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  • .change(function) can control two command

    - by klox
    dear all..i've a textfield, it using barcode scanner for input data..after scan it shows KD-R411ED 105X0001... I'm successful separate them into two text field use ".change(function)" $("#tags1").change(function() { var barcode; barCode=$("#tags1").val(); var data=barCode.split(" "); $("#tags1").val(data[0]); $("#tags2").val(data[1]); }); what i want is beside make them separate after ".change(function)" another script can read two character behind "KD-R411ED"..that is "ED"..this character can make a radiobutton which id="check1" are checked.. what's code which can combine with code above? this my complete code.. $("#tags1").change(function() { var barcode; barCode=$("#tags1").val(); var data=barCode.split(" "); $("#tags1").val(data[0]); $("#tags2").val(data[1]); var code = data[0].substr(data[0].length - 2); // suggested by Jan Willem B if (code =='UD') $('#check1').attr('checked','checked'); } else { if (code == 'ED') { $('#check2').attr('checked','checked'); } } and this the form <input id="check1" type="radio" class="check" name="check" onclick="addtext()" value="U" />U <input id="check2" type="radio" class="check" name="check" onclick="addtext_1()" value="E" />E the radiobutton still not response

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  • Coding Practices which enable the compiler/optimizer to make a faster program.

    - by EvilTeach
    Many years ago, C compilers were not particularly smart. As a workaround K&R invented the register keyword, to hint to the compiler, that maybe it would be a good idea to keep this variable in an internal register. They also made the tertiary operator to help generate better code. As time passed, the compilers matured. They became very smart in that their flow analysis allowing them to make better decisions about what values to hold in registers than you could possibly do. The register keyword became unimportant. FORTRAN can be faster than C for some sorts of operations, due to alias issues. In theory with careful coding, one can get around this restriction to enable the optimizer to generate faster code. What coding practices are available that may enable the compiler/optimizer to generate faster code? Identifying the platform and compiler you use, would be appreciated. Why does the technique seem to work? Sample code is encouraged. Here is a related question [Edit] This question is not about the overall process to profile, and optimize. Assume that the program has been written correctly, compiled with full optimization, tested and put into production. There may be constructs in your code that prohibit the optimizer from doing the best job that it can. What can you do to refactor that will remove these prohibitions, and allow the optimizer to generate even faster code? [Edit] Offset related link

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  • how to return response from post in a variable? jQuery

    - by robertdd
    i use this function to return the response of post: $.sendpost = function(){ return jQuery.post('inc/operations.php', {'operation':'test'}, "json"); }, i want to make something like this: in: $.another = function(){ var sendpost = $.sendpost(); alert(sendpost); } but i get: [object XMLHttpRequest] if i print the object with: jQuery.each(sendpost, function(i, val) { $(".displaydetails").append(i + " => " + val + "<br/>"); }); i get: details abort => function () { x && h.call(x); g("abort"); } dispatchEvent => function dispatchEvent() { [native code] } removeEventListener => function removeEventListener() { [native code] } open => function open() { [native code] } setRequestHeader => function setRequestHeader() { [native code] } onreadystatechange => [xpconnect wrapped nsIDOMEventListener] send => function send() { [native code] } readyState => 4 status => 200 getResponseHeader => function getResponseHeader() { [native code] } responseText => mdaaa from php how to return only the response in the variable?

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  • c++ Design pattern for CoW, inherited classes, and variable shared data?

    - by krunk
    I've designed a copy-on-write base class. The class holds the default set of data needed by all children in a shared data model/CoW model. The derived classes also have data that only pertains to them, but should be CoW between other instances of that derived class. I'm looking for a clean way to implement this. If I had a base class FooInterface with shared data FooDataPrivate and a derived object FooDerived. I could create a FooDerivedDataPrivate. The underlying data structure would not effect the exposed getters/setters API, so it's not about how a user interfaces with the objects. I'm just wondering if this is a typical MO for such cases or if there's a better/cleaner way? What peeks my interest, is I see the potential of inheritance between the the private data classes. E.g. FooDerivedDataPrivate : public FooDataPrivate, but I'm not seeing a way to take advantage of that polymorphism in my derived classes. class FooDataPrivate { public: Ref ref; // atomic reference counting object int a; int b; int c; }; class FooInterface { public: // constructors and such // .... // methods are implemented to be copy on write. void setA(int val); void setB(int val); void setC(int val); // copy constructors, destructors, etc. all CoW friendly private: FooDataPrivate *data; }; class FooDerived : public FooInterface { public: FooDerived() : FooInterface() {} private: // need more shared data for FooDerived // this is the ???, how is this best done cleanly? };

