Search Results

Search found 15718 results on 629 pages for 'xml'.

Page 557/629 | < Previous Page | 553 554 555 556 557 558 559 560 561 562 563 564  | Next Page >

  • Blackberry: Passing KML file to Google Maps

    - by Pria
    I want to know that can I pass KML as a string to google map application? Code snippet: //KML String String document = "<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding=\"UTF-8\"?><kml xmlns=\"http://www.opengis.net/kml/2.2\"><Document><Folder><name>Paths</name><open>0</open><Placemark><LineString><tessellate>1</tessellate><coordinates> -112.0814237830345,36.10677870477137,0 -112.0870267752693,36.0905099328766,0</coordinates></LineString></Placemark></Folder></Document></kml>"; //Invoke Google Maps int module = CodeModuleManager.getModuleHandle("GoogleMaps"); if (module == 0) { try { throw new ApplicationManagerException("GoogleMaps isn't installed"); } catch (ApplicationManagerException e) { System.out.println(e.getMessage()); } } String[] args = {document}; //Is this possible??? ApplicationDescriptor descriptor = CodeModuleManager.getApplicationDescriptors(module)[0]; ApplicationDescriptor ad2 = new ApplicationDescriptor(descriptor, args); try { ApplicationManager.getApplicationManager().runApplication(ad2, true); } catch (ApplicationManagerException e) { System.out.println(e.getMessage()); }

    Read the article

  • maven assemblies. Putting each dependency with transitive dependencies in own directory?

    - by jr
    I have a maven project which consists of a few modules. This is to be deployed on a client machine and will involve installing Tomcat and will make use of NSIS for installer. There is a separate application which monitors tomcat and can restart it, perform updates, etc. So, I have the modules setup as follows: project +-- client (all code, handlers, for the war) +-- client-common - (shared code, shared between monitor and client) +-- client-web - (the war, basically just uses war has applicationcontext, web.xml,etc) +-- monitor - (the monitor application jar. Uses wrapper to run) So, I need to create an installer. I was planning on creating another module which would be the installer. This is where I would have tomcat directory and I'd like maven to "assemble" everything and then run NSIS so I can create the final installer. However, I need to have the monitor jar file in a directory and then have all monitors dependencies in a lib/ directory. The final directory structure should be: project-installer-directory/monitor/monitor-version.jar project-installer-directory/monitor/lib/monitor-dep-1.jar project-installer-directory/monitor/lib/monitor-dep-2.jar project-installer-directory/monitor/lib/monitor-dep-3.jar project-installer-directory/webapps/client-web.war Where in the client-web\WEB-INF\lib directory we will have all client-web's dependencies after it is exploded. That works, I have the .war file. What I am having problems with is getting the monitor module dependencies independent of the dependencies of the client-web module. I tried to just create the installer module and make the monitor and client-web dependencies, but when I use dependencies-copy it gives me everything. Not what I want. I'm leaning towards creating a new module called monitor-assembly or something to give me a zip file which contains the directory format I need, but that is yet another module. Can someone please help me with the correct way to accomplish this? thanks!

    Read the article

  • Howto create dynamic named folders with Maven2 Archetype?

    - by chrsk
    Hey, i try to build a structure like this +---src +---main +---webapp +---WEB-INF +---cfg ¦ +---log4j ¦ +---resources ¦ +---extensions ¦ +---${artifactIdKey}-business ¦ +---${artifactIdKey}-layout +---lib I added a required property to my archetype-metadata.xml to have an short-name for the project, which is used among other things for generating unique folders. <requiredProperties> <requiredProperty key="artifactIdKey" /> </requiredProperties> The property artifactIdKey i use in a fileSet: <fileSet> <directory>[..]/resources/extensions/${artifactIdKey}-business</directory> </fileSet> <fileSet> <directory>[..]/resources/extensions/${artifactIdKey}-layout</directory> </fileSet> The command to generate the archetype: mvn archetype:generate -B \ -DgroupId=com.stackoverflow \ -DartifactId=stackoverflow-question -DarchetypeGroupId=com.stackoverflow \ -DarchetypeArtifactId=stackoverflow-archetype -DarchetypeVersion=1.0 \ -DartifactIdKey=soq I assume to get the following folder structure, but i get the ${artifactIdKey} property as folder. Without beeing replaces. ..\ +---soq-business +---soq-layout ..\ +---${artifactIdKey}-business +---${artifactIdKey}-layout How can i achieve this? And how can i place files below soq-business? Without knowing the folder name at this time?

