Search Results

Search found 20513 results on 821 pages for 'form submit'.

Page 559/821 | < Previous Page | 555 556 557 558 559 560 561 562 563 564 565 566 | Next Page >

How do I create a selection list in ASP.NET MVC?

- by Gary McGill

I have a database table that records what publications a user is allowed to access. The table is very simple - it simply stores user ID/publication ID pairs: CREATE TABLE UserPublication (UserId INTEGER, PublicationID INTEGER) The presence of a record for a given user & publication means that the user has access; absence of a record implies no access. I want to present my admin users with a simple screen that allows them to configure which publications a user can access. I would like to show one checkbox for each of the possible publications, and check the ones that the user can currently access. The admin user can then check or un-check any number of publications and submit the form. There are various publication types, and I want to group the similarly-typed publications together - so I do need control over how the publications are presented (I don't want to just have a flat list). My view model obviously needs to have a list of all the publications (since I need to display them all regardless of the current selection), and I also need a list of the publications that the user currently has access to. (I'm not sure whether I'd be better off with a single list where each item includes the publication ID and a yes/no field?). But that's as far as I've got. I've really no idea how to go about binding this to some checkboxes. Where do I start?

Read the article
Saving js file with c# commands...

- by ile

<head runat="server"> <title><asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="TitleContent" runat="server" /></title> <link href="../../Content/css/layout.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="/Areas/CMS/Content/js/jquery-1.3.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="/Areas/CMS/Content/js/jquery.jeditable.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="/Areas/CMS/Content/js/jeditable.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".naslov_vijesti").editable('<%=Url.Action("UpdateSettings","Article") %>', { submit: 'ok', submitdata: {field: "Title"}, cancel: 'cancel', cssclass: 'editable', width: '99%', placeholder: 'emtpy', indicator: "<img src='../../Content/img/indicator.gif'/>" }); }); </script> </head> This is head tag of site.master file. I would like to remove this multiline part from head and place it in jeditable.js file, which is now empty. If I do copy/paste, then <% %> part won't be executed. In PHP I would save js file as jeditable.js.php and server would compile code that is in <?php ?> tag. Any ideas how to solve this problem? Thanks in advance, Ile

Read the article
RoR - howto convert some HTML-elements with css to Rails

- by NicoJuicy

I have old HTML code with html and css.. <form action="login" method="post"> <div class="field"> <label for="username">Username</label> <input type="text" class="text" id="username" name="username" value="just click login !"/> </div> <span class="fright"> <button class="button" type="submit"><strong>Log In</strong></button> </span> </div> How can i convert this code to decent rails code? I came up with this, but it ain't right :-( : <% form_for :user, @user, :url => { :action => "login" } do |f| %> <% div_for f, :class => "field text" do %> <%= f.text_field :username %> <%= f.password_field :password, :class => "field text" %> <% end %> <span class="fright"> <%= submit_tag '<strong>Inloggen</strong>', :class => "button",:disable_with => 'verwerken...' %></span> <% end %> I'm having problems with the <strong>Inloggen</strong> And with the <% div_for f, :class => "field text" do %>

Read the article
Add child to existing parent record in entity framework.

- by Shawn Mclean

My relationship between the parent and child is that they are connected by an edge. It is similiar to a directed graph structure. DAL: public void SaveResource(Resource resource) { context.AddToResources(resource); //Should also add children. context.SaveChanges(); } public Resource GetResource(int resourceId) { var resource = (from r in context.Resources .Include("ToEdges").Include("FromEdges") where r.ResourceId == resourceId select r).SingleOrDefault(); return resource; } Service: public void AddChildResource(int parentResourceId, Resource childResource) { Resource parentResource = repository.GetResource(parentResourceId); ResourceEdge inEdge = new ResourceEdge(); inEdge.ToResource = childResource; parentResource.ToEdges.Add(inEdge); repository.SaveResource(parentResource); } Error: An object with the same key already exists in the ObjectStateManager. The existing object is in the Unchanged state. An object can only be added to the ObjectStateManager again if it is in the added state. Image: I have been told this is the sequence in submitting a child to an already existing parent: Get parent - Attach Child to parent - submit parent. That is the sequence I used. The code above is extracted from an ASP.NET MVC 2 application using the repository pattern.

