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• What is the best practice to segment c#.net projects based on a single base project

  - by Anthony

  Honestly, I can't word my question any better without describing it. I have a base project (with all its glory, dlls, resources etc) which is a CMS. I need to use this project as a base for othe custom bake projects. This base project is to be maintained and updated among all custom bake projects. I use subversion (Collabnet and Tortise SVN) I have two questions: 1 - Can I use subversion to share the base project among other projects What I mean here is can I "Checkout" the base project into another "Checked Out" project and have both update and commit seperatley. So, to paint a picture, let's say I am working on a custom project and I modify the core/base prject in some way (which I know will suit the others) can I then commit those changes and upon doing so when I update the base project in the other "Checked out" resources will it pull the changes? In short, I would like not to have to manually deploy updated core files whenever I make changes into each seperate project. 2 - If I create a custom file (let's say an webcontrol or aspx page etc) can I have it compile seperatley from the base project Another tricky one to explain. When I publish my web application it creates DLLs based on the namespaces of projects attached to it. So I may have a number of DLLs including the "Website's" namespace DLL, which could simply be website. I want to be able to make a seperate, custom, control which does not compile into those DLLs as the custom files should not rely on those DLLS to run. Is it as simple to set a seperate namespace for those files like CustomFiles.ProjectName for example? Think of the whole idea as adding modules to the .NET project, I don't want the module's code in any of the core DLLs but I do need for module to be able to access the core dlls. (There is no need for the core project to access the module code as it should be one way only in theory, though I reckon it woould not be possible anyway without using JSON/SOAP or something like that, maybe I am wrong.) I want to create a pluggable environment much like that of Joomla/Wordpress as since PHP generally doesn't have to be compiled first I see this is the reason why all this is possible/easy. The idea is to allow pluggable themes, modules etc etc. (I haven't tried simply adding .NET themes after compile/publish but I am assuming this is possible anyway? OR does the compiler need to reference items in the files?)

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• mysql: can't set max_allowed_package to anything grater than 16MB

  - by sas

  I'm not sure if this is the right place to post these kind of questions, if it's not so, please (politely) let me know... :-) I need to save files greater than 16MB on a mysql database from a php site... I've already changed the c:\xampp\mysql\bin\my.cnf and set max_allowed_packet to 16 MB, and everything worked fine then I set it to 32 MB but there´s no way I can handle a file bigger than 16 MB I get the following error: 'MySQL server has gone away' (the same error I had when max_allowed_packet was set to 1MB) there must be some other setting that doesn´t allow me to handle files bigger than 16MB maybe the php client, I guess, but I don't know where to edit it this is the code I'm running when file.txt is smaller than 16.776.192 bytes long, it works fine, but if file.txt has 16.777.216 bytes i get the aforementioned error oh, and the field download.content is a longblob... $file = 'file.txt'; $file_handle = fopen( $file, 'r' ); $content = fread( $file_handle, filesize( $file ) ); fclose( $file_handle ); db_execute( 'truncate table download', true ); $sql = "insert into download( code, title, name, description, original_name, mime_type, size, content, user_insert_id, date_insert, user_update_id, date_update ) values ( 'new file', 'new file', 'sas.jpg', 'new file', '$file', 'mime', " . filesize( $file ) . ", '" . addslashes( $content ) . "', 0, " . db_char_to_sql( now_char(), 'datetime' ) . ", 0, " . db_char_to_sql( now_char(), 'datetime' ) . " )"; db_execute( $sql, true ); (the db_execute funcion just opens the connections and executes the sql stuff) running on windows XP sp2 server version: 5.0.67-community PHP Version 4.4.9 mysql client API version: 3.23.49 using: ApacheFriends XAMPP (Basispaket) version 1.6.8 that comes with + Apache 2.2.9 + MySQL 5.0.67 (Community Server) + PHP 5.2.6 + PHP 4.4.9 + PEAR + phpMyAdmin 2.11.9.2 ... this is part of the content of c:\xampp\mysql\bin\my.cnf # The MySQL server [mysqld] port= 3306 socket= "C:/xampp/mysql/mysql.sock" basedir="C:/xampp/mysql" tmpdir="C:/xampp/tmp" datadir="C:/xampp/mysql/data" skip-locking key_buffer = 16M # max_allowed_packet = 1M max_allowed_packet = 32M table_cache = 128 sort_buffer_size = 512K net_buffer_length = 8K read_buffer_size = 256K read_rnd_buffer_size = 512K myisam_sort_buffer_size = 8M

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• whats wrong with this php mysql_real_escape_string

  - by skyhigh

  Hi Atomic Number Latin English Abbreviation * check the variables for content */ /*** a list of filters ***/ $filters = array( 'searchtext' => array( 'filter' => FILTER_CALLBACK, 'options' => 'mysql_real_escape_string'), 'fieldname' => array( 'filter' => FILTER_CALLBACK, 'options' => 'mysql_real_escape_string') ); /*** escape all POST variables ***/ $input = filter_input_array(INPUT_POST, $filters); /*** check the values are not empty ***/ if(empty($input['fieldname']) || empty($input['searchtext'])) { echo 'Invalid search'; } else { /*** mysql hostname ***/ $hostname = 'localhost'; /*** mysql username ***/ $username = 'username'; /*** mysql password ***/ $password = 'password'; /*** mysql database name ***/ $dbname = 'periodic_table'; /*** connect to the database ***/ $link = @mysql_connect($hostname, $username, $password); /*** check if the link is a valid resource ***/ if(is_resource($link)) { /*** select the database we wish to use ***/ if(mysql_select_db($dbname, $link) === TRUE) { /*** sql to SELECT information***/ $sql = sprintf("SELECT * FROM elements WHERE %s = '%s'", $input['fieldname'], $input['searchtext']); /*** echo the sql query ***/ echo '<h3>'.$sql.'</h3>'; /*** run the query ***/ $result = mysql_query($sql); /*** check if the result is a valid resource ***/ if(is_resource($result)) { /*** check if we have more than zero rows ***/ if(mysql_num_rows($result) !== 0) { echo '<table>'; while($row=mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo '<tr> <td>'.$row['atomicnumber'].'</td> <td>'.$row['latin'].'</td> <td>'.$row['english'].'</td> <td>'.$row['abbr'].'</td> </tr>'; } echo '</table>'; } else { /*** if zero results are found.. ***/ echo 'Zero results found'; } } else { /*** if the resource is not valid ***/ 'No valid resource found'; } } /*** if we are unable to select the database show an error ****/ else { echo 'Unable to select database '.$dbname; } /*** close the connection ***/ mysql_close($link); } else { /*** if we fail to connect ***/ echo 'Unable to connect'; } } } else { echo 'Please Choose An Element'; } ? I got this code from phppro.org tutorials site and i tried to run it. It gives Warning: mysql_real_escape_string() [function.mysql-real-escape-string]: A link to the server could not be established. .... Warning: mysql_real_escape_string() [function.mysql-real-escape-string]: Access denied for user 'ODBC'@'localhost' (using password: NO).... I went to php.net and look it up "Note: A MySQL connection is required before using mysql_real_escape_string() otherwise an error of level E_WARNING is generated, and FALSE is returned. If link_identifier isn't defined, the last MySQL connection is used." My questions are: 1-why they put single quotation around mysql_real_escape_string ? 2-They should establish a connection first, then use the $filter array statement with mysql_real_escape_string ?

