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  • C# Nested Property Accessing overloading OR Sequential Operator Overloading

    - by Tim
    Hey, I've been searching around for a solution to a tricky problem we're having with our code base. To start, our code resembles the following: class User { int id; int accountId; Account account { get { return Account.Get(accountId); } } } class Account { int accountId; OnlinePresence Presence { get { return OnlinePresence.Get(accountId); } } public static Account Get(int accountId) { // hits a database and gets back our object. } } class OnlinePresence { int accountId; bool isOnline; public static OnlinePresence Get(int accountId) { // hits a database and gets back our object. } } What we're often doing in our code is trying to access the account Presence of a user by doing var presence = user.Account.Presence; The problem with this is that this is actually making two requests to the database. One to get the Account object, and then one to get the Presence object. We could easily knock this down to one request if we did the following : var presence = UserPresence.Get(user.id); This works, but sort of requires developers to have an understanding of the UserPresence class/methods that would be nice to eliminate. I've thought of a couple of cool ways to be able to handle this problem, and was wondering if anyone knows if these are possible, if there are other ways of handling this, or if we just need to think more as we're coding and do the UserPresence.Get instead of using properties. Overload nested accessors. It would be cool if inside the User class I could write some sort of "extension" that would say "any time a User object's Account property's Presence object is being accessed, do this instead". Overload the . operator with knowledge of what comes after. If I could somehow overload the . operator only in situations where the object on the right is also being "dotted" it would be great. Both of these seem like things that could be handled at compile time, but perhaps I'm missing something (would reflection make this difficult?). Am I looking at things completely incorrectly? Is there a way of enforcing this that removes the burden from the user of the business logic? Thanks! Tim

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  • Conflict between Jquery Validate and Asp.net MVC

    - by chobo2
    Hi I am using asp.net mvc 2.0 and jquery validate 1.7 (http://bassistance.de/jquery-plugins/jquery-plugin-validation/) What happens is this. A user can click on a link to edit a product. When a user clicks on which product they want to edit a jquery dialog box appears with a form of textboxes and dropdown lists. These html controls have information filled in them. Say if the user chooses to edit the Ipad product a dialog will appear and one of the form textboxes will have "Ipad" in it. Now this form gets rendered on the server side(the form is in a partial view). When loading the dialog box a ajax request is made to get that partial view and in the response part of the ajax call I do something like $('#EditDialog).html(ajaxresponse).dialog({...}); So I would have something like this rendered in my dialog box <form id="EditProduct"> Product Name: <input type="text" value="IPad" name="ProductName" /> </form> Now my jquery validate would be something like this. $("#EditProduct").validate( { errorContainer: "#Errorbox", errorLabelContainer: "#Errorbox ul", wrapper: "li", rules: { ProductName: "required" } }); So I know this works because I use the same validate for add product and if you try to leave ProductName blank it will show a validation error. Now it does not work with the edit one though and I think I know the reason why but not how to fix it. The value for the textbox is "IPad" this is how the Html.TextBoxFor() renders it. However if a user goes and changes the product name to "Iphone" or blank the value never changes. It is always "Ipad" in the html. So I think when the validate goes and looks it goes oh there is a value already in it. It is valid even though in reality it might be blank. When I post to the server through ajax it gets the right value and the server side validation stops it but my entire clientside validation is rendered useless because of this problem as it will never change the html.

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  • JAX-WS errors when SOAP body contains UTF-8 BOM

    - by Vinny Carpenter
    I have developed a Web Service using JAX-WS (v2.1.3 - Sun JDK 1.6.0_05) deployed on WebLogic 10.3 that works just fine when I use a Java client or SoapUI or other Web Services testing tools. I need to consume this service using 2005 Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services and I get the following error Couldn't create SOAP message due to exception: XML reader error: unexpected character content SEVERE: Couldn't create SOAP message due to exception: XML reader error: unexpected character content: "?" com.sun.xml.ws.protocol.soap.MessageCreationException: Couldn't create SOAP message due to exception: XML reader error: unexpected character content: "?" at com.sun.xml.ws.encoding.SOAPBindingCodec.decode(SOAPBindingCodec.java:292) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.HttpAdapter.decodePacket(HttpAdapter.java:276) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.HttpAdapter.access$500(HttpAdapter.java:93) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.HttpAdapter$HttpToolkit.handle(HttpAdapter.java:432) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.HttpAdapter.handle(HttpAdapter.java:244) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.servlet.ServletAdapter.handle(ServletAdapter.java:134) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.servlet.WSServletDelegate.doGet(WSServletDelegate.java:129) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.servlet.WSServletDelegate.doPost(WSServletDelegate.java:160) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.servlet.WSServlet.doPost(WSServlet.java:75) at javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:727) at javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:820) at weblogic.servlet.internal.StubSecurityHelper$ServletServiceAction.run(StubSecurityHelper.java:227) at weblogic.servlet.internal.StubSecurityHelper.invokeServlet(StubSecurityHelper.java:125) at weblogic.servlet.internal.ServletStubImpl.execute(ServletStubImpl.java:292) at weblogic.servlet.internal.ServletStubImpl.execute(ServletStubImpl.java:175) at weblogic.servlet.internal.WebAppServletContext$ServletInvocationAction.run(WebAppServletContext.java:3498) at weblogic.security.acl.internal.AuthenticatedSubject.doAs(AuthenticatedSubject.java:321) at weblogic.security.service.SecurityManager.runAs(Unknown Source) at weblogic.servlet.internal.WebAppServletContext.securedExecute(WebAppServletContext.java:2180) at weblogic.servlet.internal.WebAppServletContext.execute(WebAppServletContext.java:2086) at weblogic.servlet.internal.ServletRequestImpl.run(ServletRequestImpl.java:1406) at weblogic.work.ExecuteThread.execute(ExecuteThread.java:201) at weblogic.work.ExecuteThread.run(ExecuteThread.java:173) Caused by: com.sun.xml.ws.streaming.XMLStreamReaderException: XML reader error: unexpected character content: "?" at com.sun.xml.ws.streaming.XMLStreamReaderUtil.nextElementContent(XMLStreamReaderUtil.java:102) at com.sun.xml.ws.encoding.StreamSOAPCodec.decode(StreamSOAPCodec.java:174) at com.sun.xml.ws.encoding.StreamSOAPCodec.decode(StreamSOAPCodec.java:296) at com.sun.xml.ws.encoding.StreamSOAPCodec.decode(StreamSOAPCodec.java:128) at com.sun.xml.ws.encoding.SOAPBindingCodec.decode(SOAPBindingCodec.java:287) ... 22 more If I use a HTTP proxy to sniff out what SSRS is sending to JAX-WS, I see EF BB BF as the beginning of the post body and JAX-WS doesn't like that. If I remove the special characters and resubmit the request using Fiddler, then the web-service invocation works. Why does JAX-WS blow up with the standard UTF-8 BOM? Is there a workaround to get past this issue? Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Thanks --Vinny

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  • Where does the version number come from?

