('abc') Is there a way to get CakePHP to do an update using saveField on a model with a belongsTo attribute? I've tried various ways to refer to user_id before executing the second saveField, but just can't seem to find the winning combination. Any help is greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • sqlalchemy dynamic mapping

    - by adancu
    Hi, I have the following problem: I have the class: class Word(object): def __init__(self): self.id = None self.columns = {} def __str__(self): return "(%s, %s)" % (str(self.id), str(self.columns)) self.columns is a dict which will hold (columnName:columnValue) values. The name of the columns are known at runtime and they are loaded in a wordColumns list, for example wordColumns = ['english', 'korean', 'romanian'] wordTable = Table('word', metadata, Column('id', Integer, primary_key = True) ) for columnName in wordColumns: wordTable.append_column(Column(columnName, String(255), nullable = False)) I even created a explicit mapper properties to "force" the table columns to be mapped on word.columns[columnName], instead of word.columnName, I don't get any error on mapping, but it seems that doesn't work. mapperProperties = {} for column in wordColumns: mapperProperties['columns[\'%']' % column] = wordTable.columns[column] mapper(Word, wordTable, mapperProperties) When I load a word object, SQLAlchemy creates an object which has the word.columns['english'], word.columns['korean'] etc. properties instead of loading them into word.columns dict. So for each column, it creates a new property. Moreover word.columns dictionary doesn't even exists. The same way, when I try to persist a word, SQLAlchemy expects to find the column values in properties named like word.columns['english'] (string type) instead of the dictionary word.columns. I have to say that my experience with Python and SQLAlchemy is quite limited, maybe it isn't possible to do what I'm trying to do. Any help appreciated, Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Ruby-on-Rails: Multiple has_many :through possible?

    - by williamjones
    Is it possible to have multiple has_many :through relationships that pass through each other in Rails? I received the suggestion to do so as a solution for another question I posted, but have been unable to get it to work. Friends are a cyclic association through a join table. The goal is to create a has_many :through for friends_comments, so I can take a User and do something like user.friends_comments to get all comments made by his friends in a single query. class User has_many :friendships has_many :friends, :through => :friendships, :conditions => "status = #{Friendship::FULL}" has_many :comments has_many :friends_comments, :through => :friends, :source => :comments end class Friendship < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :friend, :class_name => "User", :foreign_key => "friend_id" end This looks great, and makes sense, but isn't working for me. This is the error I'm getting in relevant part when I try to access a user's friends_comments: ERROR: column users.user_id does not exist : SELECT "comments".* FROM "comments" INNER JOIN "users" ON "comments".user_id = "users".id WHERE (("users".user_id = 1) AND ((status = 2))) When I just enter user.friends, which works, this is the query it executes: : SELECT "users".* FROM "users" INNER JOIN "friendships" ON "users".id = "friendships".friend_id WHERE (("friendships".user_id = 1) AND ((status = 2))) So it seems like it's entirely forgetting about the original has_many through friendship relationship, and then is inappropriately trying to use the User class as a join table. Am I doing something wrong, or is this simply not possible?

    Read the article

  • Handling close-to-impossible collisions on should-be-unique values

    - by balpha
    There are many systems that depend on the uniqueness of some particular value. Anything that uses GUIDs comes to mind (eg. the Windows registry or other databases), but also things that create a hash from an object to identify it and thus need this hash to be unique. A hash table usually doesn't mind if two objects have the same hash because the hashing is just used to break down the objects into categories, so that on lookup, not all objects in the table, but only those objects in the same category (bucket) have to be compared for identity to the searched object. Other implementations however (seem to) depend on the uniqueness. My example (that's what lead me to asking this) is Mercurial's revision IDs. An entry on the Mercurial mailing list correctly states The odds of the changeset hash colliding by accident in your first billion commits is basically zero. But we will notice if it happens. And you'll get to be famous as the guy who broke SHA1 by accident. But even the tiniest probability doesn't mean impossible. Now, I don't want an explanation of why it's totally okay to rely on the uniqueness (this has been discussed here for example). This is very clear to me. Rather, I'd like to know (maybe by means of examples from your own work): Are there any best practices as to covering these improbable cases anyway? Should they be ignored, because it's more likely that particularly strong solar winds lead to faulty hard disk reads? Should they at least be tested for, if only to fail with a "I give up, you have done the impossible" message to the user? Or should even these cases get handled gracefully? For me, especially the following are interesting, although they are somewhat touchy-feely: If you don't handle these cases, what do you do against gut feelings that don't listen to probabilities? If you do handle them, how do you justify this work (to yourself and others), considering there are more probable cases you don't handle, like a supernonva?