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• Running daemon through rsh

  - by Max

  I want to run program as daemon in remote machine in Unix. I have rsh connection and I want the program to be running after disconnection. Suppose I have two programs: util.cpp and forker.cpp. util.cpp is some utility, for our purpose let it be just infinite root. util.cpp int main() { while (true) {}; return 0; } forker.cpp takes some program and run it in separe process through fork() and execve(): forker.cpp #include <stdio.h> #include <errno.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <unistd.h> int main(int argc, char** argv) { if (argc != 2) { printf("./a.out <program_to_fork>\n"); exit(1); } pid_t pid; if ((pid = fork()) < 0) { perror("fork error."); exit(1); } else if (!pid) { // Child. if (execve(argv[1], &(argv[1]), NULL) == -1) { perror("execve error."); exit(1); } } else { // Parent: do nothing. } return 0; } If I run: ./forker util forker is finished very quickly, and bash 'is not paused', and util is running as daemon. But if I run: scp forker remote_server://some_path/ scp program remote_server://some_path/ rsh remote_server 'cd /some_path; ./forker program' then it is all the same (i.e. at the remote_sever forker is finishing quickly, util is running) but my bash in local machine is paused. It is waiting for util stopping (I checked it. If util.cpp is returning than it is ok.), but I don't understand why?! There are two questions: 1) Why is it paused when I run it through rsh? I am sure that I chose some stupid way to run daemon. So 2) How to run some program as daemon in C/C++ in unix-like platforms. Tnx!

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• How do I Print a dynamically created Flex component/chart that is not being displayed on the screen?

  - by Adam Jones

  I have a several chart components that I have created in Flex. Basically I have set up a special UI that allows the user to select which of these charts they want to print. When they press the print button each of the selected charts is created dynamically then added to a container. Then I send this container off to FlexPrintJob. i.e. private function prePrint():void { var printSelection:Box = new Box(); printSelection.percentHeight = 100; printSelection.percentWidth = 100; printSelection.visible = true; if (this.chkMyChart1.selected) { var rptMyChart1:Chart1Panel = new Chart1Panel(); rptMyChart1.percentHeight = 100; rptMyChart1.percentWidth = 100; rptMyChart1.visible = true; printSelection.addChild(rptMyChart1); } print(printSelection); } private function print(container:Box):void { var job:FlexPrintJob; job = new FlexPrintJob(); if (job.start()) { job.addObject(container, FlexPrintJobScaleType.MATCH_WIDTH); job.send(); } } This code works fine if the chart is actually displayed somewhere on the page but adding it dynamically as shown above does not. The print dialog will appear but nothing happens when I press OK. So I really have two questions: Is it possible to print flex components/charts when they are not visible on the screen? If so, how do I do it / what am I doing wrong? UPDATE: Well, at least one thing wrong is my use of the percentages in the width and height. Using percentages doesn't really make sense when the Box is not contained in another object. Changing the height and width to fixed values actually allows the printing to progress and solves my initial problem. printSelection.height = 100; printSelection.width = 100; But a new problem arises in that instead of seeing my chart, I see a black box instead. I have previously resolved this issue by setting the background colour of the chart to #FFFFFF but this doesn't seem to be working this time. UPDATE 2: I have seen some examples on the adobe site that add the container to the application but don't include it in the layout. This looks like the way to go. i.e. printSelection.includeInLayout = false; addChild(printSelection);

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• Problem on creating font using a custom ant task, which extends LWUIT's FontTask.

  - by Smithy

  Hi. I am new to LWUIT and j2me, and I am building a j2me application for showing Japanese text vertically. The phonetic symbol part of the text should be shown in relatively small font size (about half the size of the text), small Kanas need to be shown as normal ones, and some 'vertical only' characters need to be put into the Private Use Area, etc. I tried to build this font into a bitmap font using the FontTask ant task LWUIT provided, but found that it does support the customizations mentioned above. So I decided to write my own task and add those. Below is what I have achieved: 1 An ant task extending the LWUITTask task to support a new nested element <verticalfont>. public class VerticalFontBuildTask extends LWUITTask { public void addVerticalfont(VerticalFontTask anVerticalFont) { super.addFont(anVerticalFont); } } 2 The VerticalFontTask task, which extends the original FontTask. Instead of inserting a EditorFont object, it inserts a VerticalEditorFont object(derived from EditorFont) into the resource. public class VerticalFontTask extends FontTask { // some constants are omitted public VerticalFontTask() { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); sb.append(UPPER_ALPHABET); sb.append(UPPER_ALPHABET.toLowerCase()); sb.append(HALFWIDTH); sb.append(HIRAGANA); sb.append(HIRAGANA_SMALL); sb.append(KATAKANA); sb.append(KATAKANA_SMALL); sb.append(WIDE); this.setCharset(sb.toString()); } @Override public void addToResources(EditableResources e) { log("Putting rigged font into resource..."); super.addToResources(e); //antialias settings Object aa = this.isAntiAliasing() ? RenderingHints.VALUE_TEXT_ANTIALIAS_ON :RenderingHints.VALUE_TEXT_ANTIALIAS_OFF; VerticalEditorFont ft = new VerticalEditorFont( Font.createSystemFont( this.systemFace, this.systemStyle, this.systemSize), null, getLogicalName(), isCreateBitmap(), aa, getCharset()); e.setFont(getName(), ft); } VerticalEditorFont is just a bunch of methods logging to output and call the super. I am still trying to figure out how to extend it. But things are not going well: none of the methods on the VerticalEditorFont object get called when executing this task. My questions are: 1 where did I do wrong? 2 I want to embed a truetype font to support larger screens. I only need a small part of the font inside my application and I don't want it to carry a font resource weighing 1~2MB. Is there a way to extract only the characters needed and pack them into LWUIT?

