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• Importing external .jar file to Android project

  - by robintw

  I've read various answers to similar questions on StackOverflow, so I apologise if I'm repeating another question, but I can't seem to get this to work. I have a standard java project in which I've written code to parse some BBC Radio XML data from the internet. The project is called BBCSchedules and the class I'm interested in is called BBCChannel. I'm now trying to use the BBCChannel class in an android application. How should I go about doing this? I've tried various things, following various bits of advice on the internet, and the place I've got to at the moment is compiling my BBCSchedules project to a .jar file, and importing that to the Android project using the Build Path/Library/Add External Jar option. However, Eclispe still doesn't recognise the BBCChannel class, and won't let me run the application because of this. I guess I've done something silly wrong, but what is it? Cheers, Robin UPDATE: I've tried the steps listed in http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1334802/how-can-i-use-external-jars-in-an-android-project and various other StackOverflow questions I can find that seem to be related to this, but absolutely nothing seems to work. Any other ideas? UPDATE: The discussions I've had with the author of the first answer below suggest that it is something to do with how I am using Eclipse to attach the .jar file. The project he sent me with the .jar file already attached didn't work. Any other ideas anyone?

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• Mapping one column in a table to multiple tables

  - by user1721814

  I am working on a new product development creating a WMS system. I have done it in past using ASP, VB, and other techniques where we did not hard code the mapping. But now i am working on it using MVC and entity frame work and i am stumped. How can i map one column in transaction table to a column in multiple tables. I have transaction table trans Transid orderref TType productid qty ....(More Columns) now the orderref will hold either Receiptkey, orderkey , movementkey, adjustmentkey and the TType column will tell me which type of transaction i am dealing with and based on that i would know which table to link further. Now how can i achieve this in Entity Frame work. This is the most important step. I have done this many times in my other languages but now using EF i am stuck. Please help. I have checked a lot online but i have not found it. I am new to MVC and entity frame work architecture. Any guidance would be highly appreciated. Ranjit

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• Run-time error 459 when using WithEvents with a class that implements another

  - by Ken Keenan

  I am developing a VBA project in Word and have encountered a problem with handling events when using a class that implements another. I define an empty class, IMyInterface: Public Sub Xyz() End Sub Public Event SomeEvent() And a class, MyClass that implements the above: Implements IMyInterface Public Event SomeEvent() Public Sub Xyz() ' ... code ... RaiseEvent SomeEvent End Sub Private Sub IMyInterface_Xyz() Xyz End Sub If I create a third class, OtherClass, that declares a member variable with the type of the interface class: Private WithEvents mMy As IMyInterface and try to initialize this variable with an instance of the implementing class: Set mMy = New MyClass I get a run-time error '459': This component doesn't support this set of events. The MSDN page for this error message states: "You tried to use a WithEvents variable with a component that can't work as an event source for the specified set of events. For example, you may be sinking events of an object, then create another object that Implements the first object. Although you might think you could sink the events from the implemented object, that isn't automatically the case. Implements only implements an interface for methods and properties." The above pretty much sums up what I'm trying to do. The wording, "that isn't automatically the case", rather than "this is flat-out impossible", seems to suggest that there is some bit of manual work I need to do to get it to work, but it doesn't tell me what! Does anybody know if this is possible in VBA?

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• Question about the benefit of using an ORM

  - by johnny

  I want to use an ORM for learning purposes and am try nhibernate. I am using the tutorial and then I have a real project. I can go the "old way" or use an ORM. I'm not sure I totally understand the benefit. On the one hand I can create my abstractions in code such that I can change my databases and be database independent. On the other it seems that if I actually change the database columns I have to change all my code. Why wouldn't I have my application without the ORM, change my database and change my code, instead of changing my database, orm, and code? Is it that they database structure doesn't change that much? I believe there are real benefits because ORMs are used by so many. I'm just not sure I get it yet. Thank you. EDIT: In the tutorial they have many files that are used to make the ORM work http://www.hibernate.org/362.html In the event of an application change, it seems like a lot of extra work just to say that I have "proper" abstraction layers. Because I'm new at it it doesn't look that easy to maintain and again seems like extra work, not less.

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• Run arbitrary subprocesses on Windows and still terminate cleanly?

