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  • Publishing WCF .NET 3.5 to IIS 6 (Windows Server 2003)

    - by Adam
    I've been developing a WCF web service using .NET 3.5 with IIS7 and it works perfectly on my local computer. I tried publishing it to a server running IIS 6 and even though I can view the WSDL in my browser, the client application doesn't seem to be connecting to it correctly. I launched a packet sniffing app (Charles Proxy) and the response for the first message comes back to the client empty (0 bytes). Every message after the first one times out. The WCF service is part of a larger application that uses ASP .NET 3.5. That application has been working fine on IIS 6 for awhile now so I think it's something specific to WCF. I also tried throwing an exception in the SVC file to see if it made it that far and the exception never got thrown so I have a feeling it's something more low level that's not working. Any thoughts? Is there anything I need to install on the IIS5 server? If so how am I still able to view the WSDL in my browser? The service is being consumed via an SVC file using basicHttpBinding Here's the meat of the Web.Config (let me know if you need any other part of it): <system.net> <defaultProxy> <proxy usesystemdefault="False" proxyaddress="http://127.0.0.1:80" bypassonlocal="True"/> </defaultProxy> </system.net> ... <system.serviceModel> <services> <service name="Nexternal.Service.XMLTools.VNService" behaviorConfiguration="VNServiceBehavior"> <!--The first endpoint would be picked up from the confirg this shows how the config can be overriden with the service host--> <endpoint address="" binding="basicHttpBinding" contract="Nexternal.Service.XMLTools.IVNService" /> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" name="mexHttpBinding" /> </service> </services> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="VNServiceBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true" /> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="true" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> <serviceHostingEnvironment aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true" /> </system.serviceModel>

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  • Have problems designing input and output for a calculator app

    - by zoul
    Hello! I am writing a button calculator. I have the code split into model, view and a controller. The model knows nothing about formatting, it is only concerned with numbers. All formatting is done in the view. The model gets its input as keypresses, each keypress is a part of an enum: typedef enum { kButtonUnknown = 0, kButtonMemoryClear = 100, kButtonMemoryPlus = 112, kButtonMemoryMinus = 109, kButtonMemoryRecall = 114, kButtonClear = 99, … }; When the user presses a button (say 1), the model receives a button code (kButtonNum1), adds the corresponding number to a string input buffer ("1") and updates the numeric output value (1.0). The controller then passes the numeric output value to the view that formats it (1). This is all plain, simple and clean, but does not really work. The problem is that when user enters a part of a number (say 0.00, going to enter 0.001), the input does not survive the way through model to view and the display says 0 instead of 0.00. I know why this happens ("0.00"::string parses to 0::double and that gets formatted as 0). What I don’t know is how to design the calculator so that the code stays clean and simple and the numbers will show up on screen exactly as the user types them. I’ve already come with some kind of solution, but that’s essentially a hack and breaks the beautiful and simple flow from the calculator model to the display. Ideas? Current solution keeps track of the calculator state. If the calculator is building a number, I take the calculator input buffer (a string) and directly set the display contents (also a string). Otherwise I take the proper path, ie. take the numeric calculator output, pass it to the view as a double and the view uses its internal formatter to create a string for the display. Example input: input | display | mode ------+---------+------------ 0 | 0 | from string 0. | 0. | from string 0.0 | 0.0 | from string 0.0+ | 0 | from number This is ugly. (1) The calculator has to expose its input buffer and state. (2) The view has to expose its display and allow setting its contents directly using a string. (3) I have to duplicate some of the formatting code to format the string I got from the calculator input buffer. If user enters 12345.000, I have to display 12,345.000 and therefore I’ve got to have a commification code for strings. Yuck.

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  • Multiple views and source list in a Core Data app

    - by Ellie P.
    I'm working on my first major Cocoa app for an undergraduate research project. The application is document-based and uses Core Data. One of the entities is an abstract entity, Page. Page is parent of several types of pages: ie PageWithHeaderAndFooter, PageWithTwoColumns, BasicPage etc. Page has attributes, such as title and author, that all pages have in common. Each specific type of page has a certain number of layout blocks (PageWithHeaderAndFooter has three: header, footer, body. BasicPage has one: body. etc.) Additionally, all Page subclasses define layout-specific implementations of certain methods. The other relevant entity is Style, which defines the visual look of a Page. (Think of Pages as HTML and Style as CSS.) I would like my app to have an iTunes/Mail-like source list with sections. (One section would be Pages, the other would be Styles.) I have a pretty good idea how to do the sectioned source list (this was a great help). However, after hours of headbanging and fruitless googling, here's what I can't figure out: Pages and Styles listed in the source list, and when you select one of them, all of the relevant fields for that object appear at the right (mostly NSTextViews, pop up menus, etc). I laid that out and did all of the bindings in Interface Builder. The problem is, if my source list contains different types of pages, how do I get a different view to display at the right depending on the type of page selected? For example, if a BasicPage is selected, I want just what you see above: the general page stuff and one NSTextView that corresponds to the one field body of BasicPage. But if I select a PageWithHeaderAndFooter, I want to display the general page stuff plus three NSTextViews (one for header, body, and footer.) If I have a Style selected, I want to display various pop up menus, color wells, etc. For the pages at least, we're only talking about one or more NSTextViews, each of which corresponds to a String attribute of the respective entity. How would you do this? Thank you for your help!

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  • Do you still limit line length in code?