    Read the article

  • No Hibernate Exception on the same insert of data

    - by Mark Estrada
    Hi All, Hibernate Newbie here. I am quite unsure why I am not getting any exception when I am executing below code. On first attempt, this code creates the Book Entry on my Book Table. But my concern is that when I execute below code again, no error was pop out by Hibernate. I was in fact expecting some sort of Violation of Primary Key Constraints as what I have bee doing in JDBC code. public class BookDao { public void createBook(Book bookObj) { Session session = HibernateUtil.getSessionFactory() .getCurrentSession(); session.beginTransaction(); session.saveOrUpdate(bookObj); session.getTransaction().commit(); } } public class HibernateUtil { private static final SessionFactory sessionFactory = buildSessionFactory(); private static SessionFactory buildSessionFactory() { try { // Create the SessionFactory from hibernate.cfg.xml return new AnnotationConfiguration().configure() .buildSessionFactory(); } catch (Throwable ex) { // Make sure you log the exception, as it might be swallowed ex.printStackTrace(); throw new ExceptionInInitializerError(ex); } } public static SessionFactory getSessionFactory() { return sessionFactory; } } public class BookDBStarter { public static void main(String[] args) { Book bookHF = new Book(); bookHF.setIsbn("HF-12345"); bookHF.setName("Head First HTML"); bookHF.setPublishDate(new Date()); BookDao daoBook = new BookDao(); daoBook.createBook(bookHF); } } Is this normal hibernate way? And how will I know if my insert is successful? Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Redirecting users after destroy

    - by mathee
    I have 3 models: Questions, Answers, and Profiles (I know, it should be called "Users"). When you view a question Q, I query the database for the answers to Q. (They are linked by id.) In the view, the current user has the option to delete his answer by clicking on the destroy link displayed next to his answer: %table %tr %td Answers: - @answers.each do |a| %tr %td - @provider = Profile.find(a.provider) %i #{h @provider.username} said: %br #{h a.description} %td = link_to 'View full answer', a %td - if a.provider == @profile.id #{link_to 'Delete my answer', a, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :method => :delete} The problem is that when the user clicks on the destroy link, it redirects to the /answers/index. I want it to redirect to /questions/Q. What's the best way to do this? I know that there's a redirect_to method, but I don't know how to implement it when I want to redirect to an action for a different controller. It also needs to remember the question from which the answer is being deleted. I tried passing something like :question_id in link_to as: #{link_to 'Delete my answer', a, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :question_id => @question.id, :method => :delete} In AnswersController#destroy: def destroy @answer = Answer.find(params[:id]) @answer.destroy respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to(answers_url) } format.xml { head :ok } end @question = Question.find(params[:question_id]) redirect_to question_path(@question) end The :question_id information is not passed to the destroy method, so I get this error: Couldn't find Question without an ID To confirm, I added a puts call before Question.find, and it returned nil.

    Read the article

  • PHP : How to add a clickable logo on below right corner on a flash video player?

    - by kishore
    Hi all, I have a code as shown below var so = new SWFObject('http://montsmile.com/jwplayer/player.swf','mpl','480','380','8'); so.addParam('allowscriptaccess','always'); so.addParam('allowfullscreen','true'); so.addVariable('height','310'); so.addVariable('width','470'); so.addVariable('file','http://localhost:81/newtip/'); so.addVariable('logo','http://localhost:81/newtip/ffmpeg/logo2.jpg'); //so.addVariable("logoPosition", "bottom_left"); so.addVariable("ClickURL", "http://www.google.com"); so.addVariable('captions','/upload/corrie.xml'); so.addVariable('link',''); so.addVariable('linkfromdisplay','true'); so.addVariable('linktarget','_blank'); so.addVariable('searchbar','false'); so.addVariable('skin','http://montsmile.com/jwplayer/player.swf'); so.write('player'); It is displaying the logo on the player. but when i click the logo it does not going to the target page. I want to make the logo as clickable. Please help me on this Thanks in advance...