    - by Robert Schneider
    I have a version control system (e.g. Subversion) and now I'd like to set up a build process. Now I have to create a version number and insert it into the system. But where does the version number come from and get into? Assume I want to use this common <major.<minor.<bugfix/revision scheme. Should I pass a number to the build script? Or should I pass arguments like increaseMajor, increaseMinor, increaseRevision? Or would you recommend to create a branch with the number which will be detected by the build script? I could imagine that the major and minor version number have to be put in manually somewhere. The revision number could be increased automaically. But still I don't know where I would place the major and minor number. In my case I have some php files that I would like to zip, but before I have to insert some version numbers into php file. I have edited this post to try to make my request clearer: I do not use Subversion, that was just an example. And I don't want to discuss the version number scheme. Imagine I want to create version 3.5.0 or 3.5.1. Would I pass this version number to a build script? Would the script create the branch in the repository with this number or would it expect that someone has already created this branch? Manually? Or would the build script look for name of the branch (e.g. '3.5.1) and use it for further things? And does the version number come from my brain or is it automatically created (I guess the major/minor number it comes from my little brain and revision number is created)? Or would you place the number into a file that may gets inserted into the repository? I guess if would use a release management tool I would insert the version number there. But I don't use one yet.

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  • Using will_paginate with AJAX live search with jQuery in Rails

    - by Mark Richman
    I am using will_paginate to successfully page through records. I am also using AJAX live search via jQuery to update my results div. No problem so far. The issue I have is when trying to paginate through those live search results. I simply get "Page is loading..." with no div update. Am I missing something fundamental? # index.html.erb <form id="searchform" accept-charset="utf-8" method="get" action="/search"> Search: <input id="search" name="search" type="text" autocomplete="off" title="Search location, company, description..." /> <%= image_tag("spinner.gif", :id => "spinner", :style =>"display: none;" ) %> </form> # JobsController#search def search if params[:search].nil? @jobs = Job.paginate :page => params[:page], :order => "created_at desc" elsif params[:search] and request.xhr? @jobs = Job.search params[:search], params[:page] end render :partial => "jobs", :layout => false, :locals => { :jobs => @jobs } end # Job#search def self.search(search, page) logger.debug "Job.paginate #{search}, #{page}" paginate :per_page => @@per_page, :page => page, :conditions => ["description LIKE ? or title LIKE ? or company LIKE ?", "%#{search}%", "%#{search}%", "%#{search}%"], :order => 'created_at DESC' end # search.js $(document).ready(function(){ $("#search").keyup(function() { $("#spinner").show(); // show the spinner var form = $(this).parents("form"); // grab the form wrapping the search bar. var url = form.attr("action"); // grab the URL from the form's action value. var formData = form.serialize(); // grab the data in the form $.get(url, formData, function(html) { // perform an AJAX get, the trailing function is what happens on successful get. $("#spinner").hide(); // hide the spinner $("#jobs").html(html); // replace the "results" div with the result of action taken }); }); });

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  • Does subTable support reRender?

    - by Tom
    Here is a minimal rich:dataTable with an a4j:commandLink inside. When clicked it sends an AJAX request to my bean and reRenders the dataTable. <rich:dataTable id="dataTable" value="#{carManager.all}" var="item"> <rich:column> <f:facet name="header">name</f:facet> <h:outputText value="#{item.name}" /> </rich:column> <rich:column> <f:facet name="header">action</f:facet> <a4j:commandLink reRender="dataTable" value="Delete" action="#{carForm.delete}"> <f:setPropertyActionListener value="#{item.id}" target="#{carForm.id}" /> <f:param name="from" value="list" /> </a4j:commandLink> </rich:column> </rich:dataTable> The exmaple obove works fine so far. But when I add a rich:subTable to the table, reRendering fails... <rich:dataTable id="dataTable" value="#{garageManager.all}" var="garage"> <f:facet name="header"> <rich:columnGroup> <rich:column>name</rich:column> <rich:column>action</rich:column> </rich:columnGroup> </f:facet> <rich:column colspan="2"> <h:outputText value="#{garage.name}" /> </rich:column> <rich:subTable value="#{garage.cars}" var="car"> <rich:column><h:ouputText value="#{car.name}" /></rich:column> <rich:column> <a4j:commandLink reRender="dataTable" value="Delete" action="#{carForm.delete}"> <f:setPropertyActionListener value="#{item.id}" target="#{carForm.id}" /> <f:param name="from" value="list" /> </a4j:commandLink> </rich:column> </rich:column> </rich:dataTable> Now the rich:dataTable is not rerendered but the item gets deleted since the item does not show up after a complete page refresh. Does subTable support reRender the way i'd like to use it here? Tanks Tom

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  • C# Confusing Results from Performance Test

    - by aip.cd.aish
    I am currently working on an image processing application. The application captures images from a webcam and then does some processing on it. The app needs to be real time responsive (ideally < 50ms to process each request). I have been doing some timing tests on the code I have and I found something very interesting (see below). clearLog(); log("Log cleared"); camera.QueryFrame(); camera.QueryFrame(); log("Camera buffer cleared"); Sensor s = t.val; log("Sx: " + S.X + " Sy: " + S.Y); Image<Bgr, Byte> cameraImage = camera.QueryFrame(); log("Camera output acuired for processing"); Each time the log is called the time since the beginning of the processing is displayed. Here is my log output: [3 ms]Log cleared [41 ms]Camera buffer cleared [41 ms]Sx: 589 Sy: 414 [112 ms]Camera output acuired for processing The timings are computed using a StopWatch from System.Diagonostics. QUESTION 1 I find this slightly interesting, since when the same method is called twice it executes in ~40ms and when it is called once the next time it took longer (~70ms). Assigning the value can't really be taking that long right? QUESTION 2 Also the timing for each step recorded above varies from time to time. The values for some steps are sometimes as low as 0ms and sometimes as high as 100ms. Though most of the numbers seem to be relatively consistent. I guess this may be because the CPU was used by some other process in the mean time? (If this is for some other reason, please let me know) Is there some way to ensure that when this function runs, it gets the highest priority? So that the speed test results will be consistently low (in terms of time). EDIT I change the code to remove the two blank query frames from above, so the code is now: clearLog(); log("Log cleared"); Sensor s = t.val; log("Sx: " + S.X + " Sy: " + S.Y); Image<Bgr, Byte> cameraImage = camera.QueryFrame(); log("Camera output acuired for processing"); The timing results are now: [2 ms]Log cleared [3 ms]Sx: 589 Sy: 414 [5 ms]Camera output acuired for processing The next steps now take longer (sometimes, the next step jumps to after 20-30ms, while the next step was previously almost instantaneous). I am guessing this is due to the CPU scheduling. Is there someway I can ensure the CPU does not get scheduled to do something else while it is running through this code?