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  • GridView will not update underlying data source

    - by John Christensen
    So I'm been pounding on this problem all day. I've got a LinqDataSource that points to my model and a GridView that consumes it. When I attempt to do an update on the GridView, it does not update the underlying data source. I thought it might have to do with the LinqDataSource, so I added a SqlDataSource and the same thing happens. The aspx is as follows (the code-behind page is empty): <asp:SqlDataSource ID="SqlDataSource1" runat="server" ConnectionString="Data Source=devsql32;Initial Catalog=Steam;Persist Security Info=True;" ProviderName="System.Data.SqlClient" SelectCommand="SELECT [LangID], [Code], [Name] FROM [Languages]" UpdateCommand="UPDATE [Languages] SET [Code]=@Code WHERE [LangID]=@LangId"> </asp:SqlDataSource> <asp:GridView ID="_languageGridView" runat="server" AllowPaging="True" AllowSorting="True" AutoGenerateColumns="False" DataKeyNames="LangId" DataSourceID="SqlDataSource1"> <Columns> <asp:CommandField ShowDeleteButton="True" ShowEditButton="True" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="LangId" HeaderText="Id" ReadOnly="True" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="Code" HeaderText="Code" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="Name" HeaderText="Name" /> </Columns> </asp:GridView> <asp:LinqDataSource ID="_languageDataSource" ContextTypeName="GeneseeSurvey.SteamDatabaseDataContext" runat="server" TableName="Languages" EnableInsert="True" EnableUpdate="true" EnableDelete="true"> </asp:LinqDataSource> What in the world am I missing here? This problem is driving me insane.

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  • C++ - passing references to boost::shared_ptr

    - by abigagli
    If I have a function that needs to work with a shared_ptr, wouldn't it be more efficient to pass it a reference to it (so to avoid copying the shared_ptr object)? What are the possible bad side effects? I envision two possible cases: 1) inside the function a copy is made of the argument, like in ClassA::take_copy_of_sp(boost::shared_ptr<foo> &sp) { ... m_sp_member=sp; //This will copy the object, incrementing refcount ... } 2) inside the function the argument is only used, like in Class::only_work_with_sp(boost::shared_ptr<foo> &sp) //Again, no copy here { ... sp->do_something(); ... } I can't see in both cases a good reason to pass the boost::shared_ptr by value instead of by reference. Passing by value would only "temporarily" increment the reference count due to the copying, and then decrement it when exiting the function scope. Am I overlooking something? Andrea. EDIT: Just to clarify, after reading several answers : I perfectly agree on the premature-optimization concerns, and I alwasy try to first-profile-then-work-on-the-hotspots. My question was more from a purely technical code-point-of-view, if you know what I mean.

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  • How to overcome the programmer's block ?

    - by Nicolas Dorier
    How do you do when, during the development of your application, you can't decide yourself what to do next. You have no problem technically speaking, you have no problem to write clean code BUT you have a problem to decide yourself on what to code now. And you spend time thinking and thinking again on your design, in the car, in the shower, and you cannot write a single line of code... I think we call this "analysis paralysis". I hate being in this state ! How can you avoid this ? How do you do to not fall in this state ? I think this occurs when we are writting a big chunk of code with no visible improvement, but I'm not sure... UPDATE Like some of you said, this problem is also what we call the "programmer's block" (analogy with the writer's block). Doing some TDD doesn't help because I'm stuck, I can't decide myself what class to code, what methods to put inside (even a name of method). Though I admit that it helps to break a big chunk of code into smaller ones. Like Talesh said my head becomes full of "what-if".

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  • Can I commit changes to actual database while debugging C# in Visual Studio?