    - by Noldorin
    This is a matter on which I would like to gauge the opinion of the community: Do you still limit the length of lines of code to a fixed maximum? This was certainly a convention of the past for many languages; one would typically cap the number of characters per line to a value such as 80 (and more recnetly 100 or 120 I believe). As far as I understand, the primary reasons for limiting line length are: Readability - You don't have to scroll over horizontally when you want to see the end of some lines. Printing - Admittedly (at least in my experience), most code that you are working on does not get printed out on paper, but by limiting the number of characters you can insure that formatting doesn't get messed up when printed. Past editors (?) - Not sure about this one, but I suspect that at some point in the distant past of programming, (at least some) text editors may have been based on a fixed-width buffer. I'm sure there are points that I am still missing out, so feel free to add to these... Now, when I tend to observe C or C# code nowadays, I often see a number of different styles, the main ones being: Line length capped to 80, 100, or even 120 characters. As far as I understand, 80 is the traditional length, but the longer ones of 100 and 120 have appeared because of the widespread use of high resolutions and widescreen monitors nowadays. No line length capping at all. This tends to be pretty horrible to read, and I don't see it too often, though it's certainly not too rare either. Inconsistent capping of line length. The length of some lines are limited to a fixed maximum (or even a maximum that changes depending on the file/location in code), while others (possibly comments) are not at all. My personal preference here (at least recently) has been to cap the line length to 100 in the Visual Studio editor. This means that in a decently sized window (on a non-widescreen monitor), the ends of lines are still fully visible. I can however see a few disadvantages in this, especially when you end up writing code that's indented 3 or 4 levels and then having to include a long string literal - though I often take this as a sign to refactor my code! In particular, I am curious what the C and C# coders (or anyone who uses Visual Studio for that matter) think about this point, though I would be interested in hearing anyone's thoughts on the subject. Edit Thanks for the all answers - I appreciate the variety of opinions here, all presenting sound reasons. Consensus does seem to be tipping in the direction of always (or almost always) limit the line length. Interestingly, it seems to be in various coding standards to limit the line length. Judging by some of the answers, both the Python and Google CPP guidelines set the limit at 80 chars. I haven't seen anything similar regarding C# or VB.NET, but I would be curious to see if there are ones anywhere.

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  • WPF MVVM: Convention over Configuration for ResourceDictionary ?

    - by Jeffrey Knight
    Update In the wiki spirit of StackOverflow, here's an update: I spiked Joe White's IValueConverter suggestion below. It works like a charm. I've written a "quickstart" example of this that automates the mapping of ViewModels-Views using some cheap string replacement. If no View is found to represent the ViewModel, it defaults to an "Under Construction" page. I'm dubbing this approach "WPF MVVM White" since it was Joe White's idea. Here are a couple screenshots. The first image is a case of "[SomeControlName]ViewModel" has a corresponding "[SomeControlName]View", based on pure naming convention. The second is a case where the ModelView doesn't have any views to represent it. No more ResourceDictionaries with long ViewModel to View mappings. It's pure naming convention now. I'm hosting a download of the project here: http://rootsilver.com/files/Mvvm.White.Quickstart.zip I'll follow up with a longer blog post walk through. Original Post I read Josh Smith's fantastic MSDN article on WPF MVVM over the weekend. It's destined to be a cult classic. It took me a while to wrap my head around the magic of asking WPF to render the ViewModel. It's like saying "Here's a class, WPF. Go figure out which UI to use to present it." For those who missed this magic, WPF can do this by looking up the View for ModelView in the ResourceDictionary mapping and pulling out the corresponding View. (Scroll down to Figure 10 Supplying a View ). The first thing that jumps out at me immediately is that there's already a strong naming convention of: classNameView ("View" suffix) classNameViewModel ("ViewModel" suffix) My question is: Since the ResourceDictionary can be manipulated programatically, I"m wondering if anyone has managed to Regex.Replace the whole thing away, so the lookup is automatic, and any new View/ViewModels get resolved by virtue of their naming convention? [Edit] What I'm imagining is a hook/interception into ResourceDictionary. ... Also considering a method at startup that uses interop to pull out *View$ and *ViewModel$ class names to build the DataTemplate dictionary in code: //build list foreach .... String.Format("<DataTemplate DataType=\"{x:Type vm:{0} }\"><v:{1} /></DataTemplate>", ...)

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  • Need help with Xpath methods in javascript (selectSingleNode, selectNodes)

    - by Andrija
    I want to optimize my javascript but I ran into a bit of trouble. I'm using XSLT transformation and the basic idea is to get a part of the XML and subquery it so the calls are faster and less expensive. This is a part of the XML: <suite> <table id="spis" runat="client"> <rows> <row id="spis_1"> <dispatch>'2008', '288627'</dispatch> <data col="urGod"> <title>2008</title> <description>Ur. god.</description> </data> <data col="rbr"> <title>288627</title> <description>Rbr.</description> </data> ... </rows> </table> </suite> In the page, this is the javascript that works with this: // this is my global variable for getting the elements so I just get the most // I can in one call elemCollection = iDom3.Table.all["spis"].XML.DOM.selectNodes("/suite/table/rows/row").context; //then I have the method that uses this by getting the subresults from elemCollection //rest of the method isn't interesting, only the selectNodes call _buildResults = function (){ var _RowList = elemCollection.selectNodes("/data[@col = 'urGod']/title"); var tmpResult = ['']; var substringResult=""; for (i=0; i<_RowList.length; i++) { tmpResult.push(_RowList[i].text,iDom3.Global.Delimiter); } ... //this variant works elemCollection = iDom3.Table.all["spis"].XML.DOM _buildResults = function (){ var _RowList = elemCollection.selectNodes("/suite/table/rows/row/data[@col = 'urGod']/title"); var tmpResult = ['']; var substringResult=""; for (i=0; i<_RowList.length; i++) { tmpResult.push(_RowList[i].text,iDom3.Global.Delimiter); } ... The problem is, I can't find a way to use the subresults to get what I need.

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  • GWT styles not applying

    - by sernaferna
    I'm creating a GWT application that uses UiBinder, and I've come across a bizarre problem where styles aren't applying to my elements--until I refresh the browser, and then the styles briefly get applied, in that fraction of a second before the page refreshes. In other words: Open page; none of my defined styles are used. Hit Refresh For a fraction of a second the styles are used, before the page goes blank The page reloads, without the styles again I'm going to include my entire *ui.xml file, because it's not too big. <!DOCTYPE ui:UiBinder SYSTEM "http://dl.google.com/gwt/DTD/xhtml.ent"> <ui:UiBinder xmlns:ui="urn:ui:com.google.gwt.uibinder" xmlns:g="urn:import:com.google.gwt.user.client.ui"> <ui:style> .idLabelStyle { font-weight: bold; text-align: center; width: 100px; border-style: solid; border-width: 1px; margin-right: 5px; } .nameLabelStyle { font-weight: bold; text-align: center; width: 500px; border-style: solid; border-width: 1px; margin-right: 5px; } .addressLabelStyle { font-weight: bold; text-align: center; width: 500px; border-style: solid; border-width: 1px; } </ui:style> <g:HTMLPanel> <g:HorizontalPanel> <g:Label addStyleNames="{style.idLabelStyle}">ID</g:Label> <g:Label addStyleNames="{style.nameLabelStyle}">Name</g:Label> <g:Label addStyleNames="{style.addressLabelStyle}">Address</g:Label> </g:HorizontalPanel> </g:HTMLPanel> </ui:UiBinder> I really hope I'm missing something simple.