Read the article
How do you reenable a validation control w/o it simultaneously perform an immediate validation?

- by Velika2

When I called this function to enable a validator from client javascript: `ValidatorEnable(document.getElementById('<%=valPassportOtherText.ClientID%>'), true); //enable` validation control the required validation control immediately performed it validation, found the value in the associated text box blank and set focus to the textbox (because SetFocusOnError was set to true). As a result, the side effect was that focus was shifted to the control that was associated with the Validation control, i teh example, txtSpecifyOccupation. <asp:TextBox ID="txtSpecifyOccupation" runat="server" AutoCompleteType="Disabled" CssClass="DefaultTextBox DefaultWidth" MaxLength="24" Rows="2"></asp:TextBox> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="valSpecifyOccupation" runat="server" ControlToValidate="txtSpecifyOccupation" ErrorMessage="1.14b Please specify your <b>Occupation</b>" SetFocusOnError="True"> Required</asp:RequiredFieldValidator> Perhaps there is a way to enable the (required) validator without having it simultaneously perform the validation (at least until the user has tabbed off of it?) I'd like validation of the txtSpecifyOccupation textbox to occur only on a Page submit or when the user has tabbed of the required txtSpecifyoccupation textbox. How can I achieve this?

Read the article
Building an external list while filtering in LINQ

- by Khnle

I have an array of input strings that contains either email addresses or account names in the form of domain\account. I would like to build a List of string that contains only email addresses. If an element in the input array is of the form domain\account, I will perform a lookup in the dictionary. If the key is found in the dictionary, that value is the email address. If not found, that won't get added to the result list. The code below will makes the above description clear: private bool where(string input, Dictionary<string, string> dict) { if (input.Contains("@")) { return true; } else { try { string value = dict[input]; return true; } catch (KeyNotFoundException) { return false; } } } private string select(string input, Dictionary<string, string> dict) { if (input.Contains("@")) { return input; } else { try { string value = dict[input]; return value; } catch (KeyNotFoundException) { return null; } } } public void run() { Dictionary<string, string> dict = new Dictionary<string, string>() { { "gmail\\nameless", "[email protected]"} }; string[] s = { "[email protected]", "gmail\\nameless", "gmail\\unknown" }; var q = s.Where(p => where(p, dict)).Select(p => select(p, dict)); List<string> resultList = q.ToList<string>(); } While the above code works (hope I don't have any typo here), there are 2 problems that I do not like with the above: The code in where() and select() seems to be redundant/repeating. It takes 2 passes. The second pass converts from the query expression to List. So I would like to add to the List resultList directly in the where() method. It seems like I should be able to do so. Here's the code: private bool where(string input, Dictionary<string, string> dict, List<string> resultList) { if (input.Contains("@")) { resultList.Add(input); //note the difference from above return true; } else { try { string value = dict[input]; resultList.Add(value); //note the difference from above return true; } catch (KeyNotFoundException) { return false; } } } The my LINQ expression can be nicely in 1 single statement: List<string> resultList = new List<string>(); s.Where(p => where(p, dict, resultList)); Or var q = s.Where(p => where(p, dict, resultList)); //do nothing with q afterward Which seems like perfect and legal C# LINQ. The result: sometime it works and sometime it doesn't. So why doesn't my code work reliably and how can I make it do so?

Read the article
Update database settings in properties file in Spring

- by mvg

Hi all, I am trying to create a Database Manager page which shows the database details on page load and updates the database settings when the user press submit I followed this tutorial and set the database settings in properties file. I managed to update the database settings in properties file programmatically. When I retrieved the database settings using the following code DriverManagerDataSource databaseSource = (DriverManagerDataSource)context.getBean("dataSource"); databaseSource.getUsername(); I managed to get the old value and unable to get the new value This is the mapping in applicationContext.xml file <bean class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer"> <property name="location"> <value>classpath:/bundle/database.properties</value> </property> </bean> <bean id="dataSource" class="org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DriverManagerDataSource"> <property name="driverClassName" value="${jdbc.driverClassName}" /> <property name="url" value="${jdbc.url}" /> <property name="username" value="${jdbc.username}" /> <property name="password" value="${jdbc.password}" /> </bean> I checked the properties file and found it to be updated with the latest input. What am I missing? Thanks in advance P.S I am using JSF1.2 with Spring 3 Update Just making my requirement simple. I am creating a setparate dbsettings page, so that when user wishes to connect to different database he/she can just enter the details in dbsettings page and connect