  - by Weeble

  I have an application A that I would like to be able to invoke arbitrary other processes as specified by a user in a configuration file. Batch script B is one such process a user would like to be invoked by A. B sets up some environment variables, shows some messages and invokes a compiler C to do some work. Does Windows provide a standard way for arbitrary processes to be terminated cleanly? Suppose A is run in a console and receives a CTRL+C. Can it pass this on to B and C? Suppose A runs in a window and the user tries to close the window, can it cancel B and C? TerminateProcess is an option, but not a very good one. If A uses TerminateProcess on B, C keeps running. This could cause nasty problems if C is long-running, since we might start another instance of C to operate on the same files while the first instance of C is still secretly at work. In addition, TerminateProcess doesn't result in a clean exit. GenerateConsoleCtrlEvent sounds nice, and might work when everything's running in a console, but the documentation says that you can only send CTRL+C to your own console, and so wouldn't help if A were running in a window. Is there any equivalent to SIGINT on Windows? I would love to find an article like this one: http://www.cons.org/cracauer/sigint.html for Windows.

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• iptables : how to allow incoming ftp traffic?

  - by logansama

  Hi, Still fighting my way through the jungle that is called iptables. I have managed to allow FTP access outside of our LAN: both these would work. NOTE: eth0 is the LAN interface and eth1 is the WAN interface. iptables -t filter -A FORWARD -i eth0 -p tcp --dport 20:21 -j ACCEPT or iptables -A FORWARD -i eth0 -o eth1 -p tcp --sport 20:21 --dport 1024:65535 -j ACCEPT But when i connect to a external FTP server i manage to log in and all is fine until it wishes to List the directory content. Then nothing happens as the data is blocked, due to the fact that i do not have a rule set up to allow it! (my last rule on the FORWARD chain is to block all traffic) I have tried a gazillion rules (many of which i did not understand) to try and allow the FTP traffic back through my server. One such rule for example was: iptables -A FORWARD -i eth1 -o eth0 -p tcp --sport 20:21 --dport 1024:65535 -j ACCEPT But i cannot get the List to work. It just times out after a while. Would anyone perhaps know how to build a rule which would allow FTP to List / allow such traffic back? Or have a link to sources i could work through? Thank you,

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• How to deal with seniors' bad coding style/practices?

  - by KaluSingh Gabbar

  I am new to work but the company I work in hires a lot of non-comp-science people who are smart enough to get the work done (complex) but lack the style and practices that should help other people read their code. For example they adopt C++ but still use C-like 3 page functions which drives new folks nuts when they try to read that. Also we feel very risky changing it as it's never easy to be sure we are not breaking something. Now, I am involved in the project with these guys and I can't change the entire code base myself or design so that code looks good, what can I do in this situation? PS we actually have 3 page functions & because we do not have a concept of design, all we can do is assume what they might have thought as there is no way to know why is it designed the way it is. I am not complaining.I am asking for suggestion,already reading some books to solve the issues Pragmatic Programmer; Design portion from B.Stroustrup; Programming and principles by B.Stroustrup;

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• flex data provider not working if XML has single node value or less

  - by Rees

  hello, i get this error when i retrieve an XML that only has 1 node (no repeating nodes) and i try to store in an ArrayCollection. -When I have MORE than 1 "name" nodes...i do NOT get an error. My test show that XMLListCollection does NOT work either. TypeError: Error #1034: Type Coercion failed: cannot convert "XXXXXX" to mx.collections.ArrayCollection. this error occurs as the line of code: myList= e.result.list.name; Why can't ArrayCollection work with a single node? I'm using this ArrayCollection as a dataprovider for a Component -is there an alternative I can use that will take BOTH single and repeating nodes as well as work as a dataprovider? Thanks in advance! code: [Bindable] private var myList:ArrayCollection= new ArrayCollection(); private function getList(e:Event):void{ var getStudyLoungesService:HTTPService = new HTTPService(); getStuffService.url = "website.com/asdf.php"; getStuffService.addEventListener(ResultEvent.RESULT, onGetList); getStuffService.send(); } private function onGetList(e:ResultEvent):void{ myList= e.result.list.name; }

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• Why won't WPF databindings show text when ToString() has a collaborating object?