    Read the article

  • What are the arguments against the inclusion of server side scripting in JavaScript code blocks?

    - by James Wiseman
    I've been arguing for some time against embedding server-side tags in JavaScript code, but was put on the spot today by a developer who seemed unconvinced The code in question was a legacy ASP application, although this is largely unimportant as it could equally apply to ASP.NET or PHP (for example). The example in question revolved around the use of a constant that they had defined in ServerSide code. 'VB Const MY_CONST: MY_CONST = 1 If sMyVbVar = MY_CONST Then 'Do Something End If //JavaScript if (sMyJsVar === "<%= MY_CONST%>"){ //DoSomething } My standard arguments against this are: Script injection: The server-side tag could include code that can break the JavaScript code Unit testing. Harder to isolate units of code for testing Code Separation : We should keep web page technologies apart as much as possible. The reason for doing this was so that the developer did not have to define the constant in two places. They reasoned that as it was a value that they controlled, that it wasn't subject to script injection. This reduced my justification for (1) to "We're trying to keep the standards simple, and defining exception cases would confuse people" The unit testing and code separation arguments did not hold water either, as the page itself was a horrible amalgam of HTML, JavaScript, ASP.NET, CSS, XML....you name it, it was there. No code that was every going to be included in this page could possibly be unit tested. So I found myself feeling like a bit of a pedant insisting that the code was changed, given the circumstances. Are there any further arguments that might support my reasoning, or am I, in fact being a bit pedantic in this insistence?

    Read the article

  • Static Property losing its value intermittently ?

    - by joedotnot
    Is there something fundamentally wrong with the following design, or can anyone see why would the static properties sometimes loose their values ? I have a class library project containing a class AppConfig; this class is consumed by a Webforms project. The skeleton of AppConfig class is as follows: Public Class AppConfig Implements IConfigurationSectionHandler Private Const C_KEY1 As String = "WebConfig.Key.1" Private Const C_KEY2 As String = "WebConfig.Key.2" Private Const C_KEY1_DEFAULT_VALUE as string = "Key1defaultVal" Private Const C_KEY2_DEFAULT_VALUE as string = "Key2defaultVal" Private Shared m_field1 As String Private Shared m_field2 As String Public Shared ReadOnly Property ConfigValue1() As String Get ConfigValue1= m_field1 End Get End Property Public Shared ReadOnly Property ConfigValue2() As String Get ConfigValue2 = m_field2 End Get End Property Public Shared Sub OnApplicationStart() m_field1 = ReadSetting(C_KEY1, C_KEY1_DEFAULT_VALUE) m_field2 = ReadSetting(C_KEY2, C_KEY1_DEFAULT_VALUE) End Sub Public Overloads Shared Function ReadSetting(ByVal key As String, ByVal defaultValue As String) As String Try Dim setting As String = System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.AppSettings(key) If setting Is Nothing Then ReadSetting = defaultValue Else ReadSetting = setting End If Catch ReadSetting = defaultValue End Try End Function Public Function Create(ByVal parent As Object, ByVal configContext As Object, ByVal section As System.Xml.XmlNode) As Object Implements System.Configuration.IConfigurationSectionHandler.Create Dim objSettings As NameValueCollection Dim objHandler As NameValueSectionHandler objHandler = New NameValueSectionHandler objSettings = CType(objHandler.Create(parent, configContext, section), NameValueCollection) Return 1 End Function End Class The Static Properties get set once on application start, from the Application_Start event of the Global.asax Sub Application_Start(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) //Fires when the application is started AppConfig.OnApplicationStart() End Sub Thereafter, whenever we want to access a value in the Web.Config from anywhere, e.g. aspx page code-behind or another class or referenced class, we simply call the static property. For example, AppConfig.ConfigValue1() AppConfig.ConfigValue2() This is turn returns the value stored in the static backing fields m_field1, m_field2 Problem is sometimes these values are empty string, when clearly the Web.Config entry has values. Is there something fundamentally wrong with the above design, or is it reasonable to expect the static properties would keep their value for the life of the Application session?

