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  • Directly Jump to another C++ function

    - by maligree
    I'm porting a small academic OS from TriCore to ARM Cortex (Thumb-2 instruction set). For the scheduler to work, I sometimes need to JUMP directly to another function without modifying the stack nor the link register. On TriCore (or, rather, on tricore-g++), this wrapper template (for any three-argument-function) works: template< class A1, class A2, class A3 > inline void __attribute__((always_inline)) JUMP3( void (*func)( A1, A2, A3), A1 a1, A2 a2, A3 a3 ) { typedef void (* __attribute__((interrupt_handler)) Jump3)( A1, A2, A3); ( (Jump3)func )( a1, a2, a3 ); } //example for using the template: JUMP3( superDispatch, this, me, next ); This would generate the assembler instruction J (a.k.a. JUMP) instead of CALL, leaving the stack and CSAs unchanged when jumping to the (otherwise normal) C++ function superDispatch(SchedulerImplementation* obj, Task::Id from, Task::Id to). Now I need an equivalent behaviour on ARM Cortex (or, rather, for arm-none-linux-gnueabi-g++), i.e. generate a B (a.k.a. BRANCH) instruction instead of BLX (a.k.a. BRANCH with link and exchange). But there is no interrupt_handler attribute for arm-g++ and I could not find any equivalent attribute. So I tried to resort to asm volatile and writing the asm code directly: template< class A1, class A2, class A3 > inline void __attribute__((always_inline)) JUMP3( void (*func)( A1, A2, A3), A1 a1, A2 a2, A3 a3 ) { asm volatile ( "mov.w r0, %1;" "mov.w r1, %2;" "mov.w r2, %3;" "b %0;" : : "r"(func), "r"(a1), "r"(a2), "r"(a3) : "r0", "r1", "r2" ); } So far, so good, in my theory, at least. Thumb-2 requires function arguments to be passed in the registers, i.e. r0..r2 in this case, so it should work. But then the linker dies with undefined reference to `r6' on the closing bracket of the asm statement ... and I don't know what to make of it. OK, I'm not the expert in C++, and the asm syntax is not very straightforward... so has anybody got a hint for me? A hint to the correct __attribute__ for arm-g++ would be one way, a hint to fix the asm code would be another. Another way maybe would be to tell the compiler that a1..a3 should already be in the registers r0..r2 when the asm statement is entered (I looked into that a bit, but did not find any hint).

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  • Hibernate not loading associated object

    - by Noor
    Hi, i am trying to load a hibernate object ForumMessage but in it contain another object Users and the Users object is not being loaded. My ForumMessage Mapping File: <?xml version="1.0"?> <!DOCTYPE hibernate-mapping PUBLIC "-//Hibernate/Hibernate Mapping DTD 3.0//EN" "http://hibernate.sourceforge.net/hibernate-mapping-3.0.dtd"> <!-- Generated Jan 4, 2011 10:10:29 AM by Hibernate Tools 3.4.0.Beta1 --> <hibernate-mapping> <class name="com.BiddingSystem.Models.ForumMessage" table="FORUMMESSAGE"> <id name="ForumMessageId" type="long"> <column name="FORUMMESSAGEID" /> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="ForumMessage" type="java.lang.String"> <column name="FORUMMESSAGE" /> </property> <many-to-one name="User" class="com.BiddingSystem.Models.Users" fetch="join"> <column name="UserId" /> </many-to-one> <property name="DatePosted" type="java.util.Date"> <column name="DATEPOSTED" /> </property> <many-to-one name="Topic" class="com.BiddingSystem.Models.ForumTopic" fetch="join"> <column name="TopicId" /> </many-to-one> </class> </hibernate-mapping> and I am using the follwing code: Session session = gileadHibernateUtil.getSessionFactory().openSession(); SQL="from ForumMessage"; System.out.println(SQL); Query query=session.createQuery(SQL); System.out.println(query.list().size()); return new LinkedList <ForumMessage>(query.list());

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  • Help using recursion in Java

    - by Mercer
    I have a class Group. In the class I have two fields, idGroup IdGroupGroup. Groups may be part of other groups. My class Group is defined in a HashMap<Integer,Integer>; the key is IdGroupGroup and value is idGroup. I want to search the map for a particular idGroup; can I use recursion to do this?