    - by nathant23
    I am creating a C# application using Visual Studio that uses an SQLExpress database. When I hit f5 to debug the application and make changes to the database I believe what is happening is there is a copy of the database in the bin/debug folder that changes are being made to. However, when I stop the debugging and then hit f5 the next time a new copy of the database is being put in the bin/debug folder so that all the changes made the last time are gone. My question is: Is there a way that when I am debugging the application I can have it make changes to the actual database and those changes are actually saved or will it only make changes to the copy in the bin/debug folder (if that is what is actually happening)? I've seen similar questions, but I couldn't find an answer that said if it's possible to make those changes persistent in the actual .mdf file. The reason I ask is because as I build this application I am continuously adding pieces and testing to make sure they all work together. When I put in test data I am using actual data that I would like to stay in the database. This would just help me not have to reenter the data later. Thanks in advance for any help or information that could help me better understand the process.

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  • Strange problem with PHP and sessions

    - by Jhorra
    So the basis of this page is I set a session value when the page loads, and clear it on any other page they visit. Then the page can make an ajax call to download a file. If the session value matches the value I pass through the URL I allow them to download the file. If not I return a 404 error. I was having some weird issues, so I removed the 404 and set it to echo out the values instead to see what I was getting. Here is the top of the code on the page: $code = $this->_request->getParam('code'); $confirm = $_SESSION['mp3_code']; echo $code."-1-".$confirm; if($code != $confirm) echo $code."-2-".$confirm;//header("HTTP/1.1 404 Not Found"); else { Here is what displays on the page from the ajax call 12723430-1-12723430-2- As you can see when it echos out the first time they exist, then somehow after I compare them and it fails you see that it echos out blank values like they suddenly ceased to exist. Any ideas?

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  • What can i use to journal writes to file system

    - by Dmitry
    Hello, all I need to track all writes to files in order to have synchronized version of files on different place (server or just other directory, not considerable). Let it: all files located in same directory feel free to create some system files (e.g. SomeFileName.Ext~temp-data) no one have concurrent access to synced directory; nobody spoil ours meta-files or change real-files before we do postponed writes (like a commits) do not to care recovering "local" changes in case of crash; system can just rolled back to state of "server" by simple copy from it significant to have it transparent to use (so programmer must just call ordinary fopen(), read(), write()) It must be guaranteed that copy of files which "server" have is consistent. That is whole files scope existed in some moment of time. They may be sufficiently outdated but it must be fair snapshot of all files at some time. As i understand i should overload writing logic to collect data in order sent changes to "server". For example writing to temporary File~tmp. And so i have to overload reads in order program could read actual data of file. It would be great if you suggest some existing library (java or c++, it is unimportant) or solution (VCS customizing?). Or give hints how should i write it by myself. edit: After some reading i have more precision requirements: I need COW (Copy-on-write) wrapper for fopen(),fwrite(),.. or interceptor (hook) WriteFile() and other FS api system calls. Log-structured file system in userspace would be a alternative too.

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  • Obj-C: Passing pointers to initialized classes in other classes

    - by FnGreg7
    Hey all. I initialized a class in my singleton called DataModel. Now, from my UIViewController, when I click a button, I have a method that is trying to access that class so that I may add an object to one of its dictionaries. My get/set method passes back the pointer to the class from my singleton, but when I am back in my UIViewController, the class passed back doesn't respond to methods. It's like it's just not there. I think it has something to do with the difference in passing pointers around classes or something. I even tried using the copy method to throw a copy back, but no luck. UIViewController: ApplicationSingleton *applicationSingleton = [[ApplicationSingleton alloc] init]; DataModel *dataModel = [applicationSingleton getDataModel]; [dataModel retrieveDataCategory:dataCategory]; Singleton: ApplicationSingleton *m_instance; DataModel *m_dataModel; - (id) init { NSLog(@"ApplicationSingleton.m initialized."); self = [super init]; if(self != nil) { if(m_instance != nil) { return m_instance; } NSLog(@"Initializing the application singleton."); m_instance = self; m_dataModel = [[DataModel alloc] init]; } NSLog(@"ApplicationSingleton init method returning."); return m_instance; } -(DataModel *)getDataModel { DataModel *dataModel_COPY = [m_dataModel copy]; return dataModel_COPY; } For the getDataModel method, I also tried this: -(DataModel *)getDataModel { return m_dataModel; } In my DataModel retrieveDataCategory method, I couldn't get anything to work. I even just tried putting a NSLog in there but it never would come onto the console. Any ideas?