  - by Jay

  In a simple form, I bind to a number of different objects -- some go in listboxes; some in textblocks. A couple of these objects have collaborating objects upon which the ToString() method calls when doing its work -- typically a formatter of some kind. When I step through the code I see that when the databinding is being set up, ToString() is called the collaborating object is not null and returns the expected result when inspected in the debugger, the objects return the expected result from ToString() BUT the text does not show up in the form. The only common thread I see is that these use a collaborating object, whereas the other bindings that show up as expected simply work from properties and methods of the containing object. If this is confusing, here is the gist in code: public class ThisThingWorks { private SomeObject some_object; public ThisThingWorks(SomeObject s) { some_object = s; } public override string ToString() { return some_object.name; } } public class ThisDoesntWork { private Formatter formatter; private SomeObject some_object; public ThisDoesntWork(SomeObject o, Formatter f) { formatter = f; some_object = o; } public override string ToString() { return formatter.Format(some_object.name); } } Again, let me reiterate -- the ToString() method works in every other context -- but when I bind to the object in WPF and expect it to display the result of ToString(), I get nothing. Update: The issue seems to be what I see as a buggy behaviour in the TextBlock binding. If I bind the Text property to a property of the DataContext that is declared as an interface type, ToString() is never called. If I change the property declaration to an implementation of the interface, it works as expected. Other controls, like Label work fine when binding the Content property to a DataContext property declared as either the implementation or the interface. Because this is so far removed from the title and content of this question, I've created a new question here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2917878/why-doesnt-textblock-databinding-call-tostring-on-a-property-whose-compile-tim

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• XML jquery shortcuts

  - by Llamabomber

  I am writing a bit of code that appends my site nav with and extra ul that gives a description about where that link takes you. I need to use our CMS's built in Nav structure so appending via jQuery was the best solution, and XML makes the data easier to manage. My question is this: is there a more efficient way to write out the js? What I have so far is this: $(document).ready(function() { $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "/js/sitenav.xml", dataType: "xml", success: function parseXml(xml) { // WORK $(xml).find("CaseStudies").each(function() { $("li#case_studies").append('<ul><li>' + $(this).find("NavImage").text() + $(this).find("NavHeader").text() + $(this).find("NavDescription").text() + $(this).find("NavLink").text() + "</li></ul>"); }); }; }); }); and the xml structure resembles this: <SiteNav> <Work> <CaseStudies> <NavImage></NavImage> <NavHeader></NavHeader> <NavDescription></NavDescription> <NavLink></NavLink> </CaseStudies> </Work> </SiteNav> I'm happy with my xml structure, but is there a more compact/efficient method of writing out the code for the jqeury? Every li in the nav has a unique id as well in case that helps...

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• Make TBODY scrollable in Webkit browsers

  - by Andrew

  I'm aware of this question, but none of the answers work in Safari, Chrome, etc. The accepted strategy (as demonstrated here) is to set the tbody height and overflow properties like so: <table> <thead> <tr><th>This is the header and doesn't scroll</th></tr> </thead> <tbody style="height:100px; overflow:auto;"> <tr><td>content that scrolls</td></tr> <tr><td>content that scrolls</td></tr> <tr><td>content that scrolls</td></tr> <tr><td>content that scrolls</td></tr> <tr><td>content that scrolls</td></tr> <tr><td>content that scrolls</td></tr> <tr><td>content that scrolls</td></tr> </tbody> </table> Unfortunately, this does not work in any webkit browsers. There is a bug report about it that doesn't seem to be a high priority (reported June 05). So my question is: are there alternate strategies that do actually work? I've tried the two-table approach, but it's impossible to guarantee that the header will line up with the content. Do I just have to wait for Webkit to fix it?

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• How to access a web service behind a NAT?

  - by jr

  We have a product we are deploying to some small businesses. It is basically a RESTful API over SSL using Tomcat. This is installed on the server in the small business and is accessed via an iPhone or other device portable device. So, the devices connecting to the server could come from any number of IP addresses. The problem comes with the installation. When we install this service, it seems to always become a problem when doing port forwarding so the outside world can gain access to tomcat. It seems most time the owner doesn't know router password, etc, etc. I am trying to research other ways we can accomplish this. I've come up with the following and would like to hear other thoughts on the topic. Setup a SSH tunnel from each client office to a central server. Basically the remote devices would connect to that central server on a port and that traffic would be tunneled back to Tomcat in the office. Seems kind of redundant to have SSH and then SSL, but really no other way to accomplish it since end-to-end I need SSL (from device to office). Not sure of performance implications here, but I know it would work. Would need to monitor the tunnel and bring it back up if it goes done, would need to handle SSH key exchanges, etc. Setup uPNP to try and configure the hole for me. Would likely work most of the time, but uPNP isn't guaranteed to be turned on. May be a good next step. Come up with some type of NAT transversal scheme. I'm just not familiar with these and uncertain of how they exactly work. We have access to a centralized server which is required for the authentication if that makes it any easier. What else should I be looking at to get this accomplished?