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  • MooseX::Types declaration issue, tight test case :)

    - by TJ Thompson
    So after an embarrassing amount of time debugging, I've finally stripped this issue ([http://stackoverflow.com/questions/4621589/perl-moose-typedecorator-error-how-do-i-debug][1]) down to a simple test case. I would humbly request some help understanding why it's failing :) Here is the error message I'm getting: plxc16479 $h2/tmp/tmp18.pl This method [new] requires a single argument. at /nfs/pdx/disks/nehalem.pde.077/perl/5.12.2/lib64/site_perl/MooseX/Types/TypeDecorator.pm line 91 MooseX::Types::TypeDecorator::new('MooseX::Types::TypeDecorator=HASH(0x655b90)') called at /nfs/pdx/disks/nehalem.pde.077/projects/lib/Program-Plist-Pl/lib/Program/Plist/Pl.pm line 10 Program::Plist::Pl::BUILD('Program::Plist::Pl=HASH(0x63d478)', 'HASH(0x63d220)') called at generated method (unknown origin) line 29 Program::Plist::Pl::new('Program::Plist::Pl') called at /nfs/pdx/disks/nehalem.pde.077/tmp/tmp18.pl line 10 Wrapper test script: use strict; use warnings; BEGIN {push(@INC, split(':', $ENV{PERL_TEST_LIBS}))}; use Program::Plist::Pl; my $obj = Program::Plist::Pl->new(); Program::Plist::Pl file: package Program::Plist::Pl; use Moose; use namespace::autoclean; use Program::Types qw(Pattern); # <-- Removing this fixes error use Program::Plist::Pl::Pattern; sub BUILD { my $pattern_obj = Program::Plist::Pl::Pattern->new(); } __PACKAGE__->meta->make_immutable; 1; Program::Types file: package Program::Types; use MooseX::Types -declare => [qw(Pattern)]; class_type Pattern, {class => 'Program::Plist::Pl::Pattern'}; 1; And the Program::Plist::Pl::Pattern file: package Program::Plist::Pl::Pattern; use Moose; use namespace::autoclean; __PACKAGE__->meta->make_immutable; 1; Notes: While I don't need the Pattern type from Program::Types in the above code, I do in other code that is stripped out. The PERL_TEST_LIBS env var I'm pulling INC paths from only contains paths to the project modules. There are no other modules loaded from these paths. It appears the MooseX::Types definition for Pattern is causing problems, but I'm not sure why. Documentation shows the syntax I am using, but it's possible I'm misusing class_type as there isn't much said about it. Intent is to be able to use Pattern for type checking via MooseX::Params::Validate to verify the argument is a 'Program::Plist::Pl::Program' object. I've found that removing the intervening class Program::Plist::Pl from the equation by directly calling Pattern-new from the tmp18.pl wrapper results in no error, even when the Program::Types Pattern type is imported.

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  • Passing a ManagedObjectContext to a second view

    - by amo
    I'm writing my first iPhone/Cocoa app. It has two table views inside a navigation view. When you touch a row in the first table view, you are taken to the second table view. I would like the second view to display records from the CoreData entities related to the row you touched in the first view. I have the CoreData data showing up fine in the first table view. You can touch a row and go to the second table view. I'm able to pass info from the selected object from the first to the second view. But I cannot get the second view to do its own CoreData fetching. For the life of me I cannot get the managedObjectContext object to pass to the second view controller. I don't want to do the lookups in the first view and pass a dictionary because I want to be able to use a search field to refine results in the second view, as well as insert new entries to the CoreData data from there. Here's the function that transitions from the first to the second view. - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { // Navigation logic may go here -- for example, create and push another view controller. NSManagedObject *selectedObject = [[self fetchedResultsController] objectAtIndexPath:indexPath]; SecondViewController *secondViewController = [[SecondViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"SecondView" bundle:nil]; secondViewController.tName = [[selectedObject valueForKey:@"name"] description]; secondViewController.managedObjectContext = [self managedObjectContext]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:secondViewController animated:YES]; [secondViewController release]; } And this is the function inside SecondViewController that crashes: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; self.title = tName; NSError *error; if (![[self fetchedResultsController] performFetch:&error]) { // <-- crashes here // Handle the error... } } - (NSFetchedResultsController *)fetchedResultsController { if (fetchedResultsController != nil) { return fetchedResultsController; } /* Set up the fetched results controller. */ // Create the fetch request for the entity. NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; // Edit the entity name as appropriate. // **** crashes on the next line because managedObjectContext == 0x0 NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"SecondEntity" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [fetchRequest setEntity:entity]; // <snip> ... more code here from Apple template, never gets executed because of the crashing return fetchedResultsController; } Any ideas on what I am doing wrong here? managedObjectContext is a retained property. UPDATE: I inserted a NSLog([[managedObjectContext registeredObjects] description]); in viewDidLoad and it appears managedObjectContext is being passed just fine. Still crashing, though. Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: '+entityForName: could not locate an NSManagedObjectModel for entity name 'SecondEntity''

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  • How to create a Uri instance parsed with GenericUriParserOptions.DontCompressPath