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• Javascript self contained sandbox events and client side stack

  - by amnon

  I'm in the process of moving a JSF heavy web application to a REST and mainly JS module application . I've watched "scalable javascript application architecture" by Nicholas Zakas on yui theater (excellent video) and implemented much of the talk with good success but i have some questions : I found the lecture a little confusing in regards to the relationship between modules and sandboxes , on one had to my understanding modules should not be effected by something happening outside of their sandbox and this is why they publish events via the sandbox (and not via the core as they do access the core for hiding base libary) but each module in the application gets a new sandbox ? , shouldn't the sandbox limit events to the modoules using it ? or should events be published cross page ? e.g. : if i have two editable tables but i want to contain each one in a different sandbox and it's events effect only the modules inside that sandbox something like messabe box per table which is a different module/widget how can i do that with sandbox per module , ofcourse i can prefix the events with the moduleid but that creates coupling that i want to avoid ... and i don't want to package modules toghter as one module per combination as i already have 6-7 modules ? while i can hide the base library for small things like id selector etc.. i would still like to use the base library for module dependencies and resource loading and use something like yui loader or dojo.require so in fact i'm hiding the base library but the modules themself are defined and loaded by the base library ... seems a little strange to me libraries don't return simple js objects but usualy wrap them e.g. : u can do something like $$('.classname').each(.. which cleans the code alot , it makes no sense to wrap the base and then in the module create a dependency for the base library by executing .each but not using those features makes a lot of code written which can be left out ... and implemnting that functionality is very bug prone does anyonen have any experience with building a front side stack of this order ? how easy is it to change a base library and/or have modules from different libraries , using yui datatable but doing form validation with dojo ... ? some what of a combination of 2+4 if u choose to do something like i said and load dojo form validation widgets for inputs via yui loader would that mean dojocore is a module and the form module is dependant on it ? Thanks .

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• gcc optimization? bug? and its practial implication to project

  - by kumar_m_kiran

  Hi All, My questions are divided into three parts Question 1 Consider the below code, #include <iostream> using namespace std; int main( int argc, char *argv[]) { const int v = 50; int i = 0X7FFFFFFF; cout<<(i + v)<<endl; if ( i + v < i ) { cout<<"Number is negative"<<endl; } else { cout<<"Number is positive"<<endl; } return 0; } No specific compiler optimisation options are used or the O's flag is used. It is basic compilation command g++ -o test main.cpp is used to form the executable. The seemingly very simple code, has odd behaviour in SUSE 64 bit OS, gcc version 4.1.2. The expected output is "Number is negative", instead only in SUSE 64 bit OS, the output would be "Number is positive". After some amount of analysis and doing a 'disass' of the code, I find that the compiler optimises in the below format - Since i is same on both sides of comparison, it cannot be changed in the same expression, remove 'i' from the equation. Now, the comparison leads to if ( v < 0 ), where v is a constant positive, So during compilation itself, the else part cout function address is added to the register. No cmp/jmp instructions can be found. I see that the behaviour is only in gcc 4.1.2 SUSE 10. When tried in AIX 5.1/5.3 and HP IA64, the result is as expected. Is the above optimisation valid? Or, is using the overflow mechanism for int not a valid use case? Question 2 Now when I change the conditional statement from if (i + v < i) to if ( (i + v) < i ) even then, the behaviour is same, this atleast I would personally disagree, since additional braces are provided, I expect the compiler to create a temporary built-in type variable and them compare, thus nullify the optimisation. Question 3 Suppose I have a huge code base, an I migrate my compiler version, such bug/optimisation can cause havoc in my system behaviour. Ofcourse from business perspective, it is very ineffective to test all lines of code again just because of compiler upgradation. I think for all practical purpose, these kinds of error are very difficult to catch (during upgradation) and invariably will be leaked to production site. Can anyone suggest any possible way to ensure to ensure that these kind of bug/optimization does not have any impact on my existing system/code base? PS : When the const for v is removed from the code, then optimization is not done by the compiler. I believe, it is perfectly fine to use overflow mechanism to find if the variable is from MAX - 50 value (in my case).

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• Ruby/Rails - Add records to an object with each loop iteration / Object vs Arrays

  - by ChrisWesAllen

  I'm trying to figure out how to add records to an existing object for each iteration of a loop. I'm having a hard time discovering the difference between an object and an array. I have this @events = Event.find(1) @loops = Choices.find(:all, :limit => 5) #so loop for 5 instances of choice model for loop in @loops @events = Event.find(:all,:conditions => ["event.id = ?", loop.event_id ]) end I'm trying to add a new events to the existing @events object based on the id of whatever the loop variable is. But the ( = ) operator just creates a new instance of the @events object. I tried ( += ) and ( << ) as operators but got the error "You have a nil object when you didn't expect it! You might have expected an instance of Array. The error occurred while evaluating nil" I tried created an array events = [] events << Event.find(1) @loops = Choices.find(:all, :limit => 5) #so loop for 5 instances of choice model for loop in @loops events << Event.find(:all,:conditions => ["event.id = ?", loop.event_id ]) end But I dont know how to call that arrays attributes within the view With objects I was able do create a loop within the view and call all the attributes of that object as well... <table> <% for event in @events %> <tr> <td><%= link_to event.title, event %></td> <td><%= event.start_date %></td> <td><%= event.price %></td> </tr> <% end %> </table> How could i do this with an array set? So the questions are 1) Whats the difference between arrays and objects? 2) Is there a way to add into the existing object for each iteration? 3) If I use an array, is there a way to call the attributes for each array record within the view?