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  • Memory efficient collection class

    - by Joe
    I'm building an array of dictionaries (called keys) in my iphone application to hold the section names and row counts for a tableview. the code looks like this: [self.results removeAllObjects]; [self.keys removeAllObjects]; NSUInteger i,j = 0; NSString *key = [NSString string]; NSString *prevKey = [NSString string]; if ([self.allResults count] > 0) { prevKey = [NSString stringWithString:[[[self.allResults objectAtIndex:0] valueForKey:@"name"] substringToIndex:1]]; for (NSDictionary *theDict in self.allResults) { key = [NSString stringWithString:[[theDict valueForKey:@"name"] substringToIndex:1]]; if (![key isEqualToString:prevKey]) { NSDictionary *newDictionary = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithInt:i],@"count", prevKey,@"section", [NSNumber numberWithInt:j], @"total",nil]; [self.keys addObject:newDictionary]; prevKey = [NSString stringWithString:key]; i = 1; } else { i++; } j++; } NSDictionary *newDictionary = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithInt:i],@"count", prevKey,@"section", [NSNumber numberWithInt:j], @"total",nil]; [self.keys addObject:newDictionary]; } [self.tableview reloadData]; The code works fine first time through but I sometimes have to rebuild the entire table so I redo this code which orks fine on the simulator, but on my device the program bombs when I execute the reloadData line : malloc: *** mmap(size=3772944384) failed (error code=12) *** error: can't allocate region *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug malloc: *** mmap(size=3772944384) failed (error code=12) *** error: can't allocate region *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_ACCESS”. If I remove the reloadData line the code works on the device. I'm wondering if this is something to do with the way I've built the keys array (ie using autoreleased strings and dictionaries).

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  • Async task ASP.net HttpContext.Current.Items is empty - How do handle this?

    - by GuruC
    We are running a very large web application in asp.net MVC .NET 4.0. Recently we had an audit done and the performance team says that there were a lot of null reference exceptions. So I started investigating it from the dumps and event viewer. My understanding was as follows: We are using Asyn Tasks in our controllers. We rely on HttpContext.Current.Items hashtable to store a lot of Application level values. Task<Articles>.Factory.StartNew(() => { System.Web.HttpContext.Current = ControllerContext.HttpContext.ApplicationInstance.Context; var service = new ArticlesService(page); return service.GetArticles(); }).ContinueWith(t => SetResult(t, "articles")); So we are copying the context object onto the new thread that is spawned from Task factory. This context.Items is used again in the thread wherever necessary. Say for ex: public class SomeClass { internal static int StreamID { get { if (HttpContext.Current != null) { return (int)HttpContext.Current.Items["StreamID"]; } else { return DEFAULT_STREAM_ID; } } } This runs fine as long as number of parallel requests are optimal. My questions are as follows: 1. When the load is more and there are too many parallel requests, I notice that HttpContext.Current.Items is empty. I am not able to figure out a reason for this and this causes all the null reference exceptions. 2. How do we make sure it is not null ? Any workaround if present ? NOTE: I read through in StackOverflow and people have questions like HttpContext.Current is null - but in my case it is not null and its empty. I was reading one more article where the author says that sometimes request object is terminated and it may cause problems since dispose is already called on objects. I am doing a copy of Context object - its just a shallow copy and not a deep copy.