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• need help with mvc & routes

  - by geoff

  I'm very new to MVC and I'm trying to get a new site set up using it. For SEO reasons we need to make the url of a page something like "Recruiter/4359/John_Smith" or basically {controller}/{id}/{name}. I have that working when I create the url in the code behind like so... //r is a recruiter object that is part of the results for the view r.Summary = searchResult.Summary + "... &lt;a href=\"/Recruiter/" + r.Id + "/" + r.FirstName + "_" + r.LastName + "\"&gt;Read More&lt;/a&gt;" But when I am using the collection of results from a search in my view and iterating through them I am trying to create another link to the same page doing something like <%=Html.ActionLink<RecruiterController>(x => x.Detail((int)r.Id), r.RecruiterName)%> but that doesn't work. When I use that code in the view it gives me a url in the form of /Recruiter/Detail/4359 I was told by a coworker that I should use the Html.ActionLink to create the link in both the view and the controller so that if the route changes in the future it will automatically work. Unfortunately he wasn't sure how to do that in this case. So, my problems are... How can I make the Html.ActionLink work in the view to create a url like I need (like r.Summary above)? How do I use the Html.ActionLink in a controller instead of hardcoding the link like I have above?

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• Telerik chart not loading correctly in new window (ajax issue?)

  - by Phillip Schmidt

  I have a page which contains user controls with Telerik Charts (grids also, but they work fine). From this page, the user can click on a button to be redirected to a "Printer-Friendly Version" type page, which opens a new window via javascript and goes through a slightly different view (for formatting and stuff), but the telerik code is all the same. The problem is, my Chart displays just fine in the original window, but the new window displays basically an empty chart with no data. This bug is only present in IE, and only applies to Charts. Grids work fine, for whatever reason. I'm thinking this is due to differences in script caching between browsers -- correct me if I'm wrong, I'm semi-new to client-directed web development. Anyway I read somewhere that Telerik has issues with loading data and/or js files when loaded via ajax, so maybe that's the problem? If so, how could I get around this? And if not, any ideas on what could be causing this issue? It's causing me a great deal of frustration, since a print preview page seems like it should be the easiest of jobs. Edit: The charts are being rendered as html (if somebody can explain how to render them as images, that would be awesome). And dev tools shows basically the same thing between chrome and IE. Whenever my web service goes back up ill WinMerge them and look for any peculiarities/differences between them. In the mean time, though, the "render as an image" concept sounds promising. That way I could just save the image from the first page, and insert it right into the print preview page, right?. And since it's a print-preview page, it's not going to need to be interactive or anything, so that'd work out nicely. Another (important) Edit: These are probably the culprit... And here is a little more detail on that: And here is a side-by-side of it working(in chrome) and not working (in IE):

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• Trouble accessing data in relationships in Ember

  - by user3618430

  I'm having trouble saving data in this model relationship. My models are as follows: App.Flow = DS.Model.extend({ title: DS.attr('string'), content: DS.attr('string'), isCustom: DS.attr('boolean'), params: DS.hasMany('parameter', {async: true}) }); App.Parameter = DS.Model.extend({ flow: DS.belongsTo('flow'), param: DS.attr('string'), param_tooltip: DS.attr('string'), param_value: DS.attr('string') }); As you can see, I want Flows to have multiple Parameters. I have a rudimentary setup using Flow and Parameter fixtures, which behave as expected in the templates. However, when I try to create new ones in the controller, I have trouble setting the flow and parameter values correctly. var p = this.store.createRecord('parameter', { param: "foo", param_tooltip: "world", param_value: "hello" }); var f = this.store.createRecord('flow', { title: 'job', content: title, isCustom: true, params: [p] // doesn't seem to work }); f.set('params', [p]); // doesn't seem to work p.set('flow', f); // also doesn't seem to work // Save the new model p.save(); f.save(); I've tried a lot of solutions after staring at this and StackOverflow for a while (not just the ones listed). I'm not really sure what to try next. One thing that I noticed in the Ember inspector was that the ids of these created elements were not integers (they were something like the string 'fixture_0'), but I'm not really sure why that would be, whether its related, or how to fix it. Thanks!