Read the article
Problem with filefield module after migrating drupal site to a new server: cant upload files

- by oalo

We have a content type with two imagefield / filefield fields, and after migrating our site to a new server, we have the following problem: When we submit a new item for this content type, with two images for those fields, drupal gives us the following error and does not upload the images: warning: fopen(sites/default/files/.htaccess) [function.fopen]: failed to open stream: Permission denied in /websites/sitename/data/sites/all/modules/filefield/field_file.inc on line 349. warning: fopen(sites/default/files/.htaccess) [function.fopen]: failed to open stream: Permission denied in /websites/sitename/data/sites/all/modules/filefield/field_file.inc on line 349. An image thumbnail was not able to be created. warning: fopen(sites/default/files/.htaccess) [function.fopen]: failed to open stream: Permission denied in /websites/sitename/data/sites/all/modules/filefield/field_file.inc on line 349. warning: fopen(sites/default/files/.htaccess) [function.fopen]: failed to open stream: Permission denied in /websites/sitename/data/sites/all/modules/filefield/field_file.inc on line 349. An image thumbnail was not able to be created. I understand this is a permissions error, but it is not clear to me where do I have to change permissions. Line 349 of file.inc has the following code: if (($fp = fopen("$directory/.htaccess", 'w')) && fputs($fp, $htaccess_lines)) { fclose($fp); chmod($directory .'/.htaccess', 0664); } else { $repl = array('%directory' = $directory, '!htaccess' = nl2br(check_plain($htaccess_lines))); form_set_error($form_item, t("Security warning: Couldn't write .htaccess file. Please create a .htaccess file in your %directory directory which contains the following lines:!htaccess", $repl));

Read the article
php sessions in database only writing part of information to the table...

- by Ronedog

I'm having difficulty figuring out what's going on here, hoping some one can help me out. I have been using php, mysql storing my session information in the database. The app is only running on localhost, vista. In the php.ini file I commented out the "session.save_handler = files" line and am using a php class to handle the session writes/reads, etc. My login process is this: Submit login credentials via login.php. login.php calls loginprocess.php. loginprocess.php verifies user, and if valid starts a new session and adds data to the session vars, then it redirects to index.php. Here's the problem. the loginprocess.php page has a bunch of session vars that get set like $_SESSION['account_id'] = $account_id; etc. but when I go to index.php and do a var_dump($_SESSION) it just says "array() empty". However, if I do a var_dump($_SESSION) in loginprocess.php, just before the redirection line header("Location: ../index.php"); then it shows all the data in the session variable. If I look in the database where the session information is stored, there is data in the session_id field, created_ts field, and expires field, but the session_data field has nothing inside of it and in the past this is the field where all my session data was stored. How could I be able to var_dump the session in loginprocess.php, but the data not exist in the db table, is it using some kind of caching? I cleared my cookies, etc...but no change. Why is the session_id, being written to the table, but the actual session data is not? Any ideas are appreciated. Thanks.

Read the article
Sorting a list in PHP

- by Andy

Alright, so I've just (almost) finished my first little php script. Basically all it does is handling forms. It writes whatever the user put in to the fields of the form to a text file, then I include that text file in the index of the little page I have set up. So, currently it writes to the beginning of the text file (but doesn't overwrite previous data). But, several users wants this list to be alphabetically sorted instead. So what I want to do is make whatever they submit fall into the list in alphabetical order. The thing here is also that all I use in the text file are divs. The list is basically 'divided' into 3 parts. 'Title', 'Link', and 'Poster'. All I have done is positioned them with css. So, can I sort this list (the titles, in this case) alphabetically and still have the 'link' and 'poster' information assigned the way they already are, but just with the titles sorted? It don't use databases at all on my site, so there is no database handling at all used in this script (mainly because I'm not experienced at all in this).