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  • How to save to two tables using one SQLAlchemy model

    - by Oatman
    I have an SQLAlchemy ORM class, linked to MySQL, which works great at saving the data I need down to the underlying table. However, I would like to also save the identical data to a second archive table. Here's some psudocode to try and explain what I mean my_data = Data() #An ORM Class my_data.name = "foo" #This saves just to the 'data' table session.add(my_data) #This will save it to the identical 'backup_data' table my_data_archive = my_data my_data_archive.__tablename__ = 'backup_data' session.add(my_data_archive) #And commits them both session.commit() Just a heads up, I am not interested in mapping a class to a JOIN, as in: http://www.sqlalchemy.org/docs/05/mappers.html#mapping-a-class-against-multiple-tables

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  • Why timed lock doesnt throws a timeout exception in C++0x?

    - by Vicente Botet Escriba
    C++0x allows to lock on a mutex until a given time is reached, and return a boolean stating if the mutex has been locked or not. template <class Clock, class Duration> bool try_lock_until(const chrono::time_point<Clock, Duration>& abs_time); In some contexts, I consider an exceptional situation that the locking fails because of timeout. In this case an exception should be more appropriated. To make the difference a function lock_until could be used to get a timeout exception when the time is reached before locking. template <class Clock, class Duration> void lock_until(const chrono::time_point<Clock, Duration>& abs_time); Do you think that lock_until should be more adequate in some contexts? if yes, on which ones? If no, why try_lock_until will always be a better choice?

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  • @Resource annotation is null at run-time.

    - by Andrew
    I'm using GlassFish v3. The following field is declared in a class: @Resource private javax.sql.DataSource _data_source; The following is declare in web.xml: <data-source <namejava:app/env/data</name <class-namecom.mysql.jdbc.Driver</class-name <server-namelocalhost</server-name <port-number3306</port-number <usermyUser</user <passwordmyPass</password </data-source At run-time _data_source is empty. What am I doing wrong?

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  • Joining tables with composite keys in a legacy system in hibernate

    - by Steve N
    Hi, I'm currently trying to create a pair of Hibernate annotated classes to load (read only) from a pair of tables in a legacy system. The legacy system uses a consistent (if somewhat dated) approach to keying tables. The tables I'm attempting to map are as follows: Customer CustomerAddress -------------------------- ---------------------------- customerNumber:string (pk) customerNumber:string (pk_1) name:string sequenceNumber:int (pk_2) street:string postalCode:string I've approached this by creating a CustomerAddress class like this: @Entity @Table(name="CustomerAddress") @IdClass(CustomerAddressKey.class) public class CustomerAddress { @Id @AttributeOverrides({ @AttributeOverride(name = "customerNumber", column = @Column(name="customerNumber")), @AttributeOverride(name = "sequenceNumber", column = @Column(name="sequenceNumber")) }) private String customerNumber; private int sequenceNumber; private String name; private String postalCode; ... } Where the CustomerAddressKey class is a simple Serializable object with the two key fields. The Customer object is then defined as: @Entity @Table(name = "Customer") public class Customer { private String customerNumber; private List<CustomerAddress> addresses = new ArrayList<CustomerAddress>(); private String name; ... } So, my question is: how do I express the OneToMany relationship on the Customer table?

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  • Events + Adapter Pattern

    - by Stretto
    I have an adapter pattern on a generic class that essentially adapts between types: class A<T> { event EventHandler e; } class Aadapter<T1, T2> : A<T1> { A<T2> a; Aadapter(A<T2> _a) { a = _a; } } The problem is that A contains an event. I effectively want all event handlers assigned to Adapter to fall through to a. It would be awesome if I could assign the a's event handler to adapter's event handler but this is impossible? The idea here is that A is almost really just A but we need a way to adapt the them. Because of the way event's work I can't how to efficiently do it except manually add two event handlers and when they are called they "relay" the to the other event. This isn't pretty though and it would seem much nicer if I could have something like class A<T> { event EventHandler e; } class Aadapter<T1, T2> : A<T1> { event *e; A<T2> a; Aadapter(A<T2> _a) { a = _a; e = a.e; } } in a sense we have a pointer to the event that we can assign a2's event to. I doubt there is any simple way but maybe someone has some idea to make it work. (BTW, I realize this is possible with virtual events but I'd like to avoid this if at all possible)

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  • jquery.hover on iphone

    - by Sam
    I use jquery.hover to toggle a class when someone mouses over a link. On the iphone when someone taps the link, it toggles the class on, but it doesn't ever toggle the class off until they tap somewhere else.