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  • Error occurs while validating form input using jQuery in Firebug

    - by Param-Ganak
    I have written a custom validation code in jQuery, which is working fine. I have a login form which has two fields, i.e. userid and password. I have written a custom code for client side validation for these fields. This code is working fine and gives me proper error messages as per the situation. But the problem with this code is that when I enter the invalid data in any or both field and press submit button of form then it displays the proper error message but at the same time when I checked it in Firebug it displays following error message when submit button of the form is clicked validate is not defined function onclick(event) { javascript: return validate(); } (click clientX=473, clientY=273) Here is the JQUERY validation code $(document).ready(function (){ $("#id_login_form").validate({ rules: { userid: { required: true, minlength: 6, maxlength: 20, // basic: true }, password: { required: true, minlength: 6, maxlength: 15, // basic: true } }, messages: { userid: { required: " Please enter the username.", minlength: "User Name should be minimum 6 characters long.", maxlength: "User Name should be maximum 15 characters long.", // basic: "working here" }, password: { required: " Please enter the password.", minlength: "Password should be minimum 6 characters long.", maxlength: "Password should be maximum 15 characters long.", // basic: "working here too.", } }, errorClass: "errortext", errorLabelContainer: "#messagebox" } }); }); /* $.validator.addMethod('username_alphanum', function (value) { return /^(?![0-9]+$)[a-zA-Z 0-9_.]+$/.test(value); }, 'User name should be alphabetic or Alphanumeric and may contain . and _.'); $.validator.addMethod('alphanum', function (value) { return /^(?![a-zA-Z]+$)(?![0-9]+$)[a-zA-Z 0-9]+$/.test(value); }, 'Password should be Alphanumeric.'); $.validator.addMethod('basic', function (value) { return /^[a-zA-Z 0-9_.]+$/.test(value); }, 'working working working'); */ So please tell me where is I am wrong in my jQuery code. Thank You!

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  • Loading Dimension Tables - Methodologies

    - by Nev_Rahd
    Hello, Recently I been working on project, where need to populated Dim Tables from EDW Tables. EDW Tables are of type II which does maintain historical data. When comes to load Dim Table, for which source may be multiple EDW Tables or would be single table with multi level pivoting (on attributes). Mean: There would be 10 records - one for each attribute which need to be pivoted on domain_code to make a single row in Dim. Out of these 10 records there would be some attributes with same domain_code but with different sub_domain_code, which needs further pivoting on subdomain code. Ex: if i got domain code: 01,02, 03 = which are straight pivot on domain code I would also have domain code: 10 with subdomain code / version as 2006,2007,2008,2009 That means I need to split my source table with above attributes into two = one for domain code and other for domain_code + version. so far so good. When it comes to load Dim Table: As per design specs for Dimensions (originally written by third party), what they want is: for every single change in EDW (attribute), it should assemble all the related records (for that NK) mean new one with other attribute values which are current = process them to create a new dim record and insert it. That mean if a single extract contains 100 records updated (one for each NK), it should assemble 100 + (100*9) records to insert / update dim table. How good is this approach. Other way I tried to do is just do a lookup into dim table for that NK get the value's of recent records (attributes which not changed) and insert it and update the current one. What would be the better approach assembling records at source side for one attribute change or looking into dim table's recent record and process it. If this doesn't make sense, would like to elaborate it further. Thanks

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  • ASP.NET - Accessing copied content

    - by James Kolpack
    I have a class library project which contains some content files configured with the "Copy if newer" copy build action. This results in the files being copied to a folder under ...\bin\ for every project in the solution. In this same solution, I've got a ASP.NET web project (which is MVC, by the way). In the library I have a static constructor load the files into data structures accessible by the web project. Previously I've been including the content as an embedded resource. I now need to be able to replace them without recompiling. I want to access the data in three different contexts: Unit testing the library assembly Debugging the web application Hosting the site in IIS For unit testing, Environment.CurrentDirectory points to a path containing the copied content. When debugging however, it points to C:\Program Files\Microsoft Visual Studio 9.0\Common7\IDE. I've also looked at Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().Location which points to C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\c44f9da4\9238ccc\assembly\dl3\eb4c23b4\9bd39460_f7d4ca01\. What I need is to the physical location of the webroot \bin folder, but since I'm in a static constructor in the library project, I don't have access to a Request.PhysicalApplicationPath. Is there some other environment variable or structure where I can always find my "Copy if newer" files?