Read the article
Magento Replacing super attributes table with dropdown

- by thrice801

Hi, I am trying to replace my magento super attributes table with a drop down menu in place of it, Ive got the menu created but I am struggling to get it to actually use the data from the select dropdown. On submit it calls up function productAddToCartForm, which I feel like if I could modify, I could figure it out. But I have no idea where that function is. My php code looks like the following. <?php if (count($_associatedProducts)): ?> <select name="selectedSku"> <?php foreach ($_associatedProducts as $_item): ?> <?php $prodname = $this->htmlEscape($_item->getName()); $prodprice = $this->htmlEscape($_item->getPrice()); $prodcolor = $_item->getFullColor(); $prodsize = $_item->getTopSize(); $prodcombined = $prodname; $prodcombined .= " / "; $prodcombined .= $prodprice; echo "<option "; echo "value ='"; echo $_item->getId(); echo "'>"; echo $prodcombined; echo "</option>"; ?> <?php endforeach; ?> </select> Any help would be much appreciated. Thanks!

Read the article
PHP File Upload, using the FILES superglobal array

- by jnkrois

Hello everybody, I just have a quick question. Let's say that I'm setting up an upload feature for a project. I'm using PHP5, and I was wondering if by using the $_FILES superglobal array, I could have access to the "tmp_name" array key , which is the temporary path and name of the file being uploaded to display a preview of the image, before moving it to the "uploads" folder in the server. What I had in mind is something like this: Use jQuery to detect when the "file" input filed changes (when the user selects an image file), then place an ajax call to upload the the file, which will move it to the temp folder even before I use "move_uploaded_file". If I can somehow access the "tmp_name" array key, I could probably put it into and "img" tag to display a preview. Later move the file to it's final location when the submit button is clicked. I'm not asking for any code examples or anything, since I'd be thrilled to accomplish this on my own, I just want to find out if there is access to that array key in any way. Thanks in advance.

Read the article
Write Null/Nothing value with Databinding

- by clawson

I have extended a MaskedTextBox component to add some functionality. The text property of the extended MaskedTextBox is bound to a DateTime? property and the format of binding is set to a time format of "HH:mm:ss" (i.e. 24hr time). So that this masked text box will capture the display a time. The extra functionality I have added is to make the component readonly unless the component is double clicked or the enter button is pressed (the back color of the control helps to inform the users if the component is locked/readonly or not). When the enter button is pressed I also suspend the bindings so that bound data is updated the users input won't be lost. The information is then written back to the value and databindings resumed when the user presses the enter key again. This all works fine up to here, with values written and displayed as would be expected. However, I also want to write the null or nothing value to the DateTime? property if the user hasn't entered any text (or invalid text but let's just stick with no text) when enter key is pressed to submit the new value. Unlike with other valid entries in the MaskedTextBox, with no text entered when i execute: Me.DataBindings("Text").WriteValue() (when 'locking' the MaskedTextBox) it then branches to the bound properties Get method as I step into each line of code in the debugger (as opposed to the Set method with other valid entries) How can I write this null/nothing/"" value to the DateTime? property when no text "" is entered into the MaskedTextBox? Thanks for the help!

Read the article
rendering front-end of survey into an MVC app

- by HotKey

Lately I have been watching Pluralsight intro videos on MVC 3. I have never worked with the Model View Control approach before, but I'm starting to understand how these 3 crucial parts of an app are separated. I created a front-end prototype of a survey I would like to implement into a View of my MVC web app. The survey is in HTML, CSS, using jQuery to deliver content changes depending on the type of evaluation (6-11 questions), and jQuery UI for a couple slider ratings. I noticed through tutorials that you can use an HTML form and helpers that allow the user to edit content, but my prototype already allows the users to rate via radio buttons, comment text boxes, and sliders. Would I need to change any of my existing code if I just want to store this employee data to the Model, and depending on what survey's the employee has completed through the Controller, disable drop down fields? Also, would I store the current employee data on submit of survey through an HttpPost in the Controller to the Model? My apologies if my questions seem rather vague. Could someone point me in the right direction to a resource or documentation similar to my needs above? The Pluralsight videos are taking me in the wrong direction.