    Read the article

  • MySql Check if NOW() falls within a weekday/time range

    - by Niall
    I have a table as follows: CREATE TABLE `zonetimes` ( `id` int(11) unsigned NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `zone_id` int(10) unsigned NOT NULL, `active_from_day` tinyint(1) unsigned NOT NULL DEFAULT '2', `active_to_day` tinyint(1) unsigned NOT NULL DEFAULT '2', `active_from` time NOT NULL, `active_to` time NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM ; So, a user could add a time entry starting on a particular day and time and ending on a particular day and time, eg: Between Monday 08:00 and Friday 18:00 or Between Thursday 15:00 and Tuesday 15:00 (Note the crossover at the end of the week). I need to query this data and determine if a zone is currently active (NOW(), DAYOFWEEK() etc)... This is turning out to be quite tricky. If I didn't have overlaps, eg: from 'Wednesday 8pm to Tuesday 4am' or from 'Thursday 4pm to Tuesday 4pm' this would be easy with BETWEEN. Also, need to allow a user to add for the entire week, eg: Monday 8am - Monday 8am (This should be easy enough, eg: where (active_from_day=active_to_day AND active_from=active_to) OR .. Any ideas? Note: I found a similar question here Timespan - Check for weekday and time of day in mysql but it didn't get an answer. One of the suggestions was to store each day as a separate row. I would much rather store one time span for multiple days though.

    Read the article

  • Java data structure suggestion.

    - by techoverflow
    Hi folks, I am a newbie in this field so please excuse my silly mistakes :) So the issue I am facing is: On my webpage, I am displaying a table. For now my issue is concerned with three columns of the table. First is : Area Code Second is : Zone Code Third is: Value The relationship between these three is: 1 Area Code has 6 different Zone code's and all those 6 Zone codes have corresponding "Value" I need a data structer that would give me the flexibility to get a "Value" for a Zone code, which falls under a particular Area code. I have the same zone codes for all the Area codes: Zone codes are: 111, 222, 333, 444, 555, 666 After surfing your stackoverflow, I thought I can go with this structure: Map<Integer, Map<Integer, Double>> retailPrices = new HashMap<Integer, Map<Integer, Double>>(); Map<Integer, Double> codes = new HashMap<Integer, Double>(); where reatailPrices would hold an Area Code and a Map of Zone code as Key and "Value" as Value. but when I am trying to populate this through a SQL resultset, I am getting the following error: The method put(Integer, Map<Integer,Double>) in the type Map is not applicable for the arguments (Integer, Double) on line: `while(oResult.next()) retailPrices.put((new Integer(oResult.getString("AREA"))), (pegPlPrices.put(new Integer(oResult.getString("ZONE_CODE")), new Double(oResult.getString("VALUE"))))); }` please help me figure out this problem. Am I following the right approach?

    Read the article

  • jQuery replaceWith(data) is not correctly doing his job

    - by Tristan
    Hello, i did a small ajax div refresh, but instead of replacing the values with the new ones, jquery adds the new data before the old ones. What possibily causes that please ? <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('#AJAX').click(function(e){ e.preventDefault(); var hebergeur = $('#hebergeurJQUERY').val(); $.post("/statistiques/maj-bloc-commentaires.php", { hebergeur : hebergeur }, function(data){ // déclenchée seulement si succès $("#TOREPLACE").replaceWith(data).val( ); }); }); }); </script> The HTML : print '<div id="a_remplacer"> <div class="detail_commentaires"> <table class="tableau_detail_commentaires"> <tr> <td class="tab_space">Serveur <strong>'.$row['type'].'</strong></td> <td>Qualite</td> <td style="color:'.$c_vote.'">'.htmlentities($row['vote']).'</td> </tr> </div> </div> The PHP ajax echo : print '<div id="a_remplacer"><div class="detail_commentaires" > <table class="tableau_detail_commentaires"> <tr> <td class="tab_space">Serveur <strong>'.$row['type'].'</strong></td> <td>Qualite</td> <td style="color:'.$c_vote.'">'.htmlentities($row['vote']).'</td> </tr></div></div> Thanks