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• Difference between Cloud and Virtualization

  - by Akash Kava

  Ops: This does not belong to ServerFault because it focuses on Programing Architecture. I have following questions regarding differences between Cloud and Virtualization.. How Cloud is different then Virtualization? Currently I tried to find out pricing of Rackspace, Amazone and all similar cloud providers, I found that our current 6 dedicated servers came cheaper then their pricing. So how one can claim cloud is cheaper? Is it cheaper only in comparison of normal hosting? We re organized our infrastructure in virtual environment to reduce or configuration overhead at time of failure, we did not have to rewrite any peice of code that is already written for earlier setup. So moving to virtualization does not require any re programming. But cloud is absoltely different and it will require entire reprogramming right? Is it really worth to recode when our current IT costs are 3-4 times lower then cloud hosting including raid backups and all sort of clustering for high availability? New programming architecture means new overheads of training staff, new methods of testing and new deployment schemes, does it justify over "on demand resource usage" words of cloud? We are having current development architecture with simple Server side ASP.NET WebServices with no local context and on client side Flex/Silverlight which offers pretty good REST architecture and its highly scalable. How does cloud differs from REST model of deployment? On storage, SQL Server or MySQL offers pretty good replication and high availibility then what is advantage in cloud? Data guarantee, one of our vendor hosting some other customer's app on cloud (one of most used), lost Entire Hard Disk (the virtual) and entire module in first 6 months. Second provider said its your duty to take backup, fine I agree, but no provider gives SLA for data guarantee, they give 99% uptime. However in most business apps, uptime is less important then data integrity. In our 10 years of dedicated hosting experience we had only one hard disk crash. This makes me little skeptical to go for cloud and loosing control over data. And I feel its just a big marketing buzz to sell virtulization in different form. Size of data, currently all providers charge very heavy for large data, if you are hosting only below 100GB cloud can be good alternative, but I think virtual servers and dedicated servers above 100GB to few TBs are still cheaper. Why would want to pay so high on cloud when there is no data guarentee as well as it doesnt say anything about redundancy. (I wish SO had something for spell check for Internet Explorer, sorry for wrong spellings in my post)

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• [N]Hibernate: view-like fetching properties of associated class

  - by chiccodoro

  (Felt quite helpless in formulating an appropriate title...) In my C# app I display a list of "A" objects, along with some properties of their associated "B" objects and properties of B's associated "C" objects: A.Name B.Name B.SomeValue C.Name Foo Bar 123 HelloWorld Bar Hello 432 World ... To clarify: A has an FK to B, B has an FK to C. (Such as, e.g. BankAccount - Person - Company). I have tried two approaches to load these properties from the database (using NHibernate): A fast approach and a clean approach. My eventual question is how to do a fast & clean approach. Fast approach: Define a view in the database which joins A, B, C and provides all these fields. In the A class, define properties "BName", "BSomeValue", "CName" Define a hibernate mapping between A and the View, whereas the needed B and C properties are mapped with update="false" insert="false" and do actually stem from B and C tables, but Hibernate is not aware of that since it uses the view. This way, the listing only loads one object per "A" record, which is quite fast. If the code tries to access the actual associated property, "A.B", I issue another HQL query to get B, set the property and update the faked BName and BSomeValue properties as well. Clean approach: There is no view. Class A is mapped to table A, B to B, C to C. When loading the list of A, I do a double left-join-fetch to get B and C as well: from A a left join fetch a.B left join fetch a.B.C B.Name, B.SomeValue and C.Name are accessed through the eagerly loaded associations. The disadvantage of this approach is that it gets slower and takes more memory, since it needs to created and map 3 objects per "A" record: An A, B, and C object each. Fast and clean approach: I feel somehow uncomfortable using a database view that hides a join and treat that in NHibernate as if it was a table. So I would like to do something like: Have no views in the database. Declare properties "BName", "BSomeValue", "CName" in class "A". Define the mapping for A such that NHibernate fetches A and these properties together using a join SQL query as a database view would do. The mapping should still allow for defining lazy many-to-one associations for getting A.B.C My questions: Is this possible? Is it [un]artful? Is there a better way?

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• Circular database relationships. Good, Bad, Exceptions?

  - by jim

  I have been putting off developing this part of my app for sometime purely because I want to do this in a circular way but get the feeling its a bad idea from what I remember my lecturers telling me back in school. I have a design for an order system, ignoring the everything that doesn't pertain to this example I'm left with: CreditCard Customer Order I want it so that, Customers can have credit cards (0-n) Customers have orders (1-n) Orders have one customer(1-1) Orders have one credit card(1-1) Credit cards can have one customer(1-1) (unique ids so we can ignore uniqueness of cc number, husband/wife may share cc instances ect) Basically the last part is where the issue shows up, sometimes credit cards are declined and they wish to use a different one, this needs to update which their 'current' card is but this can only change the current card used for that order, not the other orders the customer may have on disk. Effectively this creates a circular design between the three tables. Possible solutions: Either Create the circular design, give references: cc ref to order, customer ref to cc customer ref to order or customer ref to cc customer ref to order create new table that references all three table ids and put unique on the order so that only one cc may be current to that order at any time Essentially both model the same design but translate differently, I am liking the latter option best at this point in time because it seems less circular and more central. (If that even makes sense) My questions are, What if any are the pros and cons of each? What is the pitfalls of circular relationships/dependancies? Is this a valid exception to the rule? Is there any reason I should pick the former over the latter? Thanks and let me know if there is anything you need clarified/explained. --Update/Edit-- I have noticed an error in the requirements I stated. Basically dropped the ball when trying to simplify things for SO. There is another table there for Payments which adds another layer. The catch, Orders can have multiple payments, with the possibility of using different credit cards. (if you really want to know even other forms of payment). Stating this here because I think the underlying issue is still the same and this only really adds another layer of complexity.

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• How to refresh a fragment in a viewpager?