    Read the article

  • Site doesn't show up. Instead a bunch of weird characters?

    - by Richard Knop
    ‹?????혱jÃ0†w=Å=AÜ ÂЃ)ÅKGÅ:¢En%¹©ß¾²Ý 7xèpußøãŸ~ÝöÇ®Ömót¨•îŸû®©îao‚½‘Í:ºR†æk@´huõÃ(]­;z:¼•Íö¾þ{¥•‚¾ímwi£_±Ä1)–ÄÇ?‡‘,‰%Ž#YKF²Ä²Ä8ŒèKF²$–88ŒdI,qpÉ’Xâà0’%±Ä1Àaþe–TïÆOŒ@ 2^ßÇh"ù¦`Î!뜄yœ"Dü˜0e°Ó:ËË>e„ñʈfp.à(U®<œv¿ì;xñhRY3˜‹¡?ÞdŒ;Uºõ×R°WkÑ^Z÷¥¯Wß.Ò¤·?? That's exactly what shows up instead of my website in the web browser. Though on localhost the website works great. It's a Zend Framework based website, on localhost the output looks something like this (shortened version): <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <title>Title</title> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8" /> <meta http-equiv="Content-Style-Type" content="text/css" /> <meta http-equiv="Content-Language" content="en-US" /> </head> <body> <!-- LOTS OF HTML HERE --> </body> </html> What could cause this problem? It used to work before, this bug has only appeared today (or maybe already yesterday, I'm not sure).

    Read the article

  • codegen:nullValue vs msprop:nullValue

    - by Ken
    Ok, I have datasets that I created way back in 1.1 framework to which we used codegen:nullValue within the XSD to handle null values. However if I open one of these datasets with vs 2005 (i.e. 2.0 framework) and add a column, it removes the codegen setting from the entire xsd but adds in msprop:nullValue However, unlike previous years, I noticed this time the proper property code was NOT over riden from returning the null value specified in codegen as it was doing in the past. Meaning the msprop appears to be creating the proper code behind the scenes (See example). Anyone know of any other differnces? Should I be concerned with deploying a new xsd, WITHOUT the codegen code but instead with the msprop xml? Example: Original creates _ Public Property ParentID() As Integer Get If Me.IsParentIDNull Then Return -1 Else Return CType(Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn),Integer) End If End Get Set Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn) = value End Set End Property New creates _ Public Property ParentID() As Integer Get If Me.IsParentIDNull Then Return -1 Else Return CType(Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn),Integer) End If End Get Set Me(Me.tableCompany.ParentIDColumn) = value End Set End Property BUT is there anything else that might be occuring that I am NOT seeing thus MAKING me re-enter all the codegen settings? THANKS!

    Read the article

  • Xerces C++ SAX Parsing Problem: expected class-name before '{' token

    - by aduric
    I'm trying to run through an example given for the C++ Xerces XML library implementation. I've copied the code exactly, but I'm having trouble compiling it. error: expected class-name before '{' token I've looked around for a solution, and I know that this error can be caused by circular includes or not defining a class before it is used, but as you can see from the code, I only have 2 files: MySAXHandler.hpp and MySAXHandler.cpp. However, the MySAXHandler class is derived from HandlerBase, which is included. MyHandler.hpp #include <xercesc/sax/HandlerBase.hpp> class MySAXHandler : public HandlerBase { public: void startElement(const XMLCh* const, AttributeList&); void fatalError(const SAXParseException&); }; MySAXHandler.cpp #include "MySAXHandler.hpp" #include <iostream> using namespace std; MySAXHandler::MySAXHandler() { } void MySAXHandler::startElement(const XMLCh* const name, AttributeList& attributes) { char* message = XMLString::transcode(name); cout << "I saw element: "<< message << endl; XMLString::release(&message); } void MySAXHandler::fatalError(const SAXParseException& exception) { char* message = XMLString::transcode(exception.getMessage()); cout << "Fatal Error: " << message << " at line: " << exception.getLineNumber() << endl; XMLString::release(&message); } I'm compiling like so: g++ -L/usr/local/lib -lxerces-c -I/usr/local/include -c MySAXHandler.cpp I've looked through the HandlerBase and it is defined, so I don't know why I can't derive a class from it? Do I have to override all the virtual functions in HandlerBase? I'm kinda new to C++. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Error logging in C#