    - by Andrew Arnott
    When the .NET System.Uri class parses strings it performs some normalization on the input, such as lower-casing the scheme and hostname. It also trims trailing periods from each path segment. This latter feature is fatal to OpenID applications because some OpenIDs (like those issued from Yahoo) include base64 encoded path segments which may end with a period. How can I disable this period-trimming behavior of the Uri class? Registering my own scheme using UriParser.Register with a parser initialized with GenericUriParserOptions.DontCompressPath avoids the period trimming, and some other operations that are also undesirable for OpenID. But I cannot register a new parser for existing schemes like HTTP and HTTPS, which I must do for OpenIDs. Another approach I tried was registering my own new scheme, and programming the custom parser to change the scheme back to the standard HTTP(s) schemes as part of parsing: public class MyUriParser : GenericUriParser { private string actualScheme; public MyUriParser(string actualScheme) : base(GenericUriParserOptions.DontCompressPath) { this.actualScheme = actualScheme.ToLowerInvariant(); } protected override string GetComponents(Uri uri, UriComponents components, UriFormat format) { string result = base.GetComponents(uri, components, format); // Substitute our actual desired scheme in the string if it's in there. if ((components & UriComponents.Scheme) != 0) { string registeredScheme = base.GetComponents(uri, UriComponents.Scheme, format); result = this.actualScheme + result.Substring(registeredScheme.Length); } return result; } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { UriParser.Register(new MyUriParser("http"), "httpx", 80); UriParser.Register(new MyUriParser("https"), "httpsx", 443); Uri z = new Uri("httpsx://me.yahoo.com/b./c.#adf"); var req = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(z); req.GetResponse(); } } This actually almost works. The Uri instance reports https instead of httpsx everywhere -- except the Uri.Scheme property itself. That's a problem when you pass this Uri instance to the HttpWebRequest to send a request to this address. Apparently it checks the Scheme property and doesn't recognize it as 'https' because it just sends plaintext to the 443 port instead of SSL. I'm happy for any solution that: Preserves trailing periods in path segments in Uri.Path Includes these periods in outgoing HTTP requests. Ideally works with under ASP.NET medium trust (but not absolutely necessary).

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  • XSLT: Splitting none continues Elements/Grouping continues Elements

    - by Gerald
    Hi! Need some help with this problem in implementing with Xslt, I had already implemented a java code of this one using sax parser but it is a troublesome due to customer request to change something... so we are doing it now using an XSLT with don't need to be compiled and deployed to a web server. I have an xml like the one below Example 1: <ShotRows> <ShotRow row="3" col="3" bit="1" position="1"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="4" bit="1" position="2"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="5" bit="1" position="3"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="6" bit="1" position="4"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="7" bit="1" position="5"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="8" bit="1" position="6"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="9" bit="1" position="7"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="10" bit="1" position="8"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="11" bit="1" position="9"/> </ShotRows> Output 1: <ShotRows> <ShotRow row="3" colStart="3" colEnd="11" /> </ShotRows> -- Be cause the col is continues from 3 to 11 Example 2: <ShotRows> <ShotRow row="3" col="3" bit="1" position="1"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="4" bit="1" position="2"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="6" bit="1" position="3"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="7" bit="1" position="4"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="8" bit="1" position="5"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="10" bit="1" position="6"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="11" bit="1" position="7"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="15" bit="1" position="8"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="19" bit="1" position="9"/> </ShotRows> Output 2: <ShotRows> <ShotRow row="3" colStart="3" colEnd="4" /> <ShotRow row="3" colStart="6" colEnd="8" /> <ShotRow row="3" colStart="10" colEnd="11" /> <ShotRow row="3" colStart="15" colEnd="15" /> <ShotRow row="3" colStart="19" colEnd="19" /> </ShotRows> -- Basic idea is to group any continues col into one element, like the col 3 to 4, col 6 to 8, col 10 to 11, col 15 is only one, and col 19 is only one. Thanks in advance. Sincerely, Gerald

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  • Authlogic openid: getting undefined method openid_identifier? error in functional test

    - by usr
    I use Authlogic with the Authlogic-openid addon (I gem installed ruby- openid and script/plugin install git://github.com/rails/open_id_authentication.git) and get two errors. First when running functional test, I get an undefined method openid_identifier? message on a line in my new.html.erb file when running the UsersControllerTest. The line is: <% if @user.openid_identifier? %> When running script/console I can access this method without any problem. Second when testing the openid functionality and registering a new user to my application using openid and using my blogspot account for that I get the following in my log file: Generated checkid_setup request to http://www.blogger.com/openid-server.g with assocication ... Redirected to http://www.blogger.com/openid-server.g?openid.assoc_handle=... NoMethodError (You have a nil object when you didn't expect it! The error occurred while evaluating nil.call): app/controllers/users_controller.rb:44:in `create' /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/httpserver.rb:104:in `service' /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/httpserver.rb:65:in `run' /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:173:in `start_thread' /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:162:in `start' /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:162:in `start_thread' /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:95:in `start' /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:92:in `each' /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:92:in `start' /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:23:in `start' /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:82:in `start' The code in the users_controller is straight forward: def create respond_to do |format| @user.save do |result| if result flash[:notice] = t('Thanks for signing up!') format.html { redirect_to :action => 'index' } format.xml { render :xml => @user, :status => :created, :location => @user } else format.html { render :action => "new" } format.xml { render :xml => @user.errors, :status => :unprocessable_entity } end end end end The line giving the error being @user.save do |result|... I feel I'm missing something pretty basic but I have been staring at this for too long because I can't find what it is. I checked with the code on Railscasts episodes 160 and 170 and the bones GitHub project but found nothing. Thanks for your help, usr

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  • When does the .NET FormAuthentication ticket get checked and how do I tap into this event?