  - by aut_silvia

  I know there are already some questions to this problem. But I am really new in Android and ecspecially to Fragments and Viewpager. Pls have passion with me. I didn't found a answer which fits to my code. I dont know how to refresh a fragment or reload it when it's "active" again. TabsPagerAdapter.java: public class TabsPagerAdapter extends FragmentPagerAdapter{ public TabsPagerAdapter(FragmentManager fm){ super(fm); } @Override public Fragment getItem(int index) { switch (index) { case 0: return new KFZFragment(); case 1: return new LogFragment(); case 2: return new TrackFragment(); } return null; } @Override public int getCount() { // get item count - equal to number of tabs return 3; } } I have this 3 Fragments (KFZFragment,LogFragment,TrackFragment) and on the TrackFragment I calculate some data and this data should be display in a ListView in LogFragment. But when I change to LogFragment it's not the latest data. So it doesnt refresh. Now how should I modify my code to refresh the fragments when it's "active"? MainActivityFragment.java: public class MainActivityFragment extends FragmentActivity implements ActionBar.TabListener{ private ViewPager viewPager; private TabsPagerAdapter mAdapter; private ActionBar actionBar; List<Fragment> fragments; private String[] tabs = { "KFZ", "Fahrten Log", "Kosten Track" }; @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.activity_main_fragment); // Initilization viewPager = (ViewPager) findViewById(R.id.pager); actionBar = getActionBar(); mAdapter = new TabsPagerAdapter(getSupportFragmentManager()); fragments = new Vector<Fragment>(); fragments.add(Fragment.instantiate(this, KFZFragment.class.getName(),savedInstanceState)); fragments.add(Fragment.instantiate(this, LogFragment.class.getName(),savedInstanceState)); viewPager.setAdapter(mAdapter); actionBar.setHomeButtonEnabled(false); actionBar.setNavigationMode(ActionBar.NAVIGATION_MODE_TABS); // Adding Tabs for (String tab_name : tabs) { actionBar.addTab(actionBar.newTab().setText(tab_name) .setTabListener(this)); } viewPager.setOnPageChangeListener(new ViewPager.OnPageChangeListener() { @Override public void onPageSelected(int position) { // on changing the page // make respected tab selected actionBar.setSelectedNavigationItem(position); } @Override public void onPageScrolled(int arg0, float arg1, int arg2) { } @Override public void onPageScrollStateChanged(int arg0) { } }); } @Override public void onTabReselected(Tab tab, FragmentTransaction ft) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } @Override public void onTabSelected(Tab tab, FragmentTransaction ft) { viewPager.setCurrentItem(tab.getPosition()); } @Override public void onTabUnselected(Tab tab, FragmentTransaction ft) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } @Override public boolean onKeyDown(int keyCode, KeyEvent event) { if (keyCode == KeyEvent.KEYCODE_BACK) { } return super.onKeyDown(keyCode, event); } } Pls help me out.

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• thread management in nbody code of cuda-sdk

  - by xnov

  When I read the nbody code in Cuda-SDK, I went through some lines in the code and I found that it is a little bit different than their paper in GPUGems3 "Fast N-Body Simulation with CUDA". My questions are: First, why the blockIdx.x is still involved in loading memory from global to share memory as written in the following code? for (int tile = blockIdx.y; tile < numTiles + blockIdx.y; tile++) { sharedPos[threadIdx.x+blockDim.x*threadIdx.y] = multithreadBodies ? positions[WRAP(blockIdx.x + q * tile + threadIdx.y, gridDim.x) * p + threadIdx.x] : //this line positions[WRAP(blockIdx.x + tile, gridDim.x) * p + threadIdx.x]; //this line __syncthreads(); // This is the "tile_calculation" function from the GPUG3 article. acc = gravitation(bodyPos, acc); __syncthreads(); } isn't it supposed to be like this according to paper? I wonder why sharedPos[threadIdx.x+blockDim.x*threadIdx.y] = multithreadBodies ? positions[WRAP(q * tile + threadIdx.y, gridDim.x) * p + threadIdx.x] : positions[WRAP(tile, gridDim.x) * p + threadIdx.x]; Second, in the multiple threads per body why the threadIdx.x is still involved? Isn't it supposed to be a fix value or not involving at all because the sum only due to threadIdx.y if (multithreadBodies) { SX_SUM(threadIdx.x, threadIdx.y).x = acc.x; //this line SX_SUM(threadIdx.x, threadIdx.y).y = acc.y; //this line SX_SUM(threadIdx.x, threadIdx.y).z = acc.z; //this line __syncthreads(); // Save the result in global memory for the integration step if (threadIdx.y == 0) { for (int i = 1; i < blockDim.y; i++) { acc.x += SX_SUM(threadIdx.x,i).x; //this line acc.y += SX_SUM(threadIdx.x,i).y; //this line acc.z += SX_SUM(threadIdx.x,i).z; //this line } } } Can anyone explain this to me? Is it some kind of optimization for faster code?

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• .NET Extension Objects with XSLT -- how to iterate over a collection?

  - by Pandincus

  Help me, Stackoverflow! I have a simple .NET 3.5 console app that reads some data and sends emails. I'm representing the email format in an XSLT stylesheet so that we can easily change the wording of the email without needing to recompile the app. We're using Extension Objects to pass data to the XSLT when we apply the transformation: <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:msxsl="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:xslt" exclude-result-prefixes="msxsl" xmlns:EmailNotification="ext:EmailNotification"> -- this way, we can have statements like: <p> Dear <xsl:value-of select="EmailNotification:get_FullName()" />: </p> The above works fine. I pass the object via code like this (some irrelevant code omitted for brevity): // purely an example structure public struct EmailNotification { public string FullName { get; set; } } // Somewhere in some method ... var notification = new Notification("John Smith"); // ... XsltArgumentList xslArgs = new XsltArgumentList(); xslArgs.AddExtensionObject("ext:EmailNotification", notification); // ... // The part where it breaks! (This is where we do the transformation) xslt.Transform(fakeXMLDocument.CreateNavigator(), xslArgs, XmlWriter.Create(transformedXMLString)); So, all of the above code works. However, I wanted to get a little fancy (always my downfall) and pass a collection, so that I could do something like this: <p>The following accounts need to be verified:</p> <xsl:for-each select="EmailNotification:get_SomeCollection()"> <ul> <li> <xsl:value-of select="@SomeAttribute" /> </li> </ul> <xsl:for-each> When I pass the collection in the extension object and attempt to transform, I get the following error: "Extension function parameters or return values which have Clr type 'String[]' are not supported." or List, or IEnumerable, or whatever I try to pass in. So, my questions are: How can I pass in a collection to my XSLT? What do I put for the xsl:value-of select="" inside the xsl:for-each ? Is what I am trying to do impossible?