    Read the article

  • Exception when retrieving record using Nhibernate

    - by Muhammad Akhtar
    I am new to NHibernate and have just started right now. I have very simple table contain Id(Int primary key and auto incremented), Name(varchar(100)), Description(varchar(100)) Here is my XML <class name="DevelopmentStep" table="DevelopmentSteps" lazy="true"> <id name="Id" type="Int32" column="Id"> </id> <property name="Name" column="Name" type="String" length="100" not-null="false"/> <property name="Description" column="Description" type="String" length="100" not-null="false"/> here is how I want to get all the record public List<DevelopmentStep> getDevelopmentSteps() { List<DevelopmentStep> developmentStep; developmentStep = Repository.FindAll<DevelopmentStep>(new OrderBy("Name", Order.Asc)); return developmentStep; } But I am getting exception The element 'id' in namespace 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2' has incomplete content. List of possible elements expected: 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2:meta urn:nhibernate-mapping- 2.2:column urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2:generator'. Please Advise me --- Thanks

    Read the article

  • JQuery Post caused permission denied warning in IE 6 and IE 7

    - by kwokwai
    Hi all, I am using firefox 3 and IE 6, 7 to test if a simple php web page using JQuery Post to pass some data to and from another server web page. $(document).ready(function(){ $("#data\\[User\\]\\[name\\]").click(function(){ var usr=$("#data\\[User\\]\\[name\\]").val(); if(usr.length >= 4){ $("#username").append('<span id="loaderimg" name="loaderimg"><img align="absmiddle" src="loader.gif"/> Checking data availability,&nbsp;please wait.</span>'); var url = "http://mysite.com/site1/toavail/"+usr; $.post( url, function(data) {alert(data);}); }); }); //--> </script> <table border=0 width="100%"> <tr> <td>Username</td> <td> <div id="username"> <input type="text" name="data[User][name]" id="data[User][name]"> </div> </td> </tr> </table> In Firefox 3, the alert box showed empty message. In IE 6 and IE 7, I got an error message saying "Permssion denied"

    Read the article

  • Load some data from database and hide it somewhere in a web page

    - by kwokwai
    Hi all, I am trying to load some data (which may be up to a few thousands words) from the database, and store the data somewhere in a html web page for comparing the data input by users. I am thinking to load the data to a Textarea under Div tag and hide the the data: <Div id="reference" style="Display:none;"> <textarea rows="2" cols="20" id="database"> html, htm, php, asp, jsp, aspx, ctp, thtml, xml, xsl... </textarea> </Div> <table border=0 width="100%"> <tr> <td>Username</td> <td> <div id="username"> <input type="text" name="data" id="data"> </div> </td> </tr> </table> <script> $(document).ready(function(){ //comparing the data loaded from database with the user's input if($("#data").val()==$("#database").val()) {alert("error");} }); </script> I am not sure if this is the best way to do it, so could you give me some advice and suggest your methods please.

    Read the article

  • Button text loses allignment after clicking

    - by breathe0
    Strange things happen. I have a 4x4 button table layout, which is the following: <TableLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_below="@+id/cerca"> <TableRow android:layout_width = "fill_parent" android:layout_height = "wrap_content"> <Button android:id = "@+id/btn1" android:layout_width = "wrap_content" android:layout_height = "wrap_content" android:layout_weight="1" android:text = "Scarica POI da server" android:onClick="downloadFromServer" /> <Button android:id = "@+id/btn2" android:layout_width = "wrap_content" android:layout_height = "wrap_content" android:layout_weight="1" android:text = "Aggiungi POI" android:onClick="goCreatePOI" /> </TableRow> <TableRow android:layout_width = "fill_parent" android:layout_height = "wrap_content"> <Button android:id = "@+id/btn3" android:layout_width = "wrap_content" android:layout_height = "wrap_content" android:layout_weight="1" android:text = "Rimuovi i POI del server" android:onClick="removeServerPOI" /> <Button android:id = "@+id/btn4" android:layout_width = "wrap_content" android:layout_height = "wrap_content" android:layout_weight="1" android:text = "Rimuovi i POI personali" android:onClick="removePersonalPOI" /> </TableRow> </TableLayout> This table layout is nested inside a relative layout, which is nested in a scrollview. Now, whenever i click on one of them, everytime the text inside the button change allignment: if before clicking was centered and displayed on two lines, after the click it loses its alignment and is displayed only in one row (cutting off some part of the text). Am I doing something wrong, or maybe it's a bug?