    - by Mustafakidd
    Hello everyone - We are attempting to integrate an ASP.NET MVC site with our client's SSO system using PingFederate. I would like to use the built in FormsAuthentication framework to do this. The way I've gone about it so far is: Set up my Web.config so that my FormsAuthentication LoginURL goes to my site's "BeginAuthentication" action on a "Security" controller. From this action, I set up some session variables (what URL was being accessed, for example, since Ping won't send this info back to me), and then redirect to our client's login page on an external site (www.client.com/Login for example). From here, the authentication takes place and a cookie is generated on the same domain as the one that our application is running on which contains the unique identifier of the authenticated user, I've set it up so that once this happens, the Ping server will redirect to my "EndAuthentication" action on my "Security" controller. In this action, I call my membership class's "ValidateUser" method which takes this unique identifier from the cookie and loads in the user on our application that this ID refers to. I save that logged in user in our Session (Session["LoggedInAs"], for example) and expire the cookie that contains the id of the authenticated user that the SSO system provided for me. All of this works well. The issue I'm wondering about is what happens after our user has already authenticated and manually goes back to our client's login page (www.client.com/login) and logs in as another user. If they do that, then the flow from #2 above to number 3 happens as normal - but since there already exists an authenticated user on our site, it seems as though the FormsAuthentication system doesn't bother kicking off anything so I don't get a chance to check for the cookie I'm looking for to login as this new user. What I'd like to do is, somewhere in my Global.asax file (probably FormsAuthenticate_OnAuthenticate), check to see if the cookie that the SSO system sends to me exists, and if so, sign out of the application using FormsAuthentication.SignOut(). Another issue that seems to be related is that if I let my Session expire, the FormsAuthentication still seems to think I am authenticated and it lets me access a page even though no currently logged in user exists in my Session, so the page doesn't render correctly. Should I tap into the Session_End event and do FormsAuthentication.SignOut() here as well? Basically, I want to know when the authentication ticket created by System.Web.Security.FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(..) gets checked in the flow of a request so that I can determine whether I need to SignOut() and force revalidation or not. Thanks for any help. Sorry for the length of this message, trying to be as detailed as possible. Mustafa

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  • Uploading a picture to facebook

    - by kielie
    Hi guys, I am trying to upload a image to a gallery on a facebook fan page, here is my code thus far, $ch = curl_init(); $data = array('type' => 'client_cred', 'client_id' => 'app_id','client_secret'=>'secret_key',' redirect_uri'=>'http://apps.facebook.com/my-application/'); // your connect url here curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, 'https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/access_token'); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $data); $rs = curl_exec($ch); curl_close($ch); $ch = curl_init(); $data = explode("=",$rs); $token = $data[1]; $album_id = '1234'; $file= 'http://my.website.com/my-application/sketch.jpg'; $data = array(basename($file) => "@".realpath($file), //filename, where $row['file_location'] is a file hosted on my server "caption" => "test", "aid" => $album_id, //valid aid, as demonstrated above "access_token" => $token ); $ch2 = curl_init(); $url = "https://graph.facebook.com/".$album_id."/photos"; curl_setopt($ch2, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch2, CURLOPT_HEADER, false); curl_setopt($ch2, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, false); curl_setopt($ch2, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, false); curl_setopt($ch2, CURLOPT_POST, true); curl_setopt($ch2, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $data); $op = curl_exec($ch2); When I echo $token, I seem to be getting the token, but when I run the script, I get this error, {"error":{"type":"OAuthAccessTokenException","message":"An access token is required to request this resource."} , I have NO idea why it is doing this! Basically what I am doing in that code is getting the access token with curl, and then, uploading the photo to my album also via curl, but I keep getting that error! Any help would be appreciated, thank you!

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  • Flex/Flash 4 datagrid displays raw xml

    - by Setori
    Problem: Flex/Flash4 client (built with FlashBuilder4) displays the xml sent from the server exactly as is - the datagrid keeps the format of the xml. I need the datagrid to parse the input and place the data in the correct rows and columns of the datagrid. flow: click on a date in the tree and it makes a server request for batch information in xml form. Using a CallResponder I then update the datagrid's dataProvider. [code] <fx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.controls.Alert; [Bindable]public var selectedTreeNode:XML; public function taskTreeChanged(event:Event):void { selectedTreeNode=Tree(event.target).selectedItem as XML; var searchHubId:String = selectedTreeNode.@hub; var searchDate:String = selectedTreeNode.@lbl; if((searchHubId == "") || (searchDate == "")){ return; } findShipmentBatches(searchDate,searchHubId); } protected function findShipmentBatches(searchDate:String, searchHubId:String):void{ findShipmentBatchesResult.token = actWs.findShipmentBatches(searchDate, searchHubId); } protected function updateBatchDataGridDP():void{ task_list_dg.dataProvider = findShipmentBatchesResult.lastResult; } ]]> </fx:Script> <fx:Declarations> <actws:ActWs id="actWs" fault="Alert.show(event.fault.faultString + '\n' + event.fault.faultDetail)" showBusyCursor="true"/> <s:CallResponder id="findShipmentBatchesResult" result="updateBatchDataGridDP()"/> </fx:Declarations> <mx:AdvancedDataGrid id="task_list_dg" width="100%" height="95%" paddingLeft="0" paddingTop="0" paddingBottom="0"> <mx:columns> <mx:AdvancedDataGridColumn headerText="Receiving date" dataField="rd"/> <mx:AdvancedDataGridColumn headerText="Msg type" dataField="mt"/> <mx:AdvancedDataGridColumn headerText="SSD" dataField="ssd"/> <mx:AdvancedDataGridColumn headerText="Shipping site" dataField="sss"/> <mx:AdvancedDataGridColumn headerText="File name" dataField="fn"/> <mx:AdvancedDataGridColumn headerText="Batch number" dataField="bn"/> </mx:columns> </mx:AdvancedDataGrid> //xml example from server <batches> <batch> <rd>2010-04-23 16:31:00.0</rd> <mt>SC1REVISION01</mt> <ssd>2010-02-18 00:00:00.0</ssd> <sss>100000009</sss> <fn>Revision 1-DF-Ocean-SC1SUM-Quanta-PACT-EMEA-Scheduled Ship Date 20100218.csv</fn> <bn>10041</bn> </batch> <batches> [/code] and the xml is pretty much displayed exactly as is shown in the example above in the datagrid columns... I would appreciate your assistance.

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  • Prototype JS swallows errors in dom:loaded, and ajax callbacks?

    - by WishCow
    I can't figure out why prototype suppressess the error messages in the dom:loaded event, and in AJAX handlers. Given the following piece of HTML: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.1//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml11/DTD/xhtml11.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>Conforming XHTML 1.1 Template</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="prototype.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> document.observe('dom:loaded', function() { console.log('domready'); console.log(idontexist); }); </script> </head> <body> </body> </html> The domready event fires, I see the log in the console, but there is no indication of any errors whatsoever. If you move the console.log(idontexist); line out of the handler, you get the idontexist is not defined error in the console. I find it a little weird, that in other event handlers, like 'click', you get the error message, it seems that it's only the dom:loaded that has this problem. The same goes for AJAX handlers: new Ajax.Request('/', { method: 'get', onComplete: function(r) { console.log('xhr complete'); alert(youwontseeme); } }); You won't see any errors. This is with prototype.js 1.6.1, and I can't find any indication of this behavior in the docs, nor a way to enable error reporting in these handlers. I have tried stepping through the code with FireBug's debugger, and it seems to jump to a function on line 53 named K, when it encounters the missing variable in the dom:loaded handler: K: function(x) { return x } But how? Why? When? I can't see any try/catch block there, how does the program flow end up there? I know that I can make the errors visible by packing my dom:ready handler(s) in try/catch blocks, but that's not a very comfortable option. Same goes for registering a global onException handler for the AJAX calls. Why does it even suppress the errors? Did someone encounter this before?