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• template pass by const reference

  - by 7vies

  Hi, I've looked over a few similar questions, but I'm still confused. I'm trying to figure out how to explicitly (not by compiler optimization etc) and C++03-compatible avoid copying of an object when passing it to a template function. Here is my test code: #include <iostream> using namespace std; struct C { C() { cout << "C()" << endl; } C(const C&) { cout << "C(C)" << endl; } ~C() { cout << "~C()" << endl; } }; template<class T> void f(T) { cout << "f<T>" << endl; } template<> void f(C c) { cout << "f<C>" << endl; } // (1) template<> void f(const C& c) { cout << "f<C&>" << endl; } // (2) int main() { C c; f(c); return 0; } (1) accepts the object of type C, and makes a copy. Here is the output: C() C(C) f<C> ~C() ~C() So I've tried to specialize with a const C& parameter (2) to avoid this, but this simply doesn't work (apparently the reason is explained in this question). Well, I could "pass by pointer", but that's kind of ugly. So is there some trick that would allow to do that somehow nicely? EDIT: Oh, probably I wasn't clear. I already have a templated function template<class T> void f(T) {...} But now I want to specialize this function to accept a const& to another object: template<> void f(const SpecificObject&) {...} But it only gets called if I define it as template<> void f(SpecificObject) {...}

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• Multiple layouts in rails [Newbie Q]

  - by BriteLite

  Hi. As a newb, I decided to build a "home inventory" application. I am now stuck on how to programmatically select a layout based on what type of item it is when viewing it in a browser. According to my planning, so far I should have created a few models to represent types of items I can find in my home: Furniture, Electronics and Books. class Book < ActiveRecord::Base end class Furniture < ActiveRecord::Base end class Electronic < ActiveRecord::Base end Now the Books model has things like isbn, pages, address, and category. Furniture model has things like color, price, address, and category. Electronics has things like name, voltage, address, and category. Here is where I got confused. I know the property address is going to be the same for all of them. I also know that, I will need to create multiple "layouts" for 3 different types of items to show the different properties of said items with appropriate graphics and stylesheets. But how will I go about deciding which category the item is so I can determine which layout to render. According to me, this is how I will do it: class DisplayController < ApplicationController def display @item = Params[:item] if @item.category = "electronics" render :layout => 'electronics' end end In my routes.rb map.display ':item', :controller => 'display', :action => 'display' I only seem to have one concern with this, I probably will add a lot of categories later on and think there should be a more DRY-esque way of dealing, rather than hardcoding them. I understand that I need to add into my layout html tags to display relevant information for that particular category. ----Questions---- Is this the right way to approach this type of problem. Will this approach be compatible when I decide to add a gem like *thinking_sphinx* to run search. What issues do you see with my approach and how can I make it better. I was reading something about "Polymorphic Assoc", does that apply in this case, since category exist for all items? Also, I was trying to get a routes to render a URL like "http://localhost/living-room-tv"

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• How much time should it take to find the sum of all prime numbers less than 2 million?

  - by Shahensha

  I was trying to solve this Project Euler Question. I implemented the sieve of euler as a helper class in java. It works pretty well for the small numbers. But when I input 2 million as the limit it doesn't return the answer. I use Netbeans IDE. I waited for a lot many hours once, but it still didn't print the answer. When I stopped running the code, it gave the following result Java Result: 2147483647 BUILD SUCCESSFUL (total time: 2,097 minutes 43 seconds) This answer is incorrect. Even after waiting for so much time, this isn't correct. While the same code returns correct answers for smaller limits. Sieve of euler has a very simple algo given at the botton of this page. My implementation is this: package support; import java.util.ArrayList; import java.util.List; /** * * @author admin */ public class SieveOfEuler { int upperLimit; List<Integer> primeNumbers; public SieveOfEuler(int upperLimit){ this.upperLimit = upperLimit; primeNumbers = new ArrayList<Integer>(); for(int i = 2 ; i <= upperLimit ; i++) primeNumbers.add(i); generatePrimes(); } private void generatePrimes(){ int currentPrimeIndex = 0; int currentPrime = 2; while(currentPrime <= Math.sqrt(upperLimit)){ ArrayList<Integer> toBeRemoved = new ArrayList<Integer>(); for(int i = currentPrimeIndex ; i < primeNumbers.size() ; i++){ int multiplier = primeNumbers.get(i); toBeRemoved.add(currentPrime * multiplier); } for(Integer i : toBeRemoved){ primeNumbers.remove(i); } currentPrimeIndex++; currentPrime = primeNumbers.get(currentPrimeIndex); } } public List getPrimes(){ return primeNumbers; } public void displayPrimes(){ for(double i : primeNumbers) System.out.println(i); } } I am perplexed! My questions is 1) Why is it taking so much time? Is there something wrong in what I am doing? Please suggest ways for improving my coding style, if you find something wrong.

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• HTTP Handlers in Win2008/IIS7

  - by Keith Barrows

  We are migrating our web sites from Win2003/IIS6 to Win2008/IIS7. Our .NET code is in a WAP form with compiled binaries. I do dev work on a Win7/IIS7 box so had to learn early how to set up HTTP Handlers in this newer environment. What I have that has worked fine on my box is: <system.webServer> <handlers> <remove name="WebServiceHandlerFactory-Integrated" /> <remove name="ScriptHandlerFactory" /> <remove name="ScriptHandlerFactoryAppServices" /> <remove name="ScriptResource" /> <add name="RivWorks" path="*.riv" verb="*" modules="IsapiModule" scriptProcessor="C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\aspnet_isapi.dll" resourceType="Unspecified" requireAccess="Script" preCondition="classicMode,runtimeVersionv2.0,bitness32" /> <add name="RivWorks2" path="*.riv2" verb="*" modules="IsapiModule" scriptProcessor="C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\aspnet_isapi.dll" resourceType="Unspecified" requireAccess="Script" preCondition="classicMode,runtimeVersionv2.0,bitness32" /> <add name="ScriptHandlerFactory" verb="*" path="*.asmx" preCondition="integratedMode" type="System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptHandlerFactory, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add name="ScriptHandlerFactoryAppServices" verb="*" path="*_AppService.axd" preCondition="integratedMode" type="System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptHandlerFactory, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add name="ScriptResource" verb="GET,HEAD" path="ScriptResource.axd" preCondition="integratedMode" type="System.Web.Handlers.ScriptResourceHandler, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> </handlers> All I am getting on the new web site when I try to call into the *.riv handler is: 404 - File or directory not found. The resource you are looking for might have been removed, had its name changed, or is temporarily unavailable. OK. You see interesting things when writing out these questions. Our server is setup in integrated mode and runs on a x64 system. So, I changed the precondition clause to: preCondition="integratedMode,runtimeVersionv2.0,bitness64" Now I get this instead: 500 - Internal server error. There is a problem with the resource you are looking for, and it cannot be displayed. Any ideas of what I should be doing, where I should be looking? TIA