    - by rschuler
    I am making my switch from coding in C++ to C#. I need to replace my C++ error logging/reporting macro system with something similar in C#. In my C++ source I can write LOGERR("Some error"); or LOGERR("Error with inputs %s and %d", stringvar, intvar); The macro & supporting library code then passes the (possibly varargs) formatted message into a database along with the source file, source line, user name, and time. The same data is also stuffed into a data structure for later reporting to the user. Does anybody have C# code snippets or pointers to examples that do this basic error reporting/logging? Edit: At the time I asked this question I was really new to .NET and was unaware of System.Diagnostics.Trace. System.Diagnostics.Trace was what I needed at that time. Since then I have used log4net on projects where the logging requirements were larger and more complex. Just edit that 500 line XML configuration file and log4net will do everything you will ever need :)

    Read the article

  • What's the most efficient way to setup a multi-lingual website

    - by Jasper De Bruijn
    Hi, I'm developing a website that will be available in different languages. It is a LAMP (Linux, Apache, MySQL, PHP) setup, and it makes use of Smarty, mostly for the template engine. The way we currently translate is by a self-written smarty plugin, which will recognize certain tags in the HTML files, and will find the corresponding tag in an earlier defined language file. The HTML could look as follows: <p>Hi, welcome to $#gamedesc;!</p> And the language file could look like this: gamedesc:Poing 2009$; welcome:this is another tag$; Which would then output <p>Hi, welcome to Poing 2009!</p> This system is very basic, but it is pretty hard to control, if I f.e. would like to keep track of what has been translated so far, or give certain users the rights to translate only certain tags. I've been looking at some alternative ways to approach this, by either replacing the text-file with XML files which could store some extra meta-data, or by perhaps storing all the texts in the database, and retrieving it there. My question is, what would be the best way to make this system both maintainable and perform well with high user-traffic? Are there perhaps any (lightweight) plugins I could take a look at?

    Read the article

  • How to start animation when I'm pressing on item of ListView?

    - by Ares
    I want to implement next functional: When I'm tapping on ListView's item, it's turning into red color. If I release it has to reverse color back. I made transition drawable and set it as item's background. I tried to implement SimpleGestureListener and started animation on onDown and reversed it on onSingleTapUp events, but it doesn't give me any results (works fine, but items don't turn into red). If I return super.onDown (not true), the onLongPress raise every time(even I manage to release it). @Override public boolean onDown(MotionEvent e) { if(_currentRow.getTag()!=null) if(_currentRow.getTag().toString().equals("anim")) _currentRow.setBackgroundDrawable(context.getResources() .getDrawable(R.xml.listviewitem_yellow_red)); _drawable = (TransitionDrawable) _currentRow.getBackground(); _drawable.startTransition(500); return true; //super.onDown(e); // IF I UNCOMMENT IT TURNS INTO RED, BUT TRIGGERED onLongClick event!!! } @Override public boolean onSingleTapUp(MotionEvent e) { if(_drawable!=null){ _drawable.reverseTransition(500); } return super.onSingleTapUp(e); } @Override public void onLongPress(MotionEvent e) { if(getLongClickListener()!=null) getLongClickListener().onLongClick(_currentRow, _object); super.onLongPress(e); } If someone knows how to solve this problem, please help me.