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  • Problems doing asynch operations in C# using Mutex.

    - by firoso
    I've tried this MANY ways, here is the current iteration. I think I've just implemented this all wrong. What I'm trying to accomplish is to treat this Asynch result in such a way that until it returns AND I finish with my add-thumbnail call, I will not request another call to imageProvider.BeginGetImage. To Clarify, my question is two-fold. Why does what I'm doing never seem to halt at my Mutex.WaitOne() call, and what is the proper way to handle this scenario? /// <summary> /// re-creates a list of thumbnails from a list of TreeElementViewModels (directories) /// </summary> /// <param name="list">the list of TreeElementViewModels to process</param> public void BeginLayout(List<AiTreeElementViewModel> list) { // *removed code for canceling and cleanup from previous calls* // Starts the processing of all folders in parallel. Task.Factory.StartNew(() => { thumbnailRequests = Parallel.ForEach<AiTreeElementViewModel>(list, options, ProcessFolder); }); } /// <summary> /// Processes a folder for all of it's image paths and loads them from disk. /// </summary> /// <param name="element">the tree element to process</param> private void ProcessFolder(AiTreeElementViewModel element) { try { var images = ImageCrawler.GetImagePaths(element.Path); AsyncCallback callback = AddThumbnail; foreach (var image in images) { Console.WriteLine("Attempting Enter"); synchMutex.WaitOne(); Console.WriteLine("Entered"); var result = imageProvider.BeginGetImage(callback, image); } } catch (Exception exc) { Console.WriteLine(exc.ToString()); // TODO: Do Something here. } } /// <summary> /// Adds a thumbnail to the Browser /// </summary> /// <param name="result">an async result used for retrieving state data from the load task.</param> private void AddThumbnail(IAsyncResult result) { lock (Thumbnails) { try { Stream image = imageProvider.EndGetImage(result); string filename = imageProvider.GetImageName(result); string imagePath = imageProvider.GetImagePath(result); var imageviewmodel = new AiImageThumbnailViewModel(image, filename, imagePath); thumbnailHash[imagePath] = imageviewmodel; HostInvoke(() => Thumbnails.Add(imageviewmodel)); UpdateChildZoom(); //synchMutex.ReleaseMutex(); Console.WriteLine("Exited"); } catch (Exception exc) { Console.WriteLine(exc.ToString()); // TODO: Do Something here. } } }

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  • Maven nexus with jetty 7 and apache2 reverse proxy

    - by user613154
    Hello stackoverflow ! Here is my problem : i try to run a maven nexus behind an apache reverse proxy. As i have multiples war in my jetty, i want the nexus to run here : http://localhost:8080/nexus I made a jetty context file as follow : {jetty.home}/contexts/nexus.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <!DOCTYPE Configure PUBLIC "-//Jetty//Configure//EN" "http://www.eclipse.org/jetty/configure.dtd"> <Configure class="org.eclipse.jetty.webapp.WebAppContext"> <Set name="contextPath">/nexus</Set> <Set name="war"><SystemProperty name="jetty.home" default="."/>/webapps/nexus.war</Set> </Configure> My jetty connector in jetty.xml is as follow : <Call name="addConnector"> <Arg> <New class="org.eclipse.jetty.server.nio.SelectChannelConnector"> <Set name="host"><Property name="jetty.host" /></Set> <Set name="port"><Property name="jetty.port" default="8080"/></Set> <Set name="maxIdleTime">300000</Set> <Set name="Acceptors">2</Set> <Set name="forwarded">true</Set> <Set name="statsOn">false</Set> <Set name="confidentialPort">8443</Set> <Set name="lowResourcesConnections">20000</Set> <Set name="lowResourcesMaxIdleTime">5000</Set> </New> </Arg> </Call> I want http://maven.foo.com/ as an end point for the nexus, so i made this apache2 configuration file : ProxyRequests Off ProxyVia Off ProxyPreserveHost On <Proxy *> AddDefaultCharset off Order deny,allow Allow from all </Proxy> <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName maven.foo.com ProxyPass / http://localhost:8080/nexus/ ProxyPassReverse / http://localhost:8080/nexus/ ErrorLog ${APACHE_LOG_DIR}/error_nexus.log </VirtualHost> But i can't manage to make it work. The error message displayed in the browser is "The server has not found anything matching the request URI". I tried to read docs on jetty and apache web site, but didn't find information for mapping a subdomain "sub.foo.com" to a context "localhost:8080/sub" ... Any help welcome ! Thanks

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  • Merging two XML files into one XML file using Java

    - by dmurali
    I am stuck with how to proceed with combining two different XML files(which has the same structure). When I was doing some research on it, people say that XML parsers like DOM or StAX will have to be used. But cant I do it with the regular IOStream? I am currently trying to do with the help of IOStream but this is not solving my purpose, its being more complex. For example, What I have tried is; public class GUI { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { // Creates file to write to Writer output = null; output = new BufferedWriter(new FileWriter("C:\\merged.xml")); String newline = System.getProperty("line.separator"); output.write(""); // Read in xml file 1 FileInputStream in = new FileInputStream("C:\\1.xml"); BufferedReader br = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(in)); String strLine; while ((strLine = br.readLine()) != null) { if (strLine.contains("<MemoryDump>")){ strLine = strLine.replace("<MemoryDump>", "xmlns:xsi"); } if (strLine.contains("</MemoryDump>")){ strLine = strLine.replace("</MemoryDump>", "xmlns:xsd"); } output.write(newline); output.write(strLine); System.out.println(strLine); } // Read in xml file 2 FileInputStream in = new FileInputStream("C:\\2.xml"); BufferedReader br1 = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(in)); String strLine1; while ((strLine1 = br1.readLine()) != null) { if (strLine1.contains("<MemoryDump>")){ strLine1 = strLine1.replace("<MemoryDump>", ""); } if (strLine1.contains("</MemoryDump>")){ strLine1 = strLine1.replace("</MemoryDump>", ""); } output.write(newline); output.write(strLine1); I request you to kindly let me know how do I proceed with merging two XML files by adding additional content as well. It would be great if you could provide me some example links as well..! Thank You in Advance..! System.out.println(strLine1); } }