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  • Serializing Class Derived from Generic Collection yet Deserializing the Generic Collection

    - by Stacey
    I have a Repository Class with the following method... public T Single<T>(Predicate<T> expression) { using (var list = (Models.Collectable<T>)System.Xml.Serializer.Deserialize(typeof(Models.Collectable<T>), FileName)) { return list.Find(expression); } } Where Collectable is defined.. [Serializable] public class Collectable<T> : List<T>, IDisposable { public Collectable() { } public void Dispose() { } } And an Item that uses it is defined.. [Serializable] [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlRoot("Titles")] public partial class Titles : Collectable<Title> { } The problem is when I call the method, it expects "Collectable" to be the XmlRoot, but the XmlRoot is "Titles" (all of object Title). I have several classes that are collected in .xml files like this, but it seems pointless to rewrite the basic methods for loading each up when the generic accessors do it - but how can I enforce the proper root name for each file without hard coding methods for each one? The [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlRoot] seems to be ignored. When called like this... var titles = Repository.List<Models.Title>(); I get the exception <Titlesxmlns=''> was not expected. The XML is formatted such as. .. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-16"?> <Titles xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <Title> <Id>442daf7d-193c-4da8-be0b-417cec9dc1c5</Id> </Title> </Titles> Here is the deserialization code. public static T Deserialize<T>(String xmlString) { System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer XmlFormatSerializer = new System.Xml.Serialization.XmlSerializer(typeof(T)); StreamReader XmlStringReader = new StreamReader(xmlString); //XmlTextReader XmlFormatReader = new XmlTextReader(XmlStringReader); try { return (T)XmlFormatSerializer.Deserialize(XmlStringReader); } catch (Exception e) { throw e; } finally { XmlStringReader.Close(); } }

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  • How to fine tune a Membership Provider?

    - by Venemo
    After all the answers to my last question about fine-tuning turned out to be more useful than I expected, I thought that I would ask another similar Question about the MembershipProviders as well. Okay, so firstly, to clarify: I know what a Membership, Role, and Profile provider is, how to implement my own, and how to configure them, and most of the things about them. Implementing a role and profile provider is pretty straightforward, because they only require simple CRUD most of the time. (A single line of LINQ is enough for about half of the RoleProvider's methods.) However, the Membership provider is a differend beast. Many of you may realize that it violates the SR (Single Responsibility) principle, because it has to do EVERYTHING related to user management. While this leaves a lot of room for customizations, it has its downsides as well. There is no information on the Internet about what their EXACT expected behaviour is, such as when should they throw exceptions or simply return null, and stuff like that. I use this sample implementation for reference, but it also contains several contradictions. For example, it uses its own ValidateUser method for checking for credentials in the ChangePassword method. But the ValidateUser also updates the user's LastLoginDate to the current date. So, does the framework expect that I set it in my own provider as well, or is it simply a mistake in the sample? The other is: the ChangePassword method throws an exception every time when validating the new password, but CreateUser doesn't ever throw an exception, it simply returns false. And last, but not least: it counts the invalid password attempts of the user and locks them if it passes a threshold. While this is good, but it requires manual action to unlock the users. Is it a problem if my provider automatically unlocks the user after a certain amount of time? (EDIT) I almost forgot: the CreateUser method in the sample inserts the ID from the method parameter. I actually think this is bad practice, because I use inters with auto incement as IDs, so inserting them from some method parameter is not an option. Should I just ignore the parameter, or require that its value is null and throw an exception if it isn't? All in all, does ASP.NET have any assumptions about the behaviour of a MembershipProvider? Is there any documentation which describes when should I throw an exception or just return null? I also tried to find a set of generic unit tests which would provide some guidance about the expected behaviour, but no luck, I found plenty of articles about "Unit testing is good", and "How to unit test a MembershipProvider", but not one where there would be any actual tests. Thanks in advance for everyone!

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  • Linq-to-SQL: How to perform a count on a sub-select

    - by Peter Bridger
    I'm still trying to get my head round how to use LINQ-to-SQL correctly, rather than just writing my own sprocs. In the code belong a userId is passed into the method, then LINQ uses this to get all rows from the GroupTable tables matching the userId. The primary key of the GroupUser table is GroupUserId, which is a foreign key in the Group table. /// <summary> /// Return summary details about the groups a user belongs to /// </summary> /// <param name="userId"></param> /// <returns></returns> public List<Group> GroupsForUser(int userId) { DataAccess.KINv2DataContext db = new DataAccess.KINv2DataContext(); List<Group> groups = new List<Group>(); groups = (from g in db.Groups join gu in db.GroupUsers on g.GroupId equals gu.GroupId where g.Active == true && gu.UserId == userId select new Group { Name = g.Name, CreatedOn = g.CreatedOn }).ToList<Group>(); return groups; } } This works fine, but I'd also like to return the total number of Users who are in a group and also the total number of Contacts that fall under ownership of the group. Pseudo code ahoy! /// <summary> /// Return summary details about the groups a user belongs to /// </summary> /// <param name="userId"></param> /// <returns></returns> public List<Group> GroupsForUser(int userId) { DataAccess.KINv2DataContext db = new DataAccess.KINv2DataContext(); List<Group> groups = new List<Group>(); groups = (from g in db.Groups join gu in db.GroupUsers on g.GroupId equals gu.GroupId where g.Active == true && gu.UserId == userId select new Group { Name = g.Name, CreatedOn = g.CreatedOn, // ### This is the SQL I would write to get the data I want ### MemberCount = ( SELECT COUNT(*) FROM GroupUser AS GU WHERE GU.GroupId = g.GroupId ), ContactCount = ( SELECT COUNT(*) FROM Contact AS C WHERE C.OwnerGroupId = g.GroupId ) // ### End of extra code ### }).ToList<Group>(); return groups; } }

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  • Delphi interface cast using TValue