Read the article
converting a timestring to a duration

- by radman

Hi, At the moment I am trying to read in a timestring formatted and create a duration from that. I am currently trying to use the boost date_time time_duration class to read and store the value. boost date_time provides a method time_duration duration_from_string(std::string) that allows a time_duration to be created from a time string and it accepts strings formatted appropriately ("[-]h[h][:mm][:ss][.fff]".). Now this method works fine if you use a correctly formatted time string. However if you submit something invalid like "ham_sandwich" or "100" then you will still be returned a time_duration that is not valid. Specifically if you try to pass it to a standard output stream then an assertion will occur. My question is: Does anyone know how to test the validity of the boost time_duration? and failing that can you suggest another method of reading a timestring and getting a duration from it? Note: I have tried the obvious testing methods that time_duration provides; is_not_a_date_time(), is_special() etc and they don't pick up that there is an issue. Using boost 1.38.0

Read the article
How to make the value of one select box drive the options of a second select box

- by Ben McCormack

I want to make an HTML form with 2 select boxes. The selected option in the first select box should drive the options in the second select box. I would like to solve this dynamically on the client (using javascript or jQuery) rather than having to submit data to the server. For example, let's say I have the following Menu Categories and Menu Items: Sandwiches Turkey Ham Bacon Sides Mac 'n Cheese Mashed Potatoes Drinks Coca Cola Sprite Sweetwater 420 I would have two select boxes, named Menu Category and Items, respectively. When the user selects Sandwiches in the Menu Category box, the options in the Items box will only show Sandwich options. I'm stuck as how I might approach this. Once I filter out the 2nd list one time, how do I "find" the list options once I change my menu category in the 1st list? Also, if I'm thinking in SQL, I would have a key in the 1st box that would be used to link to the data in the 2nd box. However, I can't see where I have room for a "key" element in the 2nd box. How could this problem be solved with a combination of jQuery or plain javascript?

Read the article
How to populate the span tags for all text nodes between specific self closing tags.

- by Rachel

I want to populate span tags for all text nodes between the self closing tags s1 and s2 having the same id. Eg. For the input: <a> <b>Some <s1 id="1" />text here</b> <c>Some <s2 id="1"/>more text <s1 id="2"/> here<c/> <d>More data</d> <e>Some <s2 id="2" />more data</e> </a> In the above input i want to enclose every text node between <s1 id="1"/> and <s2 id="1" /> with span tags. Also all the text node between <s1 id="2" /> and <s2 id="2" /> Expected Output: <a> <b>Some <span class="spanClass" id="1a">text here</span></b> <c><span class="spanClass" id="1b">Some </span>more text <span class="spanClass" id="2a"> here</span></c> <d><span class="spanClass" id="2b">More data</span></d> <e><span class="spanClass" id="2c">Some </span>more data</e> </a> I am not concened about the pattern of the id tag populated for the span as along it is unique. If the transformation of the input to the output form requires the list of ids of the s1 , s2 tag pairs say 1, 2 etc i can assume that it in place in any form if required. Hope i am clear. How can this be achieved using XSL? EDIT: The input can have any structure and not exactly the same as seen in the sample input. It can have any number of s1, s2 tag pairs but each pair will have a unique id.Adding another sample input and output pattern for more information. Input: <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>This is my title</title> </head> <body> <h1 align="center">This <s1 id="1" />is my <s2 id="1" />heading</h1> <p> Sample content <s1 id="2" />Some text here. Some content here. </p> <p> Here you <s2 id="2" />go. </p> </body> </html> Desired output: <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>This is my title</title> </head> <body> <h1 align="center">This <span id="1">is my </span>heading</h1> <p> Sample content <span id="2">Some text here. Some content here.</span> </p> <p> <span id="2">Here you </span>go. </p> </body> </html>

Read the article
Facebook Invalid OAuth access token signature trying to post an attachment to group wall from PHP