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• waiting for 2 different events in a single thread

  - by João Portela

  component A (in C++) - is blocked waiting for alarm signals (not relevant) and IO signals (1 udp socket). has one handler for each of these. component B (java) - has to receive the same information the component A udp socket receives. periodicaly gives instructions that should be sent through component A udp socket. How to join both components? it is strongly desirable that: the changes to attach component B to component A are minimal (its not my code and it is not very pleasent to mess with). the time taken by the new operations (usually communicating with component B) interfere very little with the usual processing time of component A - this means that if the operations are going to take a "some" time I would rather use a thread or something to do them. note: since component A receives udp packets more frequently that it has component B instructions to forward, if necessary, it can only forward the instructions (when available) from the IO handler. my initial ideia was to develop a component C (in C++) that would sit inside the component A code (is this called an adapter?) that when instanciated starts the java process and makes the necessary connections (that not so little overhead in the initialization is not a problem). It would have 2 stacks, one for the data to give component B (lets call it Bstack) and for the data to give component A (lets call it Astack). It would sit on its thread (lets call it new-thread) waiting for data to be available in Bstack to send it over udp, and listen on the udp socket to put data on the Astack. This means that the changes to component A are only: when it receives a new UDP packet put it on the Bstack, and if there is something on the Astack sent it over its UDP socket (I decided for this because this socket would only be used in the main thread). One of the problems is that I don't know how to wait for both of these events at the same time using only one thread. so my questions are: Do I really need to use the main thread to send the data over component A socket or can I do it from the new-thread? (I think the answer is no, but I'm not sure about race conditions on sockets) how to I wait for both events? boost::condition_variable or something similar seems the solution in the case of the stack and boost::asio::io_service io_service.run() seems like the thing to use for the socket. Is there any other alternative solution for this problem that I'm not aware of? Thanks for reading this long text but I really wanted you to understand the problem.

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• Using ImageMagick to create an image from a PDF...efficiently

  - by bigsweater

  I'm using ImageMagick to create a tiny JPG thumbnail image of an already-uploaded PDF. The code works fine. It's a WordPress widget, though this isn't necessarily WordPress specific. I'm unfamiliar with ImageMagick, so I was hoping somebody could tell me if this looks terrible or isn't following some best practices of some sort, or if I'm risking crashing the server. My questions, specifically, are: Is that image cached, or does the server have to re-generate the image every time somebody views the page? If it isn't cached, what's the best way to make sure the server doesn't have to regenerate the thumbnail? I tried to create a separate folder (/thumbs) for ImageMagick to put all the images in, instead of cluttering up the WP upload folders with images of PDFs. It kept throwing a permission error, despite 777 permissions on the folder in my testing environment. Why? Do the source/destination directories have to be the same? Am I doing anything incorrectly/inefficiently here that needs to be improved? The whole widget is on Pastebin: http://pastebin.com/WnSTEDm7 Relevant code: <?php if ( $url ) { $pdf = $url; $info = pathinfo($pdf); $filename = basename($pdf,'.'.$info['extension']); $uploads = wp_upload_dir(); $file_path = str_replace( $uploads['baseurl'], $uploads['basedir'], $url ); $dest_path = str_replace( '.pdf', '.jpg', $file_path ); $dest_url = str_replace( '.pdf', '.jpg', $pdf ); exec("convert \"{$file_path}[0]\" -colorspace RGB -geometry 60 $dest_path"); ?> <div class="entry"> <div class="widgetImg"> <p><a href="<?php echo $url; ?>" title="<?php echo $filename; ?>"><?php echo "<img src='".$dest_url."' alt='".$filename."' class='blueBorder' />"; ?></a></p> </div> <div class="widgetText"> <?php echo wpautop( $desc ); ?> <p><a class="downloadLink" href="<?php echo $url; ?>" title="<?php echo $filename; ?>">Download</a></p> </div> </div> <?php } ?> As you can see, the widget grabs whatever PDF is attached to the current page being viewed, creates an image of the first page of the PDF, stores it, then links to it in HTML. Thanks for any and all help!

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• Unit testing class in a web service in .net

  - by Dan Bailiff

  After some digging here, I took the advice in this thread: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/371961/how-to-unit-test-c-web-service-with-visual-studio-2008 I've created a separate class and my web service class is just a wrapper for that one. The problem is that when I try to create a unit test project in VS2008, it insists on creating a unit test that acts like I'm testing the web service calls instead of the class I specified. I can't get to the class I'm trying to test. I have a web service "subscription_api.asmx". The code behind is "subscription_api.cs" which contains the web method wrapper calls to the real code at "subscription.cs". I would expect to be able to do the following: [TestMethod()] public void GetSystemStatusTest() { subscription sub = new subscription(); XmlNode node = sub.GetSystemStatusTest(); Assert.IsNotNull(node); } But instead I get this mess which is autogenerated from VS'08: /// <summary> ///A test for GetSystemStatus ///</summary> // TODO: Ensure that the UrlToTest attribute specifies a URL to an ASP.NET page (for example, // http://.../Default.aspx). This is necessary for the unit test to be executed on the web server, // whether you are testing a page, web service, or a WCF service. [TestMethod()] [HostType("ASP.NET")] [AspNetDevelopmentServerHost("C:\\CVSROOT\\rnr\\pro\\product\\wms\\ss\\subscription_api", "/subscription_api")] [UrlToTest("http://localhost/subscription_api")] public void GetSystemStatusTest() { subscription_Accessor target = new subscription_Accessor(); // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value XmlNode expected = null; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value XmlNode actual; actual = target.GetSystemStatus(); Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); Assert.Inconclusive("Verify the correctness of this test method."); } Additionally, there is a "subscription_api.accessor" in the Test References folder. When I try this: [TestMethod()] public void GetSystemStatusTest2() { subscription_Accessor sub = new subscription_Accessor(); XmlNode node = sub.GetSystemStatus(); Assert.IsNotNull(node); } I get an error: Test method subscription_api.Test.subscriptionTest.GetSystemStatusTest2 threw exception: System.TypeInitializationException: The type initializer for 'subscription_Accessor' threw an exception. ---> System.ArgumentNullException: Value cannot be null. I'm really new to unit testing and feel lost. How can I create a unit test just for my subscription class in "subscription.cs" without testing the web service? Am I limited to testing within the same project (I hope not)? Do I have to put the target class in its own project outside of the web service project?