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• NSFetchedResultsController didn't return data

  - by Dmitry Kochkin

  Hello! I get stuck in some problem and after 2 days of seeking I've found solution but didn't get idea why does it work. First, I'm initialized NSFetchedResultsController using following code (it look like a lot of automatically generated): - (NSFetchedResultsController *)fetchedResultsController { if (fetchedResultsController != nil) return fetchedResultsController; NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Profile" inManagedObjectContext:self.managedObjectContext]; [fetchRequest setEntity:entity]; [fetchRequest setFetchBatchSize:20]; NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"lastName" ascending:YES]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [fetchRequest setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; NSFetchedResultsController *aFetchedResultsController = [[NSFetchedResultsController alloc] initWithFetchRequest:fetchRequest managedObjectContext:self.managedObjectContext sectionNameKeyPath:nil cacheName:@"Root"]; aFetchedResultsController.delegate = self; self.fetchedResultsController = aFetchedResultsController; NSError *error = nil; //[aFetchedResultsController performFetch:&error]; [aFetchedResultsController release]; [fetchRequest release]; [sortDescriptor release]; [sortDescriptors release]; return fetchedResultsController; } Have a look at commented string - there wasn't any of these strings and when I asked for data - I didn't get any (and it was there!). When I've uncommented that line, it starts work. Seems evident, but all examples I saw before hadn't that line. And they work. How can it be? I just want to know what am I doing wrong.

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• Just 2 free months 2 learn or improve my skills

  - by microspino

  On the 30 of June I will leave my every day work to start as freelance developer. I'd like to set a period of 2 months apart to improve my dev skills. At work I code in C# and during my spare time I enjoyed building Ruby on Rails web applications and creating some Arduino prototypes. I'm something more than junior but I don't feel really a senior developer because I never had a big corporate project built and designed by me with help of other juniors (although I don't think this is really a good definiton of a "senior", It helps describing my feelings). Using a scale from 0 (ignorant) to 10 (proficient like a "samurai") the list below describes my skills that I would like to improve with just 2 months. I've already bought some nice and updated books on all the subjects hereunder: The order doesn't matter C = 1 C# & .Net = 6 Arduino & Processing = 2 Ruby = 5 Rails = 5 HTML/XHTML/CSS = 9 Javascript = 6 Objective-C/iPhone dev = 2 Python = 4 Django = 4 Desing Patterns = 3 Algorythms = 3 Git = 5 I haven't included SQL or Databases in general nor Networking because I spent 10 years working in the past with them and I feel pretty solid for now. As an aside, I've made up some interest in Redis, Node.js, HTML5 reading about them on the web. After two months, since I have to pay my bills, I could go searching for some new job. If learning and developing were really good maybe I could also invest on something I gave birth during them. Can You give me some piece of advice on which you think It's better to improve or develop a learning project on (something like a "summer of code" thing)? The all point Is to see my weeknesses and work on them.

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• Git repos over multiple machines - backups and keeping in sync

  - by a-or-b

  I'm new to git so please feel free to RTFM me... I have multiple development sites (none of which can communicate via a network with each other) and am working on a few projects (with a few people) at any one time. What I would ideally have is at each site a centralized repository that can be pulled from but development would occur in our own (personal) repos. Then I would like to be able to sync across the centralized repos (via USB key for example). I want a centralized repo at each location as (1) I'm new to git and do break my (personal) local repo by playing around and (2) some projects get put on hold so I want to be able to free up disk space by deleting them. This is the "backup" part of my question. I was also hoping to be able to use 'git clone --bare' for my centralized repos (and the USB key repos to?) as we don't need the full checkout, just the git benefits. However I can't seem to get a bare repo to work as repo I can push from. I've used 'git remote' to set up an remote origin (similar to http://toolmantim.com/thoughts/setting_up_a_new_remote_git_repository) but I can't get 'git push' to work - it seems I need a checked-out repo. . Does anyone else use this sort of repo/development structure or is there something fundamental about git usage that I'm missing? . A solution that I thought about that might not work - If I had a 'git clone --bare' at each site and then use a git repo on my removable media which has remotes set up for each site then I could ('pull') sync my USB key with each repo. But then can I update the site repo from my USB key? Could I push from USB?

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• How to make a self contained jQuery plugin that finds the tallest image height?