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  • Twitter Bootstrap on page tabs: not hiding tab content

    - by user973424
    I'm trying to get the twitter on page tabbed content to work. I have the tabs working with switching around active class on the tabs. I've included jquery and the bootstrap-tabs.js but the following code can't seem to get the tabbed content to hide / display as they should. Any help on what may be a simple fix would be appreciated. <div class="span8"> <ul class="tabs" data-tabs="tabs"> <li class="active"><a href="#2009">2009</a></li> <li><a href="#2010">2010</a></li> <li><a href="#2011">2011</a></li> </ul> <div class="pill-content"> <div class="active" id="2009"> 2009 copy </div> <div id="2010"> 2010 copy </div> <div id="2011"> 2011 copy </div> </div> <script> $(function () { $('.tabs').tabs() }) </script> </div><!-- end span 8 -->

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  • ADO.NET DataTable/DataRow Thread Safety

    - by Allen E. Scharfenberg
    Introduction A user reported to me this morning that he was having an issue with inconsistent results (namely, column values sometimes coming out null when they should not be) of some parallel execution code that we provide as part of an internal framework. This code has worked fine in the past and has not been tampered with lately, but it got me to thinking about the following snippet: Code Sample lock (ResultTable) { newRow = ResultTable.NewRow(); } newRow["Key"] = currentKey; foreach (KeyValuePair<string, object> output in outputs) { object resultValue = output.Value; newRow[output.Name] = resultValue != null ? resultValue : DBNull.Value; } lock (ResultTable) { ResultTable.Rows.Add(newRow); } (No guarantees that that compiles, hand-edited to mask proprietery information.) Explanation We have this cascading type of locking code other places in our system, and it works fine, but this is the first instance of cascading locking code that I have come across that interacts with ADO .NET. As we all know, members of framework objects are usually not thread safe (which is the case in this situation), but the cascading locking should ensure that we are not reading and writing to ResultTable.Rows concurrently. We are safe, right? Hypothesis Well, the cascading lock code does not ensure that we are not reading from or writing to ResultTable.Rows at the same time that we are assigning values to columns in the new row. What if ADO .NET uses some kind of buffer for assigning column values that is not thread safe--even when different object types are involved (DataTable vs. DataRow)? Has anyone run into anything like this before? I thought I would ask here at StackOverflow before beating my head against this for hours on end :) Conclusion Well, the consensus appears to be that changing the cascading lock to a full lock has resolved the issue. That is not the result that I expected, but the full lock version has not produced the issue after many, many, many tests. The lesson: be wary of cascading locks used on APIs that you do not control. Who knows what may be going on under the covers!

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  • Problem with "moveable-only types" in VC++ 2010

    - by Luc Touraille
    I recently installed Visual Studio 2010 Professional RC to try it out and test the few C++0x features that are implemented in VC++ 2010. I instantiated a std::vector of std::unique_ptr, without any problems. However, when I try to populate it by passing temporaries to push_back, the compiler complains that the copy constructor of unique_ptr is private. I tried inserting an lvalue by moving it, and it works just fine. #include <utility> #include <vector> int main() { typedef std::unique_ptr<int> int_ptr; int_ptr pi(new int(1)); std::vector<int_ptr> vec; vec.push_back(std::move(pi)); // OK vec.push_back(int_ptr(new int(2)); // compiler error } As it turns out, the problem is neither unique_ptr nor vector::push_back but the way VC++ resolves overloads when dealing with rvalues, as demonstrated by the following code: struct MoveOnly { MoveOnly() {} MoveOnly(MoveOnly && other) {} private: MoveOnly(const MoveOnly & other); }; void acceptRValue(MoveOnly && mo) {} int main() { acceptRValue(MoveOnly()); // Compiler error } The compiler complains that the copy constructor is not accessible. If I make it public, the program compiles (even though the copy constructor is not defined). Did I misunderstand something about rvalue references, or is it a (possibly known) bug in VC++ 2010 implementation of this feature?