    Read the article

  • Div's visibility with javascript - problem

    - by sammville
    I am trying to use div's to display content on my page. This is controlled with an onchange element in a select menu. It works perfectly but the problem is I want one div to close when another one is opened. The div's open fine but it does not close the others. An example code is below. What am I doing wrong? JavaScript: if(document.getElementById('catgry').value == '01'){ document.getElementById('post04').style.visibility = "visible"; document.getElementById('post04').style.display = ""; document.getElementById('post07').style.visibility = "hidden"; document.getElementById('post07').style.display = "none"; }else if(document.getElementById('catgry').value == '02'){ document.getElementById('post02').style.visibility = "visible"; document.getElementById('post02').style.display = ""; document.getElementById('post04').style.visibility = "hidden"; document.getElementById('post04').style.display = "none"; document.getElementById('post07').style.visibility = "hidden"; document.getElementById('post07').style.display = "none"; } HTML: <div id="post04" style="visibility:hidden; display:none;"> <table class="posttb"><tr> <td width="30%">Author</td> <td><input type="text" name="author" size="30" class="postfd"></td> </tr> </table> </div>

    Read the article

  • asp.net MVC ActionMethod causing null exception on parameter

    - by David Liddle
    I am trying to add filter functionality that sends a GET request to the same page to filter records in my table. The problem I am having is that the textbox complains about null object reference when a parameter is not passed. For example, when the person first views the page the url is '/mycontroller/myaction/'. Then when they apply a filter and submit the form it should be something like 'mycontroller/myaction?name=...' Obviously the problem stems from when the name value has not been passed (null) it is still trying to be bound to the 'name' textbox. Any suggestions on what I should do regarding this problem? UPDATE I have tried setting the DefaultValue attribute but I am assuming this is only for route values and not query string values ActionResult MyAction([DefaultValue("")] string name) //Action - /mycontroler/myaction ActionResult MyAction(string name) { ...do stuff } //View <div id="filter"> <% Html.BeginForm("myaction", "mycontroller", FormMethod.Get); %> Name: <%= Html.TextBox("name") %> .... </div> <table>...my list of filtered data

    Read the article

  • DDD: Enum like entities

    - by Chris
    Hi all, I have the following DB model: **Person table** ID | Name | StateId ------------------------------ 1 Joe 1 2 Peter 1 3 John 2 **State table** ID | Desc ------------------------------ 1 Working 2 Vacation and domain model would be (simplified): public class Person { public int Id { get; } public string Name { get; set; } public State State { get; set; } } public class State { private int id; public string Name { get; set; } } The state might be used in the domain logic e.g.: if(person.State == State.Working) // some logic So from my understanding, the State acts like a value object which is used for domain logic checks. But it also needs to be present in the DB model to represent a clean ERM. So state might be extended to: public class State { private int id; public string Name { get; set; } public static State New {get {return new State([hardCodedIdHere?], [hardCodeNameHere?]);}} } But using this approach the name of the state would be hardcoded into the domain. Do you know what I mean? Is there a standard approach for such a thing? From my point of view what I am trying to do is using an object (which is persisted from the ERM design perspective) as a sort of value object within my domain. What do you think? Question update: Probably my question wasn't clear enough. What I need to know is, how I would use an entity (like the State example) that is stored in a database within my domain logic. To avoid things like: if(person.State.Id == State.Working.Id) // some logic or if(person.State.Id == WORKING_ID) // some logic

    Read the article

  • write regex code in java for following data

    - by giri
    <table> <tr> <td style="width:180px"> <a href="/search?q=user:240698+[java]" class="post-tag" title="show all posts by this user in 'java'">java</a><span class="item-multiplier">&times;&nbsp;176</span><br> <a href="/search?q=user:240698+[servlets]" class="post-tag" title="show all posts by this user in 'servlets'">servlets</a><span class="item-multiplier">&times;&nbsp;25</span><br> <a href="/search?q=user:240698+[jsp]" class="post-tag" title="show all posts by this user in 'jsp'">jsp</a><span class="item-multiplier">&times;&nbsp;11</span><br> <a href="/search?q=user:240698+[core]" class="post-tag" title="show all posts by this user in 'core'">core</a><span class="item-multiplier">&times;&nbsp;9</span><br> </tr> </table> from the above code I need to fetch only java, servlets, jsp and core. Can anybody plz help me out to write a regex in java to fetch those? Thanks

    Read the article

  • How to automatically select the selected item in list menu after submitting the form?