    - by conciliator
    I've recently experimented extensively with interfaces and D2010 RTTI. I don't know at runtime the actual type of the interface; although I will have access to it's qualified name using a string. Consider the following: program rtti_sb_1; {$APPTYPE CONSOLE} uses SysUtils, Rtti, TypInfo, mynamespace in 'mynamespace.pas'; var ctx: TRttiContext; InterfaceType: TRttiType; Method: TRttiMethod; ActualParentInstance: IParent; ChildInterfaceValue: TValue; ParentInterfaceValue: TValue; begin ctx := TRttiContext.Create; // Instantiation ActualParentInstance := TChild.Create as IParent; {$define WORKAROUND} {$ifdef WORKAROUND} InterfaceType := ctx.GetType(TypeInfo(IParent)); InterfaceType := ctx.GetType(TypeInfo(IChild)); {$endif} // Fetch interface type InterfaceType := ctx.FindType('mynamespace.IParent'); // This cast is OK and ChildMethod is executed (ActualParentInstance as IChild).ChildMethod(100); // Create a TValue holding the interface TValue.Make(@ActualParentInstance, InterfaceType.Handle, ParentInterfaceValue); InterfaceType := ctx.FindType('mynamespace.IChild'); // This cast doesn't work if ParentInterfaceValue.TryCast(InterfaceType.Handle, ChildInterfaceValue) then begin Method := InterfaceType.GetMethod('ChildMethod'); if (Method <> nil) then begin Method.Invoke(ChildInterfaceValue, [100]); end; end; ReadLn; end. The contents of mynamespace.pas is as follows: {$M+} IParent = interface ['{2375F59E-D432-4D7D-8D62-768F4225FFD1}'] procedure ParentMethod(const Id: integer); end; {$M-} IChild = interface(IParent) ['{6F89487E-5BB7-42FC-A760-38DA2329E0C5}'] procedure ChildMethod(const Id: integer); end; TParent = class(TInterfacedObject, IParent) public procedure ParentMethod(const Id: integer); end; TChild = class(TParent, IChild) public procedure ChildMethod(const Id: integer); end; For completeness, the implementation goes as procedure TParent.ParentMethod(const Id: integer); begin WriteLn('ParentMethod executed. Id is ' + IntToStr(Id)); end; procedure TChild.ChildMethod(const Id: integer); begin WriteLn('ChildMethod executed. Id is ' + IntToStr(Id)); end; The reason for {$define WORKAROUND} may be found in this post. Question: is there any way for me to make the desired type cast using RTTI? In other words: is there a way for me to invoke IChild.ChildMethod from knowing 1) the qualified name of IChild as a string, and 2) a reference to the TChild instance as a IParent interface? (After all, the hard-coded cast works fine. Is this even possible?) Thanks!

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  • Armchair Linguists: 'code' vs. 'codes'--or why I write 'code' and my manager asks for 'codes'

    - by Ukko
    I wanted to tap into the collective wisdom here to see if I can get some insight into one of my pet peeves, people who thread "code" as a countable noun. Let me also preface this by saying that I am not talking about anyone who speaks english as a second language, this is a native phenomenon. For those of us who slept through grammar class there are two classes of nouns which basically refer to things that are countable and non-countable (sometimes referred to as count and noncount). For instance 'sand' is a non-count noun and 'apple' is count. You can talk about "two apples" but "two sands" does not parse. The bright students then would point out a word like "beer" where is looks like this is violated. Beer as a substance is certainly a non-count noun, but I can ask for "two beers" without offending the grammar police. The reason is that there are actually two words tied up in that one utterance, Definition #1 is a yummy golden substance and Definition #2 is a colloquial term for a container of said substance. #1 is non-count and #2 is countable. This gets to my problem with "codes" as a countable noun. In my mind the code that we programmers write is non-count, "I wrote some code today." When used in the plural like "Have you got the codes" I can only assume that you are asking if I have the cryptographically significant numbers for launching a missile or the like. Every time my peer in marketing asks about when we will have the new codes ready I have a vision of rooms of code breakers going over the latest Enigma coded message. I corrected the usage in all the documents I am asked to review, but then I noticed that our customer was also using the work "codes" when they meant "code". At this point I have realized that there is a significant sub-population that uses "codes" and they seem to be impervious to what I see as the dominant "correct" usage. This is the part I want some help on, has anyone else noticed this phenomenon? Do you know what group it is associated with, old Fortran programmer perhaps? Is it a regionalism? I have become quick to change my terms when I notice a customer's usage, but it would be nice to know if I am sending a proposal somewhere what style they expect. I would hate to get canned with a review of "Ha, these guy's must be morons they don't even know 'code' is plural!"

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  • How to program a real-time accurate audio sequencer on the iphone?

    - by Walchy
    Hi... I want to program a simple audio sequencer on the iphone but I can't get accurate timing. The last days I tried all possible audio techniques on the iphone, starting from AudioServicesPlaySystemSound and AVAudioPlayer and OpenAL to AudioQueues. In my last attempt I tried the CocosDenshion sound engine which uses openAL and allows to load sounds into multiple buffers and then play them whenever needed. Here is the basic code: init: int channelGroups[1]; channelGroups[0] = 8; soundEngine = [[CDSoundEngine alloc] init:channelGroups channelGroupTotal:1]; int i=0; for(NSString *soundName in [NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"base1", @"snare1", @"hihat1", @"dit", @"snare", nil]) { [soundEngine loadBuffer:i fileName:soundName fileType:@"wav"]; i++; } [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:0.14 target:self selector:@selector(drumLoop:) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; In the initialisation I create the sound engine, load some sounds to different buffers and then establish the sequencer loop with NSTimer. audio loop: - (void)drumLoop:(NSTimer *)timer { for(int track=0; track<4; track++) { unsigned char note=pattern[track][step]; if(note) [soundEngine playSound:note-1 channelGroupId:0 pitch:1.0f pan:.5 gain:1.0 loop:NO]; } if(++step>=16) step=0; } Thats it and it works as it should BUT the timing is shaky and instable. As soon as something else happens (i.g. drawing in a view) it goes out of sync. As I understand the sound engine and openAL the buffers are loaded (in the init code) and then are ready to start immediately with alSourcePlay(source); - so the problem may be with NSTimer? Now there are dozens of sound sequencer apps in the appstore and they have accurate timing. I.g. "idrum" has a perfect stable beat even in 180 bpm when zooming and drawing is done. So there must be a solution. Does anybody has any idea? Thanks for any help in advance! Best regards, Walchy

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  • SharePoint 2010 Custom WCF Service - Windows and FBA Authentication