  - by Jannis

  I have been trying to make this to be a little jQuery plugin that I can reuse in the future without having to write the following into my actions.js file in full. This works when loaded in the same file where I set the height using my variable tallest. var tallest = null; $('.slideshow img').each(function(index) { if ($(this).height() >= tallest ) { tallest = $(this).height(); } }); $('.slideshow').height(tallest); This works and will cycle through all the items, then set the value of tallest to the greatest height found. The following however does not work: This would be the plugin, loaded from its own file (before the actions.js file that contains the parts using this): (function($){ $.fn.extend({ tallest: function() { var tallest = null; return this.each(function() { if ($(this).height() >= tallest ) { tallest = $(this).height(); } }); } }); })(jQuery); Once loaded I am trying to use it as follows: $('.slideshow img').tallest(); $('.slideshow').height(tallest); However the above two lines return an error of 'tallest is undefined'. How can I make this work? Any ideas would be appreciated. Thinking about this even more the perfect usage of this would be as follows: $('.container').height(tallest('.container item')); But I wouldn't even know where to begin to get this to work in the manner that you pass the object to be measured into the function by adding it into the brackets of the function name. Thanks for reading, Jannis

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• Why do R objects not print in a function or a "for" loop?

  - by Sal Leggio

  I have an R matrix named ddd. When I enter this, everything works fine: i <- 1 shapiro.test(ddd[,y]) ad.test(ddd[,y]) stem(ddd[,y]) print(y) The calls to Shapiro Wilk, Anderson Darling, and stem all work, and extract the same column. If I put this code in a "for" loop, the calls to Shapiro Wilk, and Anderson Darling stop working, while the the stem & leaf call and the print call continue to work. for (y in 7:10) { shapiro.test(ddd[,y]) ad.test(ddd[,y]) stem(ddd[,y]) print(y) } The decimal point is 1 digit(s) to the right of the | 0 | 0 0 | 899999 1 | 0 [1] 7 The same thing happens if I try and write a function. SW & AD do not work. The other calls do. > D <- function (y) { + shapiro.test(ddd[,y]) + ad.test(ddd[,y]) + stem(ddd[,y]) + print(y) } > D(9) The decimal point is at the | 9 | 000 9 | 10 | 00000 [1] 9 Why don't all the calls behave the same way?

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• Behavior difference between UIView.subviews and [NSView subviews]

  - by zpasternack

  I have a piece of code in an iPhone app, which removes all subviews from a UIView subclass. It looks like this: NSArray* subViews = self.subviews; for( UIView *aView in subViews ) { [aView removeFromSuperview]; } This works fine. In fact, I never really gave it much thought until I tried nearly the same thing in a Mac OS X app (from an NSView subclass): NSArray* subViews = [self subviews]; for( NSView *aView in subViews ) { [aView removeFromSuperview]; } That totally doesn’t work. Specifically, at runtime, I get this: *** Collection <NSCFArray: 0x1005208a0> was mutated while being enumerated. I ended up doing it like so: NSArray* subViews = [[self subviews] copy]; for( NSView *aView in subViews ) { [aView removeFromSuperview]; } [subViews release]; That's fine. What’s bugging me, though, is why does it work on the iPhone? subviews is a copy property: @property(nonatomic,readonly,copy) NSArray *subviews; My first thought was, maybe @synthesize’d getters return a copy when the copy attribute is specified. The doc is clear on the semantics of copy for setters, but doesn’t appear to say either way for getters (or at least, it’s not apparent to me). And actually, doing a few tests of my own, this clearly does not seem to be the case. Which is good, I think returning a copy would be problematic, for a few reasons. So the question is: how does the above code work on the iPhone? NSView is clearly returning a pointer to the actual array of subviews, and perhaps UIView isn’t. Perhaps it’s simply an implementation detail of UIView, and I shouldn’t get worked up about it. Can anyone offer any insight?

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• How to check if there is an active session in a JSF page?