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  • make an http post from server using user credentials - integrated security

    - by opensas
    I'm trying to make a post, from an asp classic server side page, using the user credentials... I'm using msxml2.ServerXMLHTTP to programatically make the post I've tried with several configurations in the IIS 5.1 site, but there's no way I can make IIS run with a specified account... I made a little asp page that runs whoami to verify what account the iis process i using... with IIS 5.1, using integrated security the process uses: my_machine\IWAM_my_machine I disable integrated security, and leave a domain account as anonymous access, and I get the same (¿?) to test the user I do the following private function whoami() dim shell, cmd set shell = createObject("wscript.shell") set cmd = shell.exec( server.mapPath( "whoami.exe" ) ) whoami = cmd.stdOut.readAll() set shell = nothing: set cmd = nothing end function is it because I'm issuing a shell command? I'd like to make http post calls, to another site that works with integrated security... So I need some way to pass the credentials, or at least to run with a specified account, and then configure the remote site to thrust that account... I thought that just setting the site to work with integrated security would be enough... How can I achieve such a thing? ps: with IIS6,happens the same but if I change the pool canfiguration I get the following info from whoami NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE NT AUTHORITY\LOCAL SERVICE NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM if I set a domain account, I get a "service unavailable" message... edit: found this http://www.microsoft.com/technet/prodtechnol/WindowsServer2003/Library/IIS/275269ee-1b9f-4869-8d72-c9006b5bd659.mspx?mfr=true it says what I supossed, "If an authenticated user makes a request, the thread token is based on the authenticated account of the user", but somehow I doesn't seem to work like that... what could I possibly be missing? edit: well the whoami thing is obviously fooling me, I tried with the following function private function whoami_db( serverName, dbName ) dim conn, data set conn = server.createObject("adodb.connection") conn.open "Provider=SQLOLEDB.1;Integrated Security=SSPI;" & _ "Initial Catalog=" & dbName & ";Data Source=" & serverName set data = conn.execute( "select suser_sname() as user_name" ) whoami_db = data("user_name") data.close: conn.close set data = nothing: set conn = nothing end function and everything seemed to be working fine... but how can I make msxml2.ServerXMLHTTP work with the user credentials???

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  • How do I solve an AntiForgeryToken exception that occurs after an iisreset in my ASP.Net MVC app?

    - by Colin Newell
    I’m having problems with the AntiForgeryToken in ASP.Net MVC. If I do an iisreset on my web server and a user continues with their session they get bounced to a login page. Not terrible but then the AntiForgery token blows up and the only way to get going again is to blow away the cookie on the browser. With the beta version of version 1 it used to go wrong when reading the cookie back in for me so I used to scrub it before asking for a validation token but that was fixed when it was released. For now I think I’ll roll back to my code that fixed the beta problem but I can’t help but think I’m missing something. Is there a simpler solution, heck should I just drop their helper and create a new one from scratch? I get the feeling that a lot of the problem is the fact that it’s tied so deeply into the old ASP.Net pipeline and is trying to kludge it into doing something it wasn’t really designed to do. I had a look in the source code for the ASP.Net MVC 2 RC and it doesn't look like the code has changed much so while I haven't tried it, I don't think there are any answers there. Here is the relevant part of the stack trace of the exception. Edit: I just realised I didn't mention that this is just trying to insert the token on the GET request. This isn't the validation that occurs when you do a POST kicking off. System.Web.Mvc.HttpAntiForgeryException: A required anti-forgery token was not supplied or was invalid. ---> System.Web.HttpException: Validation of viewstate MAC failed. If this application is hosted by a Web Farm or cluster, ensure that <machineKey> configuration specifies the same validationKey and validation algorithm. AutoGenerate cannot be used in a cluster. ---> System.Web.UI.ViewStateException: Invalid viewstate. Client IP: 127.0.0.1 Port: 4991 User-Agent: scrubbed ViewState: scrubbed Referer: blah Path: /oursite/Account/Login ---> System.Security.Cryptography.CryptographicException: Padding is invalid and cannot be removed. at System.Security.Cryptography.RijndaelManagedTransform.DecryptData(Byte[] inputBuffer, Int32 inputOffset, Int32 inputCount, Byte[]& outputBuffer, Int32 outputOffset, PaddingMode paddingMode, Boolean fLast) at System.Security.Cryptography.RijndaelManagedTransform.TransformFinalBlock(Byte[] inputBuffer, Int32 inputOffset, Int32 inputCount) at System.Security.Cryptography.CryptoStream.FlushFinalBlock() at System.Web.Configuration.MachineKeySection.EncryptOrDecryptData(Boolean fEncrypt, Byte[] buf, Byte[] modifier, Int32 start, Int32 length, IVType ivType, Boolean useValidationSymAlgo) at System.Web.UI.ObjectStateFormatter.Deserialize(String inputString) --- End of inner exception stack trace --- --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at System.Web.UI.ViewStateException.ThrowError(Exception inner, String persistedState, String errorPageMessage, Boolean macValidationError) at System.Web.UI.ViewStateException.ThrowMacValidationError(Exception inner, String persistedState) at System.Web.UI.ObjectStateFormatter.Deserialize(String inputString) at System.Web.UI.ObjectStateFormatter.System.Web.UI.IStateFormatter.Deserialize(String serializedState) at System.Web.Mvc.AntiForgeryDataSerializer.Deserialize(String serializedToken) --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at System.Web.Mvc.AntiForgeryDataSerializer.Deserialize(String serializedToken) at System.Web.Mvc.HtmlHelper.GetAntiForgeryTokenAndSetCookie(String salt, String domain, String path) at System.Web.Mvc.HtmlHelper.AntiForgeryToken(String salt, String domain, String path)

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  • Does a nested subTable break reRender?