    - by e-rock
    I have SharePoint 2010 configured for Claims Based Authentication with both Windows and Forms Based Authentication (FBA) for external users. I also need to develop custom WCF Services. The issue is that I want Windows credentials passed into the WCF Service(s); however, I cannot seem to get the Windows credentials passed into the services. My custom WCF service appears to be using Anonymous authentication (which has to be enabled in IIS in order to display the FBA login screen). The example I have tried to follow is found at http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff521581.aspx. The WCF service gets deployed to _vti_bin (ISAPI folder). Here is the code for the .svc file <%@ ServiceHost Language="C#" Debug="true" Service="MyCompany.CustomerPortal.SharePoint.UI.ISAPI.MyCompany.Services.LibraryManagers.LibraryUploader, $SharePoint.Project.AssemblyFullName$" Factory="Microsoft.SharePoint.Client.Services.MultipleBaseAddressBasicHttpBindingServiceHostFactory, Microsoft.SharePoint.Client.ServerRuntime, Version=14.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=71e9bce111e9429c" CodeBehind="LibraryUploader.svc.cs" %> Here is the code behind for the .svc file [ServiceContract] public interface ILibraryUploader { [OperationContract] string SiteName(); } [BasicHttpBindingServiceMetadataExchangeEndpoint] [AspNetCompatibilityRequirements(RequirementsMode = AspNetCompatibilityRequirementsMode.Required)] public class LibraryUploader : ILibraryUploader { //just try to return site title right now… public string SiteName() { WindowsIdentity identity = ServiceSecurityContext.Current.WindowsIdentity; ClaimsIdentity claimsIdentity = new ClaimsIdentity(identity); return SPContext.Current.Web.Title; } } The WCF test client I have just to test it out (WPF app) uses the following code to call the WCF service... private void Button1Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { BasicHttpBinding binding = new BasicHttpBinding(); binding.Security.Mode = BasicHttpSecurityMode.TransportCredentialOnly; binding.Security.Transport.ClientCredentialType = HttpClientCredentialType.Ntlm; EndpointAddress endpoint = new EndpointAddress( "http://dev.portal.data-image.local/_vti_bin/MyCompany.Services/LibraryManagers/LibraryUploader.svc"); LibraryUploaderClient libraryUploader = new LibraryUploaderClient(binding, endpoint); libraryUploader.ClientCredentials.Windows.AllowedImpersonationLevel = System.Security.Principal.TokenImpersonationLevel.Impersonation; MessageBox.Show(libraryUploader.SiteName()); } I am somewhat inexperienced with IIS security settings/configurations when it comes to Claims and trying to use both Windows and FBA. I am also inexperienced when it comes to WCF configurations for security. I usually develop internal biz apps and let Visual Studio decide what to use because security is rarely a concern.

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  • Which management tools would you recommend for software development?

    - by Robert Schneider
    What would you generally recommend for software developement? Which combination do you use or would you recommend? I assume that tools are needed for Version control, issues/bugs/task, Release management, Requirement management. Tools for Test management and Project management should be accounted for as well, I guess. Did I forget anything? Maybe tools for Continous Integration. I'm not interested in a halfway combination of one ore two tools like a Subversion + Bugzilla (I know they are good but for a company they might not be sufficient). And also tools like make/ant shouldn't be taken into account. I'd like to know a combination that covers all what is important for professional software development. However, it could be a single tool of course if it covers all the management issues. What do you think would be a good combination? I assume a combination should be regardes as good if the tools itself are good but also if they have good integrations. Udate: Something like Ant is just a script not a management tool. Okay: we do already have Perforce. But this is somehow generic. We have different projects that uses C-, VS/.NET-, Python-, PHP and we will be starting new projects in Java. Plenty of languages and frameworks, though some are going to be legacy. So the tools should be generic. Obviously we don't want to use Bugzilla for one project and Jira for another. The management tools have to be generic. Further thoughts: Think of sourceforge: For each project they offer a version control system, an issue tracker, a wiki, ... totally independent of what the project is about. Those are some management tools that a project usually needs. I would say that most companies need such a set of tools. But I could imagine, if a company has several projects, they need further tools too: for Project management, Quality management, ... And I could imagine there are some recommendable combinations of tools. A not really apropiate comparison to this could be LAMP (Linux, Apache, MySQL, PHP). A combination of software that has evolved since they work very well together, and are pretty useful for a lot of applications (or rather web sites). So maybe there are some recommendable management tool combinations that also fit toghether like LAMP. The integration is important. Thank you for the incredibly fast and helpful responses!!!

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  • EntityManagerFactory error on Websphere

    - by neverland
    I have a very weird problem. Have an application using Hibernate and spring.I have an entitymanger defined which uses a JNDI lookup .It looks something like this <bean id="entityManagerFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="dataSource" ref="dataSource" /> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="ConfigAPPPersist" /> <property name="jpaVendorAdapter"> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.vendor.HibernateJpaVendorAdapter"> <property name="showSql" value="true" /> <property name="generateDdl" value="false" /> <property name="databasePlatform" value="org.hibernate.dialect.Oracle9Dialect" /> </bean> </property> </bean> <bean id="dataSource" class="org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.WebSphereDataSourceAdapter"> <property name="targetDataSource"> <bean class="org.springframework.jndi.JndiObjectFactoryBean"> <property name="jndiName" value="jdbc/pmp" /> </bean> </property> </bean> This application runs fine in DEV. But when we move to higher envs the team that deploys this application does it successfully initially but after a few restarts of the application the entitymanager starts giving this problem Caused by: javax.persistence.PersistenceException: [PersistenceUnit: ConfigAPPPersist] Unable to build EntityManagerFactory at org.hibernate.ejb.Ejb3Configuration.buildEntityManagerFactory(Ejb3Configuration.java:677) at org.hibernate.ejb.HibernatePersistence.createContainerEntityManagerFactory(HibernatePersistence.java:132) at org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean.createNativeEntityManagerFactory(LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean.java:224) at org.springframework.orm.jpa.AbstractEntityManagerFactoryBean.afterPropertiesSet(AbstractEntityManagerFactoryBean.java:291) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.invokeInitMethods(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:1368) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.initializeBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:1334) ... 32 more Caused by: org.hibernate.MappingException: **property mapping has wrong number of columns**: com.***.***.jpa.marketing.entity.MarketBrands.$performasure_j2eeInfo type: object Now you would say this is pretty obvious the entity MarketBrands is incorrect. But its not it maps to the table just fine. And the same code works on DEV. Also the jndi cannot be incorrect since it deploys and works fine initially but throws uo this error after a restart. This is weird and not very logical. But if someone has faced this or has any idea on what might be causing this Please!! help The persistence.xml for the persitence unit has very little <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <persistence xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence/persistence_1_0.xsd" version="1.0"> <persistence-unit name="ConfigAPPPersist"> <!-- commented code --> </persistence-unit> </persistence>

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  • Is this slow WPF TextBlock performance expected?