    - by SzamDev
    Hi I have this code : <form id="form2" name="form2" method="post" action=""> <table dir="ltr" width="554" border="0" align="center" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0"> <tr> <td width="269" class="da"><div align="center"><span id="spryselect1"> <select onchange="form2.submit()" name="mpage" id="mpage"> <option selected="selected" value="no">-----------</option> <option value="medmo">Medmo.com</option> <option value="paris">Paris.com</option> <option value="imo">IMO.com</option> </select> </span></div></td> <td width="214" class="t_b">Select Website</td> </tr> </table> </form> When the user select a value, the form will automatically submit, I want the item that the user has selected to be selected after submitting the form. Because I am facing this proplem: The user select the first item (Medmo.com) - form submit - selected item will be "-------" I want this to happen : The user select the first item (Medmo.com) - form submit - selected item will be "Medmo.com" How I can do that? Thanks in Advance.

    Read the article

  • Finding the width of a directed acyclic graph... with only the ability to find parents

    - by Platinum Azure
    Hi guys, I'm trying to find the width of a directed acyclic graph... as represented by an arbitrarily ordered list of nodes, without even an adjacency list. The graph/list is for a parallel GNU Make-like workflow manager that uses files as its criteria for execution order. Each node has a list of source files and target files. We have a hash table in place so that, given a file name, the node which produces it can be determined. In this way, we can figure out a node's parents by examining the nodes which generate each of its source files using this table. That is the ONLY ability I have at this point, without changing the code severely. The code has been in public use for a while, and the last thing we want to do is to change the structure significantly and have a bad release. And no, we don't have time to test rigorously (I am in an academic environment). Ideally we're hoping we can do this without doing anything more dangerous than adding fields to the node. I'll be posting a community-wiki answer outlining my current approach and its flaws. If anyone wants to edit that, or use it as a starting point, feel free. If there's anything I can do to clarify things, I can answer questions or post code if needed. Thanks! EDIT: For anyone who cares, this will be in C. Yes, I know my pseudocode is in some horribly botched Python look-alike. I'm sort of hoping the language doesn't really matter.

    Read the article

  • Cleaner way of using modulus for columns

    - by WmasterJ
    I currently have a list (<ul>) of people that I have divided up into two columns. But after finishing the code for it I keept wondering if there is a more effective or clean way to do the same thing. echo "<table class='area_list'><tr>"; // Loop users within areas, divided up in 2 columns $count = count($areaArray); for($i=0 ; $i<$count ; $i++) { $uid = $areaArray[$i]; // get the modulus value + ceil for uneven numbers $rowCalc = ($i+1) % ceil($count/2); if ($rowCalc == 1) echo "<td><ul>"; // OUTPUT the actual list item echo "<li>{$users[$uid]->profile_lastname}</li>"; if ($rowCalc == 0 && $i!=0) echo "</ul></td>"; } echo "</tr></table>"; Any ideas of how to make this cleaner or do it in another way?

    Read the article

  • is there a better way to write this frankenstein LINQ query that searches for values in a child tabl

    - by MRV
    I have a table of Users and a one to many UserSkills table. I need to be able to search for users based on skills. This query takes a list of desired skills and searches for users who have those skills. I want to sort the users based on the number of desired skills they posses. So if a users only has 1 of 3 desired skills he will be further down the list than the user who has 3 of 3 desired skills. I start with my comma separated list of skill IDs that are being searched for: List<short> searchedSkillsRaw = skills.Value.Split(',').Select(i => short.Parse(i)).ToList(); I then filter out only the types of users that are searchable: List<User> users = (from u in db.Users where u.Verified == true && u.Level > 0 && u.Type == 1 && (u.UserDetail.City == city.SelectedValue || u.UserDetail.City == null) select u).ToList(); and then comes the crazy part: var fUsers = from u in users select new { u.Id, u.FirstName, u.LastName, u.UserName, UserPhone = u.UserDetail.Phone, UserSkills = (from uskills in u.UserSkills join skillsJoin in configSkills on uskills.SkillId equals skillsJoin.ValueIdInt into tempSkills from skillsJoin in tempSkills.DefaultIfEmpty() where uskills.UserId == u.Id select new { SkillId = uskills.SkillId, SkillName = skillsJoin.Name, SkillNameFound = searchedSkillsRaw.Contains(uskills.SkillId) }), UserSkillsFound = (from uskills in u.UserSkills where uskills.UserId == u.Id && searchedSkillsRaw.Contains(uskills.SkillId) select uskills.UserId).Count() } into userResults where userResults.UserSkillsFound > 0 orderby userResults.UserSkillsFound descending select userResults; and this works! But it seems super bloated and inefficient to me. Especially the secondary part that counts the number of skills found. Thanks for any advice you can give. --r

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 553 554 555 556 557 558 559 560 561 562 563 564  | Next Page >