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  • Controlling the alpha of a UIImageView with Slider ..Can' t get it

    - by user1824839
    first i' d like to say this Forum was really helpfull for me that just started coding some weeks ago .. I succeed to do a quite nice app for the moment , than, but i m stuck on this : HOW COULD I CONTROL THE ALPHA OF A UIIMAGEVIEW , WITH A SLIDER EMBEDED IN ANOTHER VIEW ??? ; Basically i' like to do like the alpha slider of this : http://www.edumobile.org/iphone/how-to-make-an-app-2/controlling-a-uiviews-properties-for-ipad/ , but for a UIImageView. I promised i searched for hours , and didnt find how to do it ... Could someone have some minutes to give me ideas ?? Sorry for my poor english too. Thanks if you can. L. The resume of the link i posted, only focussing on the alpha property would be : ( considering a UIView ( View ) embeded in a ViewController ( ViewController ): enter code here ----View.h----- @interface View : UIView @property ( nonatomic, assign ) CGFloat alpha; @end enter code here ----View.m---- @implementation View @synthesize alpha; ?} @end enter code here ------ViewController.h----- import "View.h" @interface ViewController : UIViewController @property (nonatomic, strong) IBOutlet View *view; ?- (IBAction)alphaChanged:(UISlider *)sender; @end enter code here -------ViewController.m------ @interface ViewController () @end @implementation ViewController @synthesize view; (View *)view {?     if (!view) {?        view = [[View alloc] init];?    }?    return view;?} enter code here (IBAction)redChanged:(UISlider *)sender? {?    self.circle.alpha = sender.value;?    [self.circle setNeedsDisplay];?} (void)viewDidLoad ?{?    [super viewDidLoad];?         ?    self.circle.alpha = (CGFloat)1;?} (void)didReceiveMemoryWarning? {?  [super didReceiveMemoryWarning];?    @end enter code here

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  • getSharedPreferences not working for me with concerns to ListPreferences and Integers

    - by ideagent
    I'm stuck at a point where I'm trying to get my project to read a preference value (from a ListPreference listing) and then use that value in a basic mathematical subtraction instance. The problem is that the "seek" preference is not being seen by my Java code, and yet the default value is (I've tried the default value with 3000 and now 0). Am i missing something, is there a bug here, known or unknown? Java code chunk where the issues manifests itself: public static final String PREF_FILE_NAME = "preferences"; seekback.setOnClickListener(new Button.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View view) { try { SharedPreferences preferences = getSharedPreferences(PREF_FILE_NAME, MODE_PRIVATE); Integer storedPreference = preferences.getInt("seek", 0); (mediaPlayer.getCurrentPosition()-storedPreference); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } }); Here are some other code bits for my project: From preferences file: <ListPreference android:entries="@array/seconds" android:entryValues="@array/seconds_values" android:summary="sets the seek interval for the seekback and seekforward buttons" android:title="Seek Interval" android:defaultValue="5000" android:key="@string/seek" From strings file: seek From an array file: Five seconds Fifteen seconds Thirty seconds Sixty seconds 5000 15000 30000 60000 let me know if you need to see more code to figure this one out Thanks in advance for any help that can be offered. I've worked over this issue now for a few hours and I'm burnt, a second pair of eyes on it would be very much appreciated. Arg, not sure how to get the code and plain text to format nicely here, even tried the options, like Code Sample, no luck AndroidCoder

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  • Efficiency of manually written loops vs operator overloads (C++)

    - by Sagekilla
    Hi all, in the program I'm working on I have 3-element arrays, which I use as mathematical vectors for all intents and purposes. Through the course of writing my code, I was tempted to just roll my own Vector class with simple +, -, *, /, etc overloads so I can simplify statements like: for (int i = 0; i < 3; i++) r[i] = r1[i] - r2[i]; // becomes: r = r1 - r2; Which should be more or less identical in generated code. But when it comes to more complicated things, could this really impact my performance heavily? One example that I have in my code is this: Manually written version: for (int j = 0; j < 3; j++) { p.vel[j] = p.oldVel[j] + (p.oldAcc[j] + p.acc[j]) * dt2 + (p.oldJerk[j] - p.jerk[j]) * dt12; p.pos[j] = p.oldPos[j] + (p.oldVel[j] + p.vel[j]) * dt2 + (p.oldAcc[j] - p.acc[j]) * dt12; } Using a Vector class with operator overloads: p.vel = p.oldVel + (p.oldAcc + p.acc) * dt2 + (p.oldJerk - p.jerk) * dt12; p.pos = p.oldPos + (p.oldVel + p.vel) * dt2 + (p.oldAcc - p.acc) * dt12; I am compiling my code for maximum possible speed, as it's extremely important that this code runs quickly and calculates accurately. So will me relying on my Vector's for these sorts of things really affect me? For those curious, this is part of some numerical integration code which is not trivial to run in my program. Any insight would be appreciated, as would any idioms or tricks I'm unaware of.