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• Why does every thread in my application use a different hibernate session?

  - by Ittai

  Hi, I have a web-application which uses hibernate and for some reason every thread (httprequest or other threads related to queueing) uses a different session. I've implemented a HibernateSessionFactory class which looks like this: public class HibernateSessionFactory { private static final ThreadLocal<Session> threadLocal = new ThreadLocal<Session>(); private static Configuration configuration = new AnnotationConfiguration(); private static org.hibernate.SessionFactory sessionFactory; static { try { configuration.configure(configFile); sessionFactory = configuration.buildSessionFactory(); } catch (Exception e) {} } private HibernateSessionFactory() {} public static Session getSession() throws HibernateException { Session session = (Session) threadLocal.get(); if (session == null || !session.isOpen()) { if (sessionFactory == null) { rebuildSessionFactory();//This method basically does what the static init block does } session = (sessionFactory != null) ? sessionFactory.openSession(): null; threadLocal.set(session); } return session; } //More non relevant methods here. Now from my testing it seems that the threadLocal member is indeed initialized only once when the class is first loaded by the JVM but for some reason when different threads access the getSession() method they use different sessions. When a thread first accesses this class (Session) threadLocal.get(); will return null but as expected all other access requests will yeild the same session. I'm not sure how this can be happening as the threadLocal variable is final and the method threadLocal.set(session) is only used in the above context (which I'm 99.9% sure has to yeild a non null session as I would have encountered a NullPointerException at a different part of my app). I'm not sure this is relevant but these are the main parts of my hibernate.cfg.xml file: <hibernate-configuration> <session-factory> <property name="connection.url">someURL</property> <property name="connection.driver_class"> com.microsoft.sqlserver.jdbc.SQLServerDriver</property> <property name="dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.SQLServerDialect</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.isolation">1</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.username">User</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.password">Password</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.pool_size">10</property> <property name="show_sql">false</property> <property name="current_session_context_class">thread</property> <property name="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto">update</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_second_level_cache">false</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.provider_class">org.hibernate.cache.NoCacheProvider</property> <!-- Mapping files --> I'd appreciate any help granted and of course if anyone has any questions I'd be happy to clarify. Ittai

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• jquery load a specific #Div content from multiple html files

  - by Vikram

  Hello friends I am trying to make a Content Slider for my site. I have multiple HTML files and the structure of these files is like this: <div id="title"><h2>Title of the Slide</h2></div> <div id="image"><a href="http://mylink.com"><img src="image.jpg" width="600" height="300" alt="image"</a></div> <div id="content">Lorem Ipsum is simply dummy text of the printing and typesetting industry. Lorem Ipsum has been the industry's standard dummy text ever since the 1500s.</div> I have been trying to use the following script get content (but no success): <?php function render($position="") { ob_start(); foreach(glob("/slides/*.html") as $fileName) { $fname = basename( $fileName ); $curArr = file($fname); $slides[$fname ]['title'] = $curArr[0]; $slides[$fname ]['image'] = $curArr[1]; $slides[$fname ]['content'] = $curArr[2]; foreach($slides as $key => $value){ ?> <div id="slide-title"> <?php echo $value['title'] ?> </div> <div id="slide-content"> <?php echo $value['image'] ?> </div> <div id="slide-image"> <?php echo $value['content'] ?> </div> <?php }} ?> <?php return ob_get_clean(); } But then I came to know about a jQuery function.... (again no success) jQuery.noConflict(); (function($){ $(document).ready(function () { $('#slide-title').load('slides/slide1.html #title'); $('#slide-content').load('slides/slide1.html #content'); $('#slide-image').load('slides/slide1.html #image'); }); })(jQuery); Now My questions are..... Am I using the right syntax. How do I get the content from multiple files using jQuery. Please Note : My knowledge on Programming is almost '0'. I have just started learning it.

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• Refactoring Singleton Overuse

  - by drharris

  Today I had an epiphany, and it was that I was doing everything wrong. Some history: I inherited a C# application, which was really just a collection of static methods, a completely procedural mess of C# code. I refactored this the best I knew at the time, bringing in lots of post-college OOP knowledge. To make a long story short, many of the entities in code have turned out to be Singletons. Today I realized I needed 3 new classes, which would each follow the same Singleton pattern to match the rest of the software. If I keep tumbling down this slippery slope, eventually every class in my application will be Singleton, which will really be no logically different from the original group of static methods. I need help on rethinking this. I know about Dependency Injection, and that would generally be the strategy to use in breaking the Singleton curse. However, I have a few specific questions related to this refactoring, and all about best practices for doing so. How acceptable is the use of static variables to encapsulate configuration information? I have a brain block on using static, and I think it is due to an early OO class in college where the professor said static was bad. But, should I have to reconfigure the class every time I access it? When accessing hardware, is it ok to leave a static pointer to the addresses and variables needed, or should I continually perform Open() and Close() operations? Right now I have a single method acting as the controller. Specifically, I continually poll several external instruments (via hardware drivers) for data. Should this type of controller be the way to go, or should I spawn separate threads for each instrument at the program's startup? If the latter, how do I make this object oriented? Should I create classes called InstrumentAListener and InstrumentBListener? Or is there some standard way to approach this? Is there a better way to do global configuration? Right now I simply have Configuration.Instance.Foo sprinkled liberally throughout the code. Almost every class uses it, so perhaps keeping it as a Singleton makes sense. Any thoughts? A lot of my classes are things like SerialPortWriter or DataFileWriter, which must sit around waiting for this data to stream in. Since they are active the entire time, how should I arrange these in order to listen for the events generated when data comes in? Any other resources, books, or comments about how to get away from Singletons and other pattern overuse would be helpful.

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