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  • Why does the VS2005 debugger not report "base." values properly? (was "Why is this if statement fail

    - by Rawling
    I'm working on an existing class that is two steps derived from System.Windows.Forms.Combo box. The class overrides the Text property thus: public override string Text { get { return this.AccessibilityObject.Value; } set { if (base.Text != value) { base.Text = value; } } } The reason given for that "get" is this MS bug: http://support.microsoft.com/kb/814346 However, I'm more interested in the fact that the "if" doesn't work. There are times where "base.Text != value" is true and yet pressing F10 steps straight to the closing } of the "set" and the Text property is not changed. I've seen this both by just checking values in the debugger, and putting a conditional breakpoint on that only breaks when the "if" statement's predicate is true. How on earth can "if" go wrong? The class between this and ComboBox doesn't touch the Text property. The bug above shouldn't really be affecting anything - it says it's fixed in VS2005. Is the debugger showing different values than the program itself sees? Update I think I've found what is happening here. The debugger is reporting value incorrectly (including evaluating conditional breakpoints incorrectly). To see this, try the following pair of classes: class MyBase { virtual public string Text { get { return "BaseText"; } } } class MyDerived : MyBase { public override string Text { get { string test = base.Text; return "DerivedText"; } } } Put a breakpoint on the last return statement, then run the code and access that property. In my VS2005, hovering over base.Text gives the value "DerivedText", but the variable test has been correctly set to "BaseText". So, new question: why does the debugger not handle base properly, and how can I get it to?

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  • Polymorphism and c#

    - by saurabh
    Here one more basic question asked in MS interview recently Class A { public virtual void Method1(){} public void Method2() { Method1(); } } class B:A { public override void Method1() { } } Class main { A obk = new B(); obk.Method2(); } now tell me which function gets called ? sorry for the typos.

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  • Debug.writeline locks

    - by Carra
    My program frequently stops with a deadlock. When I do a break-all and look at the threads I see that three threads are stuck in our logging function: public class Logging { public static void WriteClientLog(LogLevel logLevel, string message) { #if DEBUG System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine(String.Format("{0} {1}", DateTime.Now.ToString("HH:mm:ss"), message)); //LOCK #endif //...Log4net logging } } If I let the program continue the threads are still stuck on that line. I can't see where this can lock. The debug class, string class & datetime class seem to be thread safe. The error goes away when I remove the "#if DEBUG System... #endif" code but I'm curious why this behavior happens. Thread one: public void CleanCache() { Logging.WriteClientLog(LogLevel.Debug, "Start clean cache.");//Stuck } Thread two: private void AliveThread() { Logging.WriteClientLog(LogLevel.Debug, "Check connection");//Stuck }

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  • Scala : reference is ambiguous (imported twice)

    - by tk
    I want to use a method as a parameter of another method of the same class. I have a class and objects which are companions: class mM(var elem:Matrix){ //apply a function on a dimension rows (1) or cols (2) def app(func:Iterable[Double]=>Double)(dim : Int) : Matrix = { ... } //utility function def logsumexp(): Double = {...} } object mM{ def apply(elem:Matrix):mM={new mM(elem)} def logsumexp(elem:Iterable[Double]): Double ={ this.apply(elem.asInstanceOf[Matrix]).logsumexp() } } Normally I use logsumexp like this mM(matrix).logsumexp but if want to apply it to the rows I can't use mM(matrix).app(mM.logsumexp)(1), I get the error: error: reference to mM is ambiguous; it is imported twice in the same scope by import mM and import mM What is the most elegant solution ? Should I change logsumexp() to another class ? Thanks,=)

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  • Extended Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract does not return values

    - by WesleyE
    Hi, I'm quite new to Zend and the database classes from it. I'm having problems mapping a Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract to my rows. The problem is that whenever I try to map it to a class (Job) that extends the Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract class, the database data is not receivable anymore. I'm not getting any errors, trying to get data simply returns null. Here is my code so far: Jobs: class Jobs extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = 'jobs'; protected $_rowsetClass = "Job"; public function getActiveJobs() { $select = $this->select()->where('jobs.jobDateOpen < UNIX_TIMESTAMP()')->limit(15,0); $rows = $this->fetchAll($select); return $rows; } } Job: class Job extends Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract { public function getCompanyName() { //Gets the companyName for this row (Is on another table), just for example } } Controller: $oJobs = new Jobs(); $aActiveJobs = $oJobs->getActiveJobs(); foreach ($aActiveJobs as $value) { var_dump($value->jobTitle); } When I remove the "protected $_rowsetClass = "Job";" line, so that the table row is not mapped to my own class, I get all the jobTitles perfectly. What am I doing wrong here? Thanks in advance, Wesley