- by Volodymyr B

I am an administrator (manager role) of a Facebook Group. I created an app, and stored its id and secret. I want my app to be able to post something on the Facebook group's feed. But when I attempt to post, I get the error 190 Invalid OAuth access token signature, even though I able to successfully obtain the access_token with publish_stream and offline_access scopes. It has the form of NNNNNNNNNNNNNNN|XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX, where N is a number (15) and X is a letter or a number (27). What should I do more to get this accomplished? Here is the code I am using: public static function postToFB($message, $image, $link) { //Get App Token $token = self::getFacebookToken(); // Create FB Object Instance $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => self::fb_appid, 'secret' => self::fb_secret, 'cookie' => true )); //$token = $facebook->getAccessToken(); //Try to Publish on wall or catch the Facebook exception try { $attachment = array('access_token' => $token, 'message' => $message, 'picture' => $image, 'link' => $link, //'name' => '', //'caption' => '', 'description' => 'More...', //'actions' => array(array('name' => 'Action Text', 'link' => 'http://apps.facebook.com/xxxxxx/')) ); $result = $facebook->api('/'.self::fb_groupid.'/feed/', 'post', $attachment); } catch (FacebookApiException $e) { //If the post is not published, print error details echo '<pre>'; print_r($e); echo '</pre>'; } } Code which returns the token //Function to Get Access Token public static function getFacebookToken($appid = self::fb_appid, $appsecret = self::fb_secret) { $args = array( 'grant_type' => 'client_credentials', 'client_id' => $appid, 'client_secret' => $appsecret, 'redirect_uri' => 'https://www.facebook.com/connect/login_success.html', 'scope' => 'publish_stream,offline_access' ); $ch = curl_init(); $url = 'https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/access_token'; curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, false); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $args); try { $data = curl_exec($ch); } catch (Exception $exc) { error_log($exc->getMessage()); } return json_encode($data); } If I uncomment $token = $facebook->getAccessToken(); in the posting code, it gives me yet another error (#200) The user hasn't authorized the application to perform this action. The token I get using developers.facebook.com/tools/explorer/ is of another form, much longer and with it I am able to post to the group page feed. How do I do it without copy/paste from Graph API Explorer and how do I post as a group instead of posting as a user? Thanks.

Read the article
ASP.Net IE6 disable button

- by RemotecUk

Hi, I have the following code running as part of my OnClientclick attribute on my custom ASP.Net button.... function clickOnce(btnSubmit) { if ( typeof( Page_ClientValidate ) == 'function' ) { if ( ! Page_ClientValidate() ) { return false; } } btnSubmit.disabled = true; } There is a validator on the page. If a given text box is empty then the validator activates no problem. If a given text box is populated then the button disables but a post back does not occur. The rendered markup looks like this... <input type="submit" name="TestButton" value="Test Button" onclick="clickOnce(this);WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions(new WebForm_PostBackOptions("TestButton", "", true, "", "", false, false))" id="TestButton" class="euva-button-decorated" /> This works nicely in Firefox but not in IE6. Its almost like after the button has been disabled it simply does not run the post back javascript. Any ideas welcomed. EDIT: I have tried returning true from the function as well.

Read the article
Finding Palindromes in an Array

- by Jack L.

For this assignemnt, I think that I got it right, but when I submit it online, it doesn't list it as correct even though I checked with Eclipse. The prompt: Write a method isPalindrome that accepts an array of Strings as its argument and returns true if that array is a palindrome (if it reads the same forwards as backwards) and /false if not. For example, the array {"alpha", "beta", "gamma", "delta", "gamma", "beta", "alpha"} is a palindrome, so passing that array to your method would return true. Arrays with zero or one element are considered to be palindromes. My code: public static void main(String[] args) { String[] input = new String[6]; //{"aay", "bee", "cee", "cee", "bee", "aay"} Should return true input[0] = "aay"; input[1] = "bee"; input[2] = "cee"; input[3] = "cee"; input[4] = "bee"; input[5] = "aay"; System.out.println(isPalindrome(input)); } public static boolean isPalindrome(String[] input) { for (int i=0; i<input.length; i++) { // Checks each element if (input[i] != input[input.length-1-i]){ return false; // If a single instance of non-symmetry } } return true; // If symmetrical, only one element, or zero elements } As an example, {"aay", "bee", "cee", "cee", "bee", "aay"} returns true in Eclipse, but Practice-It! says it returns false. What is going on?