    - by Ben Schoepke
    Hi, I am doing some benchmarking to determine if I can use WPF for a new product. However, early performance results are disappointing. I made a quick app that uses data binding to display a bunch of random text inside of a list box every 100 ms and it was eating up ~15% CPU. So I made another quick app that skipped the data binding/data template scheme and does nothing but update 10 TextBlocks that are inside of a ListBox every 100 ms (the actual product wouldn't require 100 ms updates, more like 500 ms max, but this is a stress test). I'm still seeing ~10-15% CPU usage. Why is this so high? Is it because of all the garbage strings? Here's the XAML: <Grid> <ListBox x:Name="numericsListBox"> <ListBox.Resources> <Style TargetType="TextBlock"> <Setter Property="FontSize" Value="48"/> <Setter Property="Width" Value="300"/> </Style> </ListBox.Resources> <TextBlock/> <TextBlock/> <TextBlock/> <TextBlock/> <TextBlock/> <TextBlock/> <TextBlock/> <TextBlock/> <TextBlock/> <TextBlock/> </ListBox> </Grid> Here's the code behind: public partial class Window1 : Window { private int _count = 0; public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void OnLoad(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { var t = new DispatcherTimer(TimeSpan.FromSeconds(0.1), DispatcherPriority.Normal, UpdateNumerics, Dispatcher); t.Start(); } private void UpdateNumerics(object sender, EventArgs e) { ++_count; foreach (object textBlock in numericsListBox.Items) { var t = textBlock as TextBlock; if (t != null) t.Text = _count.ToString(); } } } Any ideas for a better way to quickly render text? My computer: XP SP3, 2.26 GHz Core 2 Duo, 4 GB RAM, Intel 4500 HD integrated graphics. And that is an order of magnitude beefier than the hardware I'd need to develop for in the real product.

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  • Correct way of using/testing event service in Eclipse E4 RCP

    - by Thorsten Beck
    Allow me to pose two coupled questions that might boil down to one about good application design ;-) What is the best practice for using event based communication in an e4 RCP application? How can I write simple unit tests (using JUnit) for classes that send/receive events using dependency injection and IEventBroker ? Let’s be more concrete: say I am developing an Eclipse e4 RCP application consisting of several plugins that need to communicate. For communication I want to use the event service provided by org.eclipse.e4.core.services.events.IEventBroker so my plugins stay loosely coupled. I use dependency injection to inject the event broker to a class that dispatches events: @Inject static IEventBroker broker; private void sendEvent() { broker.post(MyEventConstants.SOME_EVENT, payload) } On the receiver side, I have a method like: @Inject @Optional private void receiveEvent(@UIEventTopic(MyEventConstants.SOME_EVENT) Object payload) Now the questions: In order for IEventBroker to be successfully injected, my class needs access to the current IEclipseContext. Most of my classes using the event service are not referenced by the e4 application model, so I have to manually inject the context on instantiation using e.g. ContextInjectionFactory.inject(myEventSendingObject, context); This approach works but I find myself passing around a lot of context to wherever I use the event service. Is this really the correct approach to event based communication across an E4 application? how can I easily write JUnit tests for a class that uses the event service (either as a sender or receiver)? Obviously, none of the above annotations work in isolation since there is no context available. I understand everyone’s convinced that dependency injection simplifies testability. But does this also apply to injecting services like the IEventBroker? This article describes creation of your own IEclipseContext to include the process of DI in tests. Not sure if this could resolve my 2nd issue but I also hesitate running all my tests as JUnit Plug-in tests as it appears impractible to fire up the PDE for each unit test. Maybe I just misunderstand the approach. This article speaks about “simply mocking IEventBroker”. Yes, that would be great! Unfortunately, I couldn’t find any information on how this can be achieved. All this makes me wonder whether I am still on a "good path" or if this is already a case of bad design? And if so, how would you go about redesigning? Move all event related actions to dedicated event sender/receiver classes or a dedicated plugin?

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  • Possible uncommitted transactions causing "System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired" erro

    - by Michael
    My application requires a user to log in and allows them to edit a list of things. However, it seems that if the same user always logs in and out and edits the list, this user will run into a "System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired." error. I've read comments about increasing the timeout period but I've also read a comment about it possibly caused by uncommitted transactions. And I do have one going in the application. I'll provide the code I'm working with and there is an IF statement in there that I was a little iffy about but it seemed like a reasonable thing to do. I'll just go over what's going on here, there is a list of objects to update or add into the database. New objects created in the application are given an ID of 0 while existing objects have their own ID's generated from the DB. If the user chooses to delete some objects, their IDs are stored in a separate list of Integers. Once the user is ready to save their changes, the two lists are passed into this method. By use of the IF statement, objects with ID of 0 are added (using the Add stored procedure) and those objects with non-zero IDs are updated (using the Update stored procedure). After all this, a FOR loop goes through all the integers in the "removal" list and uses the Delete stored procedure to remove them. A transaction is used for all this. Public Shared Sub UpdateSomethings(ByVal SomethingList As List(Of Something), ByVal RemovalList As List(Of Integer)) Using DBConnection As New SqlConnection(conn) DBConnection.Open() Dim MyTransaction As SqlTransaction MyTransaction = DBConnection.BeginTransaction() Try For Each SomethingItem As Something In SomethingList Using MyCommand As New SqlCommand() MyCommand.Connection = DBConnection If SomethingItem.ID > 0 Then MyCommand.CommandText = "UpdateSomething" Else MyCommand.CommandText = "AddSomething" End If MyCommand.Transaction = MyTransaction MyCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure With MyCommand.Parameters If MyCommand.CommandText = "UpdateSomething" Then .Add("@id", SqlDbType.Int).Value = SomethingItem.ID End If .Add("@stuff", SqlDbType.Varchar).Value = SomethingItem.Stuff End With MyCommand.ExecuteNonQuery() End Using Next For Each ID As Integer In RemovalList Using MyCommand As New SqlCommand("DeleteSomething", DBConnection) MyCommand.Transaction = MyTransaction MyCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure With MyCommand.Parameters .Add("@id", SqlDbType.Int).Value = ID End With MyCommand.ExecuteNonQuery() End Using Next MyTransaction.Commit() Catch ex As Exception MyTransaction.Rollback() 'Exception handling goes here End Try End Using End Sub There are three stored procedures used here as well as some looping so I can see how something can be holding everything up if the list is large enough. Other users can log in to the system at the same time just fine though. I'm using Visual Studio 2008 to debug and am using SQL Server 2000 for the DB.