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  • jquery: .attr() fails for child element

    - by user984003
    I'm going crazy staring at this. I need to change the attribute of an element, something which I have done many times before. But it fails. Now I can't even get jquery to show me the attribute that it has. Does it have to do with what is returned by find()? var c = new_photo_div.find('[class = photo]')[0]; alert(c); alert(new_photo_div.attr('class')); alert(c.attr('class')); The first alert correctly identifies the element: Object HTMLImageElement The second alert correctly gives me the class of new_photo_div. The third alert fails. No alert. I think it should say: photo

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  • I want to get the value of an id from a nested div - jquery

    - by Jean
    Hello I want to obtain the .text() of #inner2 <div class="outer" id="outer"> <div id="inner1" class="inner">test1</div> <div id="inner2" class="inner">test2</div> <div id="inner3" class="inner">test3</div> </div> This is the jquery function I am using $('.outer').bind('click',function() { var one = $('#inner'+x).attr('id'); alert(one); }); The problem is the first #id value is show in the alert. Thanks Jean

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  • Ruby Metaprogramming

    - by Veerendra Manikonda
    I am having a method which returns the price of a given symbol and i am writing a test for that method. This is my test def setup @asset = NetAssetValue.new end def test_retrieve_price_for_symbol_YHOO assert_equal(33.987, @asset.retrieve_price_for_a_symbol('YHOO')) end def test_retrive_price_for_YHOO def self.retrieve_price_for_a_symbol(symbol) 33.77 end assert_equal(33.97, @asset.retrieve_price_for_a_symbol('YHOO')) end This is my method. def retrieve_price_for_a_symbol(symbol) symbol_price = { "YHOO" => 33.987, "UPS" => 35.345, "T" => 80.90 } raise Exception if(symbol_price[symbol].nil?) symbol_price[symbol] end I am trying to mock the retrieve_price_for_a_symbol method by writing same method in test class but when i call it, the call is happening to method in main class not in the test class. How do I add that method to meta class from test and how do i call it? Please help.

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  • Can this PHP function be improved?

    - by jasondavis
    Below is some code I am working on for a navigation menu, if you are on a certain page, it will add a "current" css class to the proper tab. I am curious if there is a better way to do this in PHP because it really seems like a lot of code to do such a simple task? My pages will also have a jquery library already loaded, would it be better to set the tab with jquery instead of PHP? Any tips appreciated <?PHP active_header('page identifier goes here'); //ie; 'home' or 'users.online' function active_header($page_name) { // arrays for header menu selector $header_home = array('home' => true); $header_users = array( 'users.online' => true, 'users.online.male' => true, 'users.online.female' => true, 'users.online.friends' => true, 'users.location' => true, 'users.featured' => true, 'users.new' => true, 'users.browse' => true, 'users.search' => true, 'users.staff' => true ); $header_forum = array('forum' => true); $header_more = array( 'widgets' => true, 'news' => true, 'promote' => true, 'development' => true, 'bookmarks' => true, 'about' => true ); $header_money = array( 'account.money' => true, 'account.store' => true, 'account.lottery' => true, 'users.top.money' => true ); $header_account = array('account' => true); $header_mail = array( 'mail.inbox' => true, 'mail.sentbox' => true, 'mail.trash' => true, 'bulletins.post' => true, 'bulletins.my' => true, 'bulletins' => true ); // set variables if there array value exist if (isset($header_home[$page_name])){ $current_home = 'current'; }else if (isset($header_users[$page_name])){ $current_users = 'current'; }else if (isset($header_forum[$page_name])){ $current_forum = 'current'; }else if (isset($header_more[$page_name])){ $current_more = 'current'; }else if (isset($header_money[$page_name])){ $current_money = 'current'; }else if (isset($header_account[$page_name])){ $current_account = 'current'; }else if (isset($header_mail[$page_name])){ $current_mail = 'current'; } // show the links echo '<li class="' . (isset($current_home) ? $current_home : '') . '"><a href=""><em>Home</em></a></li>'; echo '<li class="' . (isset($current_users) ? $current_users : '') . '"><a href=""><em>Users</em></a></li>'; echo '<li class="' . (isset($current_forum) ? $current_forum : '') . '"><a href=""><em>Forum</em></a></li>'; echo '<li class="' . (isset($current_more) ? $current_more : '') . '"><a href=""><em>More</em></a></li>'; echo '<li class="' . (isset($current_money) ? $current_money : '') . '"><a href=""><em>Money</em></a></li>'; echo '<li class="' . (isset($current_account) ? $current_account : '') . '"><a href=""><em>Account</em></a></li>'; echo '<li class="' . (isset($current_mail) ? $current_mail : '') . '"><a href=""><em>Mail</em></a></li>'; } ?>