Read the article
java applet won't work

- by scoobi_doobi

hey guys, this is homework stuff, but the question is not much about coding. the task is to write a java applet to work on an m-grid server. i have the server running on apache. it has a few sample applets in .jar and .class form. the .class versions work; the .jar versions work on appletviewer, but they break if I submit them as a job to the server with this: load: class examples/pixelcount/PixelCount.class not found. java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: examples.pixelcount.PixelCount.class at sun.plugin2.applet.Applet2ClassLoader.findClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.applet.Plugin2ClassLoader.loadCode(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.applet.Plugin2Manager.createApplet(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.applet.Plugin2Manager$AppletExecutionRunnable.run(Unknown Source) at java.lang.Thread.run(Unknown Source) Caused by: java.net.ConnectException: Connection refused: connect at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.socketConnect(Native Method) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.doConnect(Unknown Source) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connectToAddress(Unknown Source) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connect(Unknown Source) at java.net.SocksSocketImpl.connect(Unknown Source) at java.net.Socket.connect(Unknown Source) at sun.net.NetworkClient.doConnect(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.<init>(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.New(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.New(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.getNewHttpClient(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.plainConnect(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.connect(Unknown Source) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.getInputStream(Unknown Source) at java.net.HttpURLConnection.getResponseCode(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.applet.Applet2ClassLoader.getBytes(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.applet.Applet2ClassLoader.access$000(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.applet.Applet2ClassLoader$1.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) ... 7 more Exception: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: examples.pixelcount.PixelCount.class I'm not really sure where exactly is the problem in here, given that they work on appletviewer. any help would be appreciated.. EDIT: don't know if I wrote it clearly. by ".class version" i refer to html file with this content: <applet height="300" width="450" code="examples/pixelcount/PixelCount.class"></applet> and ".jar" with this content: <applet height="300" width="450" archive="PixelCount.jar" code="examples.pixelcount.PixelCount.class"></applet>

Read the article
How to select all options from a drop list in php / mysql

- by Mirage81

Thanks to stackoverflow.com's frienly experts I've managed to create my first php + mysql application. The code searches a mysql database for last names and cities. The choices are made through two drop lists like these: Choose city: All cities Liverpool Manchester Choose last name: All last names Lennon Gallagher The code would return eg. all the Lennons living in Liverpool. However, I haven't been able to make the options "All cities" and "All last names" to work so that the code would return eg. all the Lennons living in any city or all the people living in Liverpool. So, how can that be done? The code so far: index.php <?php $conn = mysql_connect('localhost', 'user', 'password') or die("Connection failed"); mysql_select_db("database", $conn) or die("Switch database failed"); //this gets the cities from the database to the drop list $query = "SELECT DISTINCT city FROM user".mysql_real_escape_string($city); $result = mysql_query($query, $conn); $options=""; while ($row=mysql_fetch_array($result)) { $city=$row["city"]; $options.="<OPTION VALUE=\"$city\">".$city; } //this gets the last names from the database to the drop list $query2 = "SELECT DISTINCT lastname FROM user".mysql_real_escape_string($lastname); $result2 = mysql_query($query2, $conn); $options2=""; while ($row2=mysql_fetch_array($result2)) { $lastname=$row2["lastname"]; $options2.="<OPTION VALUE=\"$lastname\">".$lastname; } ?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN"> <html> <head> <meta content="text/html; charset=ISO-8859-1" http-equiv="content-type"> <title>test</title> </head> <body> <form action="get.php" method="post"> <p> <select name="city"> <option value=0>Choose <option value=1>All cities <?=$options?> </select> </p> <p> <select name="lastname"> <option value=0>Choose <option value=1>All last names <?=$options2?> </select> </p> <p> <input value="Search" type="submit"> </p> </form> <br> </body> </html> get.php <?php $conn = mysql_connect('localhost', 'user', 'password') or die("Connection failed"); mysql_select_db("database", $conn) or die("Switch database failed"); $query = "SELECT * FROM user WHERE city = '".mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['city'])."' AND lastname = '".mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['lastname'])."'"; $result = mysql_query($query, $conn); echo $rowcount; $zerorows=true; while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { $zerorows=false; echo '<b>City: </b>'.htmlspecialchars($row[city]).'<br />'; echo '<b>Last name: </b>'.htmlspecialchars($row[lastname]).'<br />'; echo '<b>Information: </b>'.htmlspecialchars($row[information]).'<br />'.'<br />'; } if($zerorows) echo "No results"; mysql_close($conn); ?>