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  • In Mercurial, can I apply changes from one file to another file in the same branch?

    - by Stephen
    In the good old days of Subversion, I would sometimes derive a new file from an existing one using svn copy. Then if something changed in sections they had in common, I could still use svn merge to update the derived version. To use the example from hginit.com, say the "guac" recipe already exists, and I want to create a "superguac" that includes instructions on how to serve guacamole to 1000 raving soccer fans. Using the process I just described, I could: svn cp guac superguac svn ci -m "Created superguac by copying guac" (edit superguac) svn ci -m "Added instructions for serving 1000 raving soccer fans to superguac" (edit guac) svn ci -m "Fixed a typo in guac" svn merge -r3:4 guac superguac and thus the typo fix would be applied to superguac. Mercurial provides an hg copy command that marks a file as a copy of the original, but I'm not sure the repository structure supports a similar workflow. Here's the same example, and I carefully only edit a single file in the commit I want to use in the merge: hg cp guac superguac hg ci -m "Created superguac by copying guac" (edit superguac) hg ci -m "Added instructions for serving 1000 raving soccer fans to superguac" (edit guac) hg ci -m "Fixed a typo in guac" I now want to apply the change in guac to superguac. Is that possible? If so, what's the right command? Is there a different workflow in Mercurial that achieves the same results (limited to a single branch)?

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  • How to Implement an Interface that Requires Duplicate Member Names?

    - by Will Marcouiller
    I often have to implement some interfaces such as IEnumerable<T> in my code. Each time, when implementing automatically, I encounter the following: public IEnumerator<T> GetEnumerator() { // Code here... } public IEnumerator GetEnumerator1() { // Code here... } Though I have to implement both GetEnumerator() methods, they impossibly can have the same name, even if we understand that they do the same, somehow. The compiler can't treat them as one being the overload of the other, because only the return type differs. When doing so, I manage to set the GetEnumerator1() accessor to private. This way, the compiler doesn't complaint about not implementing the interface member, and I simply throw a NotImplementedException within the method's body. However, I wonder whether it is a good practice, or if I shall proceed differently, as perhaps a method alias or something like so. What is the best approach while implementing an interface such as IEnumerable<T> that requires the implementation of two different methods with the same name? EDIT #1 Does VB.NET reacts differently from C# while implementing interfaces, since in VB.NET it is explicitly implemented, thus forcing the GetEnumerator1(). Here's the code: Public Function GetEnumerator() As System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerator(Of T) Implements System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable(Of T).GetEnumerator // Code here... End Function Public Function GetEnumerator1() As System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerator Implements System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable.GetEnumerator // Code here... End Function Both GetEnumerator() methods are explicitly implemented, and the compile will refuse them to have the same name. Why?

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  • How to create copying items from property values?

    - by Nam Gi VU
    Let's say I have a list of sub paths such as <PropertyGroup> <subPaths>$(path1)\**\*; $(path2)\**\*; $(path3)\file3.txt; </subPaths> </PropertyGroup> I want to copy these files from folder A to folder B (surely we already have all the sub folders/files in A). What I try was: <Target Name="Replace" DependsOnTargets="Replace_Init; Replace_Copy1Path"> </Target> <Target Name="Replace_Init"> <PropertyGroup> <subPaths>$(path1)\**\*; $(path2)\**\*; $(path3)\file3.txt; </subPaths> </PropertyGroup> <ItemGroup> <subPathItems Include="$(subPathFiles.Split(';'))" /> </ItemGroup> </Target> <Target Name="Replace_Copy1Path" Outputs="%(subPathItems.Identity)"> <PropertyGroup> <src>$(folderA)\%(subPathItems.Identity)</src> <dest>$(folderB)\%(subPathItems.Identity)</dest> </PropertyGroup> <Copy SourceFiles="$(src)" DestinationFiles="$(dest)" /> </Target> But the Copy task didn't work. It doesn't translate the *** to files. What did I do wrong? Please help!

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