    - by Tom
    Here is a minimal rich:dataTable with an a4j:commandLink inside. When clicked it sends an AJAX request to my bean and reRenders the dataTable. <rich:dataTable id="dataTable" value="#{carManager.all}" var="item"> <rich:column> <f:facet name="header">name</f:facet> <h:outputText value="#{item.name}" /> </rich:column> <rich:column> <f:facet name="header">action</f:facet> <a4j:commandLink reRender="dataTable" value="Delete" action="#{carForm.delete}"> <f:setPropertyActionListener value="#{item.id}" target="#{carForm.id}" /> <f:param name="from" value="list" /> </a4j:commandLink> </rich:column> </rich:dataTable> The exmaple obove works fine so far. But when I add a rich:subTable to the table, reRendering fails... <rich:dataTable id="dataTable" value="#{garageManager.all}" var="garage"> <f:facet name="header"> <rich:columnGroup> <rich:column>name</rich:column> <rich:column>action</rich:column> </rich:columnGroup> </f:facet> <rich:column colspan="2"> <h:outputText value="#{garage.name}" /> </rich:column> <rich:subTable value="#{garage.cars}" var="car"> <rich:column><h:ouputText value="#{car.name}" /></rich:column> <rich:column> <a4j:commandLink reRender="dataTable" value="Delete" action="#{carForm.delete}"> <f:setPropertyActionListener value="#{item.id}" target="#{carForm.id}" /> <f:param name="from" value="list" /> </a4j:commandLink> </rich:column> </rich:column> </rich:dataTable> Now the rich:dataTable is not rerendered but the item gets deleted since the item does not show up after a complete page refresh. Why does subTable break support for reRender-ing the way i'd like to use it here? Tanks Tom

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  • UpdateProgress with UpdatePanel not showing up in User control when page is loading

    - by Carter
    Is this typical behavior of the UpdateProgress for an ASP.Net UpdatePanel? I have an update panel with the UpdateProgress control inside of a user control window on a page. If I then make the page in the background do some loading and click a button in the user control update panel the UpdateProgress does not show up at all. It's like the UpdatePanels refresh request is not even registered until after the actual page is done doing it's business. It's worth noting that it will show up if nothing is happening in the background. The functionality I want is what you would expect. I want to loader to show up if it has to wait for anything to get it's refresh done when after the button is clicked. I know I can get this functionality if I just use jquery ajax with a static web method, but you can't have static web methods inside of a user control. I could have it in the page but it really doesn't belong there. A full-blown wcf wouldn't really be worth it in this case either. I'm trying to compromise with an UpdatePanel but these things always seem to cause me some kind of trouble. Maybe this is just the way it works? Edit:So I'll clarify a bit what I'm doing. What's happening is I have a page and all it has on it are some tools on the side and a big map. When the page initially loads it takes some time to load the map. Now if while it's loading I open up the tool (a user control) that has the update panel in question in it and click the button on this user control that should refresh the update panel with new data and show the loading sign (in the updateprogress) then the UpdateProgress loading image does not show up. However, the code run by the button click does run after the page is done loading (as expected) and The UpdateProgress will show up if nothing on the page containing the user control is loading. I just want the loader to show up while the page is loading. I thought my problem was that perhaps the map loading is in an update panel and my UpdateProgress was only being associated with the update panel for the user control's update panel. Hence, I would get no loading icon when the map was loading. This is not the case though.

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  • System architecture: simple approach for setting up background tasks behind a web application -- wil

    - by Tim Molendijk
    I have a Django web application and I have some tasks that should operate (or actually: be initiated) on the background. The application is deployed as follows: apache2-mpm-worker; mod_wsgi in daemon mode (1 process, 15 threads). The background tasks have the following characteristics: they need to operate in a regular interval (every 5 minutes or so); they require the application context (i.e. the application packages need to be available in memory); they do not need any input other than database access, in order to perform some not-so-heavy tasks such as sending out e-mail and updating the state of the database. Now I was thinking that the most simple approach to this problem would be simply to piggyback on the existing application process (as spawned by mod_wsgi). By implementing the task as part of the application and providing an HTTP interface for it, I would prevent the overhead of another process that is holding all of the application into memory. A simple cronjob can be setup that sends a request to this HTTP interface every 5 minutes and that would be it. Since the application process provides 15 threads and the tasks are quite lightweight and only running every 5 minutes, I figure they would not be hindering the performance of the web application's user-facing operations. Yet... I have done some online research and I have seen nobody advocating this approach. Many articles suggest a significantly more complex approach based on a full-blown messaging component (such as Celery, which uses RabbitMQ). Although that's sexy, it sounds like overkill to me. Some articles suggest setting up a cronjob that executes a script which performs the tasks. But that doesn't feel very attractive either, as it results in creating a new process that loads the entire application into memory, performs some tiny task, and destroys the process again. And this is repeated every 5 minutes. Does not sound like an elegant solution. So, I'm looking for some feedback on my suggested approach as described in the paragraph before the preceeding paragraph. Is my reasoning correct? Am I overlooking (potential) problems? What about my assumption that application's performance will not be impeded?

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  • jquery data selector

    - by Tauren
    I need to select elements based on values stored in an element's .data() object. At a minimum, I'd like to select top-level data properties using selectors, perhaps like this: $('a').data("category","music"); $('a:data(category=music)'); Or perhaps the selector would be in regular attribute selector format: $('a[category=music]'); Or in attribute format, but with a specifier to indicate it is in .data(): $('a[:category=music]'); I've found James Padolsey's implementation to look simple, yet good. The selector formats above mirror methods shown on that page. There is also this Sizzle patch. For some reason, I recall reading a while back that jQuery 1.4 would include support for selectors on values in the jquery .data() object. However, now that I'm looking for it, I can't find it. Maybe it was just a feature request that I saw. Is there support for this and I'm just not seeing it? Ideally, I'd like to support sub-properties in data() using dot notation. Like this: $('a').data("user",{name: {first:"Tom",last:"Smith"},username: "tomsmith"}); $('a[:user.name.first=Tom]'); I also would like to support multiple data selectors, where only elements with ALL specified data selectors are found. The regular jquery multiple selector does an OR operation. For instance, $('a.big, a.small') selects a tags with either class big or small). I'm looking for an AND, perhaps like this: $('a').data("artist",{id: 3281, name: "Madonna"}); $('a').data("category","music"); $('a[:category=music && :artist.name=Madonna]'); Lastly, it would be great if comparison operators and regex features were available on data selectors. So $(a[:artist.id>5000]) would be possible. I realize I could probably do much of this using filter(), but it would be nice to have a simple selector format. What solutions are available to do this? Is Jame's Padolsey's the best solution at this time? My concern is primarily in regards to performance, but also in the extra features like sub-property dot-notation and multiple data selectors. Are there other implementations that support these things or are better in some way?

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