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  • What is the relationship between WebProxy & IWebProxy with respect to WebClient?

    - by Streamline
    I am creating an app (.NET 2.0) that uses WebClient to connect (downloaddata, etc) to/from a http web service. I am adding a form now to handle allowing proxy information to either be stored or set to use the defaults. I am a little confused about some things. First, some of the methods & properties available in either WebProxy or IWebProxy are not in both. What is the difference here with respect to setting up how WebClient will be have when it is called? Secondly, do I have to tell WebClient to use the proxy information if I set it using either WebProxy or IWebProxy class elsewhere? Or is it automatically inherited? Thirdly, when giving the option for the user to use the default proxy (whatever is set in IE) and using the default credentials (I assume also whatever is set in IE) are these two mutually exclusive? Or you only use default credentials when you have also used default proxy? This gets me to the whole difference between WebProxy and IWebProxy. WebRequest.DefaultProxy is a IWebPRoxy class but UseDefaultCredentials is not a method on the IWebProxy class, rather it is only on WebProxy and in turn, How to set the proxy to the WebRequest.DefautlProxy if they are two different classes? Here is my current method to read the stored form settings by the user - but I am not sure if this is correct, not enough, overkill, or just wrong because of the mix of WebProxy and IWebProxy: private WebProxy _proxyInfo = new WebProxy(); private WebProxy SetProxyInfo() { if (UseProxy) { if (UseIEProxy) { // is doing this enough to set this as default for WebClient? IWebProxy iProxy = WebRequest.DefaultWebProxy; if (UseIEProxyCredentials) { _proxyInfo.UseDefaultCredentials = true; } else { // is doing this enough to set this as default credentials for WebClient? WebRequest.DefaultWebProxy.Credentials = new NetworkCredential(ProxyUsername, ProxyPassword); } } else { // is doing this enough to set this as default for WebClient? WebRequest.DefaultWebProxy = new WebProxy(ProxyAddress, ParseLib.StringToInt(ProxyPort)); if (UseIEProxyCredentials) { _proxyInfo.UseDefaultCredentials = true; } else { WebRequest.DefaultWebProxy.Credentials = new NetworkCredential(ProxyUsername, ProxyPassword); } } } // Do I need to WebClient to absorb this returned proxy info if I didn't set or use defaults? return _proxyInfo; } Is there any reason to not just scrap storing app specific proxy information and only allow the app the ability to use the default proxy information & credentials for the logged in user? Will this ever not be enough if using HTTP? Part 2 Question: How can I test that the WebClient instance is using the proxy information or not?

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  • Jquery Ajax Call In For Loop Only Runs Once - Possible Issue with Timing & Exit Condition?

    - by Grumps
    Background I'm building a form that uses autocomplete against the EchoNest API. First the users picks an artist, using the Artist Suggest call. Next they select a song but the Song and/Or Artist song search doesn't provide a "wild card" search. It only returns exact matches. So based on the forums they suggest building an array of the songs and using auto complete on the array. I can only get a maximum of 100 responses at a time. I do know based on the initial response the number of songs. My Plan: Wrap the ajax call in a for loop ('runonceloop'). Amend the loop exit condition after the first response with the total number of songs. Challenge I'm having: The 'runonceloop' only completes a singe loop because or at least that's what I believe: The exit condition is satisfied before the first response [1] is received. I've tried to adjust the 'exit condition' and 'counter' such that they are set and and increased at the end of the success block. This seems to lock up my browser. Can someone provide some guidance on this situation?[2] I'd really appreciate it. I also don't think turning async off is a good idea because it locks the browser. Response[1]: { "response": { "status": { "code": "0", "message": "Success", "version": "4.2" }, "start": 0, "total": 121, //Used for "songs": [ { "id": "SOXZYYG127F3E1B7A2", "title": "Karma police" }, { "id": "SOXZABD127F3E1B7A2", "title" : "Creep" } ] } } } Code[2] var songsList = []; function getSongs() { var numsongs = 2; //at least 2 runs. var startindex = 0; runonceloop: //<~~~~Referenced in question for (var j = 0;j >= numsongs;) { console.log('numsongs' + numsongs); $.ajax({ url: "http://developer.echonest.com/api/v4/artist/songs", dataType: "jsonp", data: { results: 100, api_key: "XXXXXXXXXXX", format: "jsonp", name: $("#artist").val(), start: startindex }, success: function (data) { var songs = data.response.songs; numsongs = data.response.total; //modify exit condition for (var i = 0; i < songs.length; i++) { songsList.push(songs[i].title); } j +=100;// increase by 100 to match number of responses. } }); }};

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  • Git repo planning questions

    - by masonk
    At work, development uses perforce to handle code sharing. I won't say "revision control", because we aren't allowed to check in changes until they are ready for regression testing. In order to get my personal change sets under revision control, I've been given the go-ahead to build my own git and initialize the client view of the perforce depot as a git repo. There are some difficulties in doing this, however. The client view lives in a subfolder of ~, (~/p4), and I want to put ~ under revision control as well, with its own separate history. I can't figure out how to keep the history for ~ separate from ~/p4 without using a submodule. The problem with a submodule is that it looks like I have to go make a repository that will become the submodule and then git submodule add <repo> <path>. But there is nowhere to make the submodule's repository except in ~. There seems to be no safe place to create the initial client view of the depot with git p4 clone. (I'm working off of the assumption that initing or cloning a repo into a subdirectory of a git repo is not supported. At least, I can find nothing authoritative on nested git repos.) edit: Is merely ignoring ~/p4 in the repo rooted at ~ enough to allow me to init a nested repo in ~/p4? My __git_ps1 function still thinks I'm in a git repository when I visit an ignored subdirectory of a git repo, so I'm inclined to think not. I need the "remote" repository created by git p4 sync to be a branch in ~/p4. We are required to keep all of our code in ~/p4 so that it doesn't get backed up. Can I pull from a "remote" branch that is really a local branch? This one is just for convenience, but I thought I could learn something by asking it. For 99% of the project, I just want to start the with the p4 head revision as the inital commit object. For the other 1%, I would like to suck down the entire p4 history so that I can browse it in git. IOW, after I'm done initalizing it, the initial commit of remotes/p4/master branch will contain: revision 1 of //depot/prod/Foo/Bar/* revision X of other files in //depot/prod/*, where X is the head revision and the remotes/p4/master branch contains Y commits, where Y is the number of changelists that had a file in //depot/prod/Foo/Bar/*, with each commit in the history corresponding to one of those p4 changelists, and HEAD looking like p4's head.