Read the article
parse error in php code

- by user225269

I just started php and I want to know how to make this parse error work. This is the error: Parse error: parse error in E:\wamp\www\PHP\create.php on line 22 And here is my code, by the way I'm making a database manipulating system. And I use wampserver and dreamweaver. <?php include 'E:\wamp\www\PHP\connection.php'; $IDNUMBER = $_POST['ID']; $LNAME = $_POST['Lname']; $FNAME = $_POST['Fname']; $MNAME = $_POST['Mname']; $GRADEYR = $_POST['GradeYr']; $ADDRESS = $_POST['Address']; if(!$_POST['submit']) { echo "please fill out the form"; header('Location: E:\wamp\www\PHP\main.php'); } else { mysql_query = "INSERT INTO students (`IDNUMBER`,`LNAME` ,`FNAME` ,`MNAME` ,`GRADEYR` ,`ADDRESS`) VALUES (NULL, '$IDNUMBER', '$LNAME', '$FNAME', '$MNAME', '$GRADEYR', '$ADDRESS')") or die(mysql_error()); echo "User has been added!"; header('E:\wamp\www\PHP\main.php'); } ?> Please help, I'm just a beginner in php.

Read the article
Automatically hyper-link URL's and Email's using C#, whilst leaving bespoke tags in place

- by marcusstarnes

I have a site that enables users to post messages to a forum. At present, if a user types a web address or email address and posts it, it's treated the same as any other piece of text. There are tools that enable the user to supply hyper-linked web and email addresses (via some bespoke tags/markup) - these are sometimes used, but not always. In addition, a bespoke 'Image' tag can also be used to reference images that are hosted on the web. My objective is to both cater for those that use these existing tools to generate hyper-linked addresses, but to also cater for those that simply type a web or email address in, and to then automatically convert this to a hyper-linked address for them (as soon as they submit their post). I've found one or two regular expressions that convert a plain string web or email address, however, I obviously don't want to perform any manipulation on addresses that are already being handled via the sites bespoke tagging, and that's where I'm stuck - how to EXCLUDE any web or email addresses that are already catered for via the bespoke tagging - I wan't to leave them as is. Here are some examples of bespoke tagging for the variations that I need to be left alone: [URL=www.msn.com]www.msn.com[/URL] [URL=http://www.msn.com]http://www.msn.com[/URL] [[email protected]][email protected][/EMAIL] [IMG]www.msn.com/images/test.jpg[/IMG] [IMG]http://www.msn.com/images/test.jpg[/IMG] The following examples would however ideally need to be automatically converted into web & email links respectively: www.msn.com http://www.msn.com [email protected] Ideally, the 'converted' links would just have the appropriate bespoke tags applied to them as per the initial examples earlier in this post, so rather than: <a href="..." etc. they'd become: [URL=http://www.. etc.) Unfortunately, we have a LOT of historic data stored with this bespoke tagging throughout, so for now, we'd like to retain that rather than implementing an entirely new way of storing our users posts. Any help would be much appreciated. Thanks.

Read the article
XBAP Browser Control - Invoking Click event of the html Input type button

- by maharaj

Hi, Here is what I have. 1.XBAP application with WPF Browser control, hosted on Page1.xaml 2.XBAP in Full Trust, certificate installed in client browser 3.Once the XBAP loaded, the browser control is navigated to some third party site. 4.We are using MVVM for XAML stuff So, when a certain page is loaded, I attach click event handler to the input button with id="submit" on the html page displayed in the browser control (used the code similar to whats in this URL http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/wpf/thread/a4f0e4d0-78bf-44c5-a3fe-8faf2e7a0568/). It works just fine as long as I dont make a wcf web service call in my ViewModel, before or after I attach this event hander. Idea is to invoke the click event for the html button and grab the data from the html page before calling the webservice to save data from the page. Here is the issue: When I make the wcf webservice call (sync or async, it doesnt matter) the click event doesnt happen but if I comment out the the code for wcf service call the click event of the html input of type button gets invoked. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks, Salil

Read the article

< Previous Page | 555 556 557 558 559 560 561 562 563 564 565 566 | Next Page >