    Read the article

  • Compiling GWT 2.6.1 at Java 7 source level

    - by Neeko
    I've recently updated my GWT project to 2.6.1, and started to make use of Java 7 syntax since 2.6 now supports Java 7. However, when I attempt to compile, I'm receiving compiler errors such as [ERROR] Line 42: '<>' operator is not allowed for source level below 1.7 How do I specify the GWT compiler to target 1.7? I was under the impression that it would do that by default, but I guess not. I've attempted cleaning the project, including deleting the gwt-unitCache directory but to no avail. Here is my Ant compile target. <target name="compile" depends="prepare"> <javac includeantruntime="false" debug="on" debuglevel="lines,vars,source" srcdir="${src.dir}" destdir="${build.dir}"> <classpath refid="project.classpath"/> </javac> </target> <target name="gwt-compile" depends="compile"> <java failonerror="true" fork="true" classname="com.google.gwt.dev.Compiler"> <classpath> <!-- src dir is added to ensure the module.xml file(s) are on the classpath --> <pathelement location="${src.dir}"/> <pathelement location="${build.dir}"/> <path refid="project.classpath"/> </classpath> <jvmarg value="-Xmx256M"/> <arg value="${gwt.module.name}"/> </java> </target>

    Read the article

  • App hosting Report Viewer crashes on exit after export

    - by Paul Sasik
    We have a .NET Winforms application that hosts the Crystal Reports Viewer control (Version XI). It works well for the most part but when an export of data from the viewer is performed the application will crash on exit and in unmanaged code. The error message is not very useful and just says that an incorrect memory location was accessed. No other info such a specific DLL etc. is provided. This only happens after the viewer is used to export a report to CSV, XML etc. My guess is that at some point in the export process Crystal creates a resource that attempts an action on shut down to a parent window (perhaps) that no longer exists. I've seen a number of memory leak and shut down issues with Crystal but this one's new. Has anyone seen it and come up with a workaround or has ideas for workarounds? So far we've tried explicitly disposing of all crystal-related objects, setting to null and even setting a Thread.Sleep cycle on shut down to "give Crystal time to clean up." Update: The crash happens only on shut down (so not immediate) All export formats work All export files are created properly CR is installed on the same machine as the hosting .NET app not sure about exporting from the IDE... is that even possible?

    Read the article

  • Hibernate not saving foreign key, but with junit it's ok

    - by Leonardo
    Hi All, I have this strange problem. In a J2ee webapp with spring, smartgwt and hibernate, it happens that I have a class A wich has a set of class B, both of them mapped to table A and table B. I wrote a simple test case for testing the service manager which is supposed to do insert, update, delete and everything work as expected especially during insert. In the end I have one record in A and records in B with foreign key to A. But when I try to call the service from the web app, the entity in B are saved without a foreign key reference. I am sure that the service is the same. One thing I noticed is that enabling hibernate logging, seems that when the service is called from the application, one more update is made: insert A insert B update A update B update B (foreign key only) update A <--- ??? update B <--- ??? Instead, when junit test case is run, the update is as follows: insert A insert B update A update B update B (foreign key only) I suppose the latest update is what is causing the erroe, maybe it is overwriting values. Considering that the app is using spring, with the well known mechanism of DAO + Manager, where can I investigate to solve this issue ? Someone told me that the session is not closed, so hibernate would do one more update before release the objects by itself. I am pretty sure that all the configuration hbm, xml, and the rest are fine...but I maybe wrong. thanks

    Read the article

  • Alternative to using c:out to prevent XSS

    - by lynxforest
    I'm working on preventing cross site scripting (XSS) in a Java, Spring based, Web application. I have already implemented a servlet filter similar to this example http://greatwebguy.com/programming/java/simple-cross-site-scripting-xss-servlet-filter/ which sanitizes all the input into the application. As an extra security measure I would like to also sanitize all output of the application in all JSPs. I have done some research to see how this could be done and found two complementary options. One of them is the use of Spring's defaultHtmlEscape attribute. This was very easy to implement (a few lines in web.xml), and it works great when your output is going through one of spring's tags (ie: message, or form tags). The other option I have found is to not directly use EL expressions such as ${...} and instead use <c:out value="${...}" /> That second approach works perfectly, however due to the size of the application I am working on (200+ JSP files). It is a very cumbersome task to have to replace all inappropriate uses of EL expressions with the c:out tag. Also it would become a cumbersome task in the future to make sure all developers stick to this convention of using the c:out tag (not to mention, how much more unreadable the code would be). Is there alternative way to escape the output of EL expressions that would require fewer code modifications? Thank you in advance.

    Read the article

  • rich:editor ruins html?