  - by Roberto de Santis

  Hi, there is a way to check if there is an active session directly in jsf page? I have try this but it doesn't work: <p:ajaxStatus onerror="#{session == null ? 'idleDialog.show();' : null}" thank you in advance @Update I have see that onerror isn't fired even if viewExpiredException occurr. @Update 1 Ok i have implemented something that may work: <h:form> <p:idleMonitor timeout="10000" idleListener="#{idleMonitorController.idleListener}" onidle="sessionPoll.stop();idleDialog.show();"/> </h:form> <p:dialog header="Sessione scaduta per inattività" widgetVar="idleDialog" modal="true" width="400"> <h:outputText value="Sessione scaduta" /> <h:button value="Ripristina Sessione" onclick="idleDialog.hide();sessionPoll.start();" /> </p:dialog> <h:form prependId="false"> <p:poll widgetVar="sessionPoll" interval="1"/> </h:form> and this is the listner: public void idleListener(IdleEvent event) { System.out.println("aaaa"); final HttpServletRequest request = (HttpServletRequest) FacesContext.getCurrentInstance().getExternalContext().getRequest(); request.getSession(false).invalidate(); } now the only problem is that the session.invalidate doesn't work

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• Thread synchronization and aborting.

  - by kubal5003

  Hello, I've got a little problem with ending the work of one of my threads. First things first so here's the app "layout": Thread 1 - worker thread (C++/CLI) - runs and terminates as expected for(...) { try { if(TabuStop) return; System::Threading::Monitor::Enter("Lock1"); //some work, unmanaged code } finally { if(stop) { System::Threading::Monitor::Pulse("Lock1"); } else { System::Threading::Monitor::Pulse("Lock1"); System::Threading::Monitor::Wait("Lock1"); } } } Thread 2 - display results thread (C#) while (WorkerThread.IsAlive) { lock ("Lock1") { if (TabuEngine.TabuStop) { Monitor.Pulse("Lock1"); } else { Dispatcher.BeginInvoke(RefreshAction); Monitor.Pulse("Lock1"); Monitor.Wait("Lock1", 5000); } } // Thread.Sleep(5000); } I'm trying to shut the whole thing down from app main thread like this: TabuEngine.TabuStop = true; //terminates nicely the worker thread and if (DisplayThread.IsAlive) { DisplayThread.Abort(); } I also tried using DisplayThread.Interrupt, but it always blocks on Monitor.Wait("Lock1", 5000); and I can't get rid of it. What is wrong here? How am I supposed to perform the synchronization and let it do the work that it is supposed to do? //edit I'm not even sure now if the trick with using "Lock1" string is really working and locks are placed on the same object..

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• php cURL. preg_match , extract text from xhtml

  - by Michael

  I'm trying to extract the price from the bellow html page/link using php cURL and preg_match . Basically I'm expecting for this code to output 4,550 but for some reasons I get Notice: Undefined offset: 1 in C:\wamp\www\test.php on line 22 I think that the pattern is correct because if I put the html itself in a variable and escape the "" it works ! . Also if I output (echo $result;) it displays the html properly grabbed from foxtons website so I just can't figure it out why the whole thing doesn't work . I need to make this work and also I would appreciate if you would tell me why is that notice generated and why my current script doesn't work. $url = "http://www.foxtons.co.uk/search?bedrooms_from=0&property_id=727717"; $ch = curl_init($url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, 0); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); $result = curl_exec($ch); curl_exec($ch); curl_close($ch); $result2 = str_replace('"', '\"', $result); $tagname1= ");<\/script "; $tagname2= "<\/noscript per month<\/a"; $pattern = "/$tagname1(.*?)$tagname2/"; preg_match($pattern, $result, $matches); $prices = $matches[1]; print_r($prices); ?

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• iphone how to determine and code according to base sdk version?

  - by Nareshkumar

  I have a code for UIImage picker photoImagePicker=[[UIImagePickerController alloc]init]; photoImagePicker.delegate=self; photoImagePicker.sourceType=UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeCamera; photoImagePicker.mediaTypes=[UIImagePickerController availableMediaTypesForSourceType:photoImagePicker.sourceType]; [self presentModalViewController:photoImagePicker animated:YES]; photoImagePicker.showsCameraControls = YES; //Doesnot work on 3.0 photoImagePicker.navigationBarHidden = YES; photoImagePicker.toolbarHidden = YES; photoImagePicker.allowsEditing=YES; //Doesnt work on 3.0 Now everything works fine when the sdk is 3.1 or higher but when i put the os version as 3.0, the code starts showing errors. Turns out these methods were not present in 3.0 and so errors. I want to keep a mechanism which will enable these for higher versions(3.1) and at the same time work properly for 3.0 version. How do i do it? One solution i have thought of is to verify the version value and then put that code. But i am not sure how this is got. Any help will be appreciated.

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