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  • JavaScript Image zoom with CSS3 Transforms, How to calculate Origin? (with example)

    - by Sunday Ironfoot
    I'm trying to implement an image zoom effect, a bit like how the zoom works with Google Maps, but with a grid of fix position images. I've uploaded an example of what I have so far here: http://www.dominicpettifer.co.uk/Files/MosaicZoom.html (uses CSS3 transforms so only works with Firefox, Opera, Chrome or Safari) Use your mouse wheel to zoom in/out. The HTML source is basically an outer div with an inner-div, and that inner-div contains 16 images arranged using absolute position. It's going to be a Photo Mosaic basically. I've got the zoom bit working using CSS3 transforms: $(this).find('div').css('-moz-transform', 'scale(' + scale + ')'); ...however, I'm relying on the mouse X/Y position on the outer div to zoom in on where the mouse cursor is, similar to how Google Maps functions. The problem is that if you zoom right in on an image, move the cursor to the bottom/left corner and zoom again, instead of zooming to the bottom/left corner of the image, it zooms to the bottom/left of the entire mosaic. This has the effect of appearing to jump about the mosaic as you zoom in closer while moving the mouse around, even slightly. That's basically the problem, I want the zoom to work exactly like Google Maps where it zooms exactly to where your mouse cursor position is, but I can't get my head around the Maths to calculate the transform-origin: X/Y values correctly. Please help, been stuck on this for 3 days now. Here is the full code listing for the mouse wheel event: var scale = 1; $("#mosaicContainer").mousewheel(function(e, delta) { if (delta > 0) { scale += 1; } else { scale -= 1; } scale = scale < 1 ? 1 : (scale > 40 ? 40 : scale); var x = e.pageX - $(this).offset().left; var y = e.pageY - $(this).offset().top; $(this).find('div').css('-moz-transform', 'scale(' + scale + ')') .css('-moz-transform-origin', x + 'px ' + y + 'px'); return false; });

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  • How to break a Hibernate session?

    - by Péter Török
    In the Hibernate reference, it is stated several times that All exceptions thrown by Hibernate are fatal. This means you have to roll back the database transaction and close the current Session. You aren’t allowed to continue working with a Session that threw an exception. One of our legacy apps uses a single session to update/insert many records from files into a DB table. Each recourd update/insert is done in a separate transaction, which is then duly committed (or rolled back in case an error occurred). Then for the next record a new transaction is opened etc. But the same session is used throughout the whole process, even if a HibernateException was caught in the middle. We are using Oracle 9i btw with Hibernate 3.24.sp1 on JBoss 4.2. Reading the above in the book, I realized that this design may fail. So I refactored the app to use a separate session for each record update. In a unit test with a mock session factory, I could prove that it is now requesting a new session for each record update. So far, so good. However, we found no way to reproduce the session failure while testing the whole app (would this be a stress test btw, or ...?). We thought of shutting down the listener of the DB but we realized that the app is keeping a bunch of connections open to the DB, and the listener would not affect those connections. (This is a web app, activated once every night by a scheduler, but it can also be activated via the browser.) Then we tried to kill some of those connections in the DB while the app was processing updates - this resulted in some failed updates, but then the app happily continued. Apparently Hibernate is clever enough to reopen broken connections under the hood without breaking the whole session. So this might not be a critical issue, as our app seems to be robust enough even in its original form. However, the issue keeps bugging me. I would like to know: Under what circumstances does the Hibernate session really become unusable after a HibernateException was thrown? How to reproduce this in a test? (What's the proper term for such a test?)

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  • Button control subclass: click event does not fire when using UpdatePanel

    - by nw
    Using suggestions from this thread, I created a ModernButton control that uses the HTML button tag instead of input. This control works great except when embedded within an UpdatePanel control. In this case, it does trigger the partial postback, but its click event does not fire. The control is defined thus: [ParseChildren(false)] [PersistChildren(true)] public class ModernButton : Button { private string _iconURL = ""; protected override string TagName { get { return "button"; } } protected override HtmlTextWriterTag TagKey { get { return HtmlTextWriterTag.Button; } } public new string Text { get { return ViewState["NewText"] as string; } set { ViewState["NewText"] = HttpUtility.HtmlDecode(value); } } public string IconURL { get { return this._iconURL; } set { this._iconURL = value.Trim(); } } protected override void OnPreRender(System.EventArgs e) { base.OnPreRender(e); LiteralControl textCtrl = new LiteralControl(this.Text); if (this._iconURL != "") { LiteralControl openDiv = new LiteralControl( string.Format( "<div style=\"background-image:url({0}); background-position:left center; background-repeat:no-repeat; line-height:16px; padding:3px 0 3px 22px;\">", ResolveClientUrl(this._iconURL) ) ); LiteralControl closeDiv = new LiteralControl("</div>"); Controls.AddAt(0, openDiv); Controls.Add(textCtrl); Controls.Add(closeDiv); } else { Controls.Add(textCtrl); } base.Text = UniqueID; } protected override void RenderContents(HtmlTextWriter writer) { RenderChildren(writer); } } I use it so: <asp:UpdatePanel runat="server" ID="uxSearchPanel" ChildrenAsTriggers="true" UpdateMode="Conditional"> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="uxSearchButton" /> </Triggers> <ContentTemplate> ... <ctrl:ModernButton ID="uxSearchButton" runat="server" Text="Search" IconURL="Icons/magnifier.png" OnClick="uxSearchButton_Click"></ctrl:ModernButton> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> Which renders: <div id="uxBody_uxSearchPanel"> ... <button type="submit" name="ctl00$uxBody$uxSearchButton" value="ctl00$uxBody$uxSearchButton" id="uxBody_uxSearchButton"> <div style="background-image:url(Icons/magnifier.png); background-position:left center; background-repeat:no-repeat; line-height:16px; padding:3px 0 3px 22px;">Search</div> </button> </div> The ModernButton generates a postback in every case (whether partial or full), but the server-side click event (uxSearchButton_Click) does not fire in the partial postback scenario.

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