    - by Ben
    Hi, Strange behaviour. I use rich:editor with these attributes: (Irrelevant data removed) HtmlEditor editor = new HtmlEditor(); editor.setValueExpression("value", ve); editor.setTheme("advanced"); editor.setValueExpression("viewMode", viewModeValueExpression); panel.getChildren().add(editor); Now my problem is that whenever I load a ready-made html text such as this (In source mode): <html lang="en" xml:lang="en"> <head> <title>Done</title> </head> <body style="direction: ltr; font-size: medium; color: #0000FF;"> <p>When the menu loads, navigate to and open Image Editor.</p> </body> </html> Change to VisualMode and then back to SourceMode, I see that the editor removed all of my html data and now the source mode is this: <p>When the menu loads, navigate to and open Chul Muzal.</p> Anyone knows why this happens? Thanks!!

    Read the article

  • window.open on load page (asp.net) using Method=POST

    - by Raul
    i need open pop up in asp.net using post Method and window.open to rezise te new windows. my code: ---- open the pop up --- function mdpbch(URL) { child = window.open(URL, "passwd","dependent=1,toolbar=0,location=0,directories=0,status=0,menubar=0,scrollbars=1,resizable=1,width=600,height=475"); child.location.href = URL; if (child.opener == null) { child.opener = window; } child.opener.name = "opener"; } -------- URL --- function PagoEnLinea(Banco) { switch(x){ case "BCH": document.frmEnvia.action = SERV + "/llamacom.asp"; url = SERV + "lamacom.asp alert(url); mdpbch(url); document.frmEnvia.submit(); break; } } -------ASPX-------------------- <body> <form id="frmEnvia" runat="server" name="formulario" method="post" target="_blank"> <div style="visibility:hidden;"> <asp:TextBox ID="txtXml" runat="server" Visible="true"></asp:TextBox> </div> ..... </body> on page load (code behind) i create a xml string and put it in the textbox txtXml. i need use post method becose the server validate te method, and window.open becose need customize the pop up thanks

    Read the article

  • Regular expression for dividing country calling codes

    - by RickiG
    Hi I have a list of calling codes for all countries(the phone number prefixes), I would like to split them up in the country name and the actual code so I can put then into an xml. I have tried back and forth but can not get a regexp going that takes all cases into account. I think it is fairly simple for someone with a bit of experience. The codes have these formats: Afghanistan 93 Anguilla 1 264 Antarctica 6721 Antigua and Barbuda 1 268 Bosnia and Herzegovina 387 Canada 1 Congo, Republic of the 242 Cote d'Ivoire 225 Ireland (Eire) 353 United States of America 1 There are around 235 of them in total, but these are the regulars and the exceptions. ^[a-zA-Z]\s,'()] for between 1 and X words and then it is [0-9\s]{1,5}$ for the numbers: X XX XXX XXXX X XXX So if I should express it as a sentence it would be: "from beginning of a line, take all characters (1) including space,'() until you encounter digits, then take all of these including space(2) until you encounter a line break." I am using TextMate, and the docs says: TextMate uses the Oniguruma regular expression library by K. Kosako. I would appreciate any help given:) Thank you.

    Read the article

  • IE6 transparency+radio button can't be clicked

    - by Jonas Byström
    IE6: when I place a partially transparent image in a div, the radio buttons in that div that overlap the non-transparent pixels of the image become unclickable. Example: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <style media="screen" type="text/css"> div { position: relative; width: 500px; height: 300px; _filter:progid:DXImageTransform.Microsoft.AlphaImageLoader(src=http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/thumb/f/fc/Olympic_flag_transparent.svg/200px-Olympic_flag_transparent.svg.png, sizingMethod='crop'); } input { position: absolute; top: 40px; left: 60px; } </style> </head> <body> <div> <input type="radio" value="1" name="1"/> </div> </body> </html> If you test the code, you can also try moving the button from (60, 40) to (40, 40) where the image is transparent, and voilà - the clicking is back in business again. This bug might, or might not, be related to the IE6 links transparency bug, but I'm not knowledgable enough to grasp any resemblence. Have I done something wrong? Or how can I circumvent? Is there some other option apart from removing the _filter:progid?

    Read the article

  • Android depth buffer issue: Advice for anyone experiencing problem

    - by Andrew Smith
    I've wasted around 30 hours this week writing and re-writing code, believing that I had misunderstood how the OpenGL depth buffer works. Everything I tried, failed. I have now resolved my problem by finding what may be an error in the Android implementation of OpenGL. See this API entry: http://www.opengl.org/sdk/docs/man/xhtml/glClearDepth.xml void glClearDepth(GLclampd depth); Specifies the depth value used when the depth buffer is cleared. The initial value is 1. Android's implementation has two versions of this command: glClearDepthx which takes an integer value, clamped 0-1 glClearDepthf which takes a floating point value, clamped 0-1 If you use glClearDepthf(1) then you get the results you would expect. If you use glClearDepthx(1), as I was doing then you get different results. (Note that 1 is the default value, but calling the command with the argument 1 produces different results than not calling it at all.) Quite what is happening I do not know, but the depth buffer was being cleared to a value different from what I had specified.

    Read the article

  • Cocoa: Using UNIX based commands to write a file

    - by BryCry
    I'm looking for help with a program im making. I create a *.sh file as follows: SVN_StatGenAppDelegate.h: NSWindow *window; NSTask *touch; NSArray *touchArguments; NSString *svnURLStr; NSString *SVNStatStr; NSString *destDirStr; SVN_StatGenApplDelegate.m: NSString *locationStr = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@/exec.sh", destDirStr]; NSLog(@"%@", locationStr); touch = [[NSTask alloc] init]; [touch setLaunchPath:@"/usr/bin/touch"]; touchArguments = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:locationStr, nil]; [touch setArguments:touchArguments]; [touch launch]; This works, i get a file called exec.sh created in the location i craete with the destDirStr. Now is my next question, i need to get that file filled with the following: svn co http://repo.com/svn/test C:\users\twan\desktop\pres\_temp cd C:\users\twan\desktop\pres\_temp svn log -v --xml > logfile.log copy C:\users\twan\desktop\statsvn.jar C:\users\twan\desktop\pres\_temp cd .. java -jar _temp\statsvn.jar C:\users\twan\desktop\pres\_temp/logfile.log C:\users\twan\desktop\pres\_temp rmdir /s /Q _temp The actual idea is that this script is written into the sh file, and all the _temp and other locations are replaced by the vars i get from textfields etc. so c:\users\twan\desktop\pres_temp would be a var called tempDirStr that i get from my inputfields. (i know these cmomands and locations are windows based, im doing this with a friend and he made a .net counterpart of the application. Can you guys help me out?:D thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Spring, Need to use a a bean declared in a ApplicationContextFactory servlet, in a DispatcherServlet

    - by Ernest
    Hello, i have a web.xml with these 2 servlet: <servlet> <servlet-name>ApplicationContextFactory</servlet-name> <servlet-class>com.bamboo.common.factory.ApplicationContextFactory</servlet-class> <load-on-startup>1</load-on-startup> </servlet> AND <servlet> <servlet-name>dispatcher</servlet-name> <servlet-class> org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet </servlet-class> <load-on-startup>1</load-on-startup> </servlet> I need to use these bean declared on the ApplicationContextFactory: <bean id="**catalogFacadeTarget**" class="com.bamboo.catW3.business.impl.CatalogFacadeImpl"> <property name="categoryDAO"><ref local="categoryDAOTarget"/></property> <property name="containerDAO"><ref local="containerDAOTarget"/></property> <property name="productDAO"><ref local="productDAOTarget"/></property> <property name="productOptionDAO"><ref local="productOptionDAOTarget"/></property> <property name="productStatusDAO"><ref local="productStatusDAOTarget"/></property> <property name="userDAO"><ref local="userDAOTarget"/></property> </bean> in the dispatcher-servlet like this: <bean name="welcome" class="com.bamboo.catW3.business.impl.Welcome"> <property name="successView"> <value>welcome</value> </property> <property name="catalogFacadeImpl"><ref local="**categoryDAOTarget**"/> </property> </bean> Is it posible some how? Thank you!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 553 554 555 556 557 558 559 560 561 562 563 564  | Next Page >