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  • Conditional on WebClient

    - by CarryFlag
    Given: thin client (JS) model services client use services. services use model. Model consists of (for sample): Rect Circle ... Ellipse services: class CanvasProviger { public Canvas getCanvas() { return new Canvas(); } } model: class Canvas ... { private List < Figure > figures = new List < Figure >; ... } class Circle extends Figure { private int x, y, r; } class Rect extends Figure { private x, y, w, h; } client: ... var figure = MyJSRPCImpl.getCanvas().nextFigure(); if(figure == JSLocalModel.Rect) { drawRect(figure); } else if(figure == JSLocalModel.Circle) { drawCircle(figure); } ... How else can do way conditional? In rich client I used pattern Visitor. // my bad english, I know =(

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  • on .bind('click') it is not deleting the first div

    - by Jean
    Hello, When I click on a particular div, that div should fade out, simple, but when I click on one of the divs it deletes the div on top of the stack. ie., when I click #sel6 it removes sel5 html code <div id="selc" class="selc" style="position:absolute; left:15px; top:200px; width:260px;"> <div id="sel5" class="sel">something</div> <div id="sel6" class="sel">something</div> <div id="sel7" class="sel">something</div> </div jquery code sel_id, sel_1 are variables $('.selc').bind('click',function(){ var sel_id = $('.sel').attr('id'); alert(sel_id); $('#'+sel_id).fadeOut('slow'); $('#'+sel_id).remove(); $('.search_box').append(sel_1); }); Thanks Jean

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  • Java Thread Message Passing

    - by pkulak
    I'm writing an Android app. I have a main method, which creates and runs a new Thread using an anonymous inner Runnable class. The run() method, when it's done, calls a method on it's parent class (in the main thread) that calls notifyDataSetChanged() so that the main thread can redraw the new data. This is causing all kinds of trouble (ViewRoot$CalledFromWrongThreadException). The thing is, this method being called from the worker thread is on the class that's created in the UI thread. Shouldn't that be running on the UI thread? Or am I missing something? Here's some code about what I'm talking about: public class Mealfire extends Activity { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle icicle) { (new Thread() { public void run() { // Do a bunch of slow network stuff. update(); } }).start(); } private void update() { myAdapter.notifyDatasetChanged(); } }

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  • Python threading question (Working with a method that blocks forever)

    - by Nix
    I am trying to wrap a thread around some receiving logic in python. Basically we have an app, that will have a thread in the background polling for messages, the problem I ran into is that piece that actually pulls the messages waits forever for a message. Making it impossible to terminate... I ended up wrapping the pull in another thread, but I wanted to make sure there wasn't a better way to do it. Original code: class Manager: def __init__(self): receiver = MessageReceiver() receiver.start() #do other stuff... class MessageReceiver(Thread): receiver = Receiver() def __init__(self): Thread.__init__(self) def run(self): #stop is a flag that i use to stop the thread... while(not stopped ): #can never stop because pull below blocks message = receiver.pull() print "Message" + message What I refectored to: class Manager: def __init__(self): receiver = MessageReceiver() receiver.start() class MessageReceiver(Thread): receiver = Receiver() def __init__(self): Thread.__init__(self) def run(self): pullThread = PullThread(self.receiver) pullThread.start() #stop is a flag that i use to stop the thread... while(not stopped and pullThread.last_message ==None): pass message = pullThread.last_message print "Message" + message class PullThread(Thread): last_message = None def __init__(self, receiver): Thread.__init(self, target=get_message, args=(receiver)) def get_message(self, receiver): self.last_message = None self.last_message = receiver.pull() return self.last_message I know the obvious locking issues exist, but is this the appropriate way to control a receive thread that waits forever for a message? One thing I did notice was this thing eats 100% cpu while waiting for a message... **If you need to see the stopping logic please let me know and I will post.

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  • Parse xml file with same tag multiple times iphone sdk

    - by neha
    Hi all, In my application, I have a tag multiple times. I'm using xml parser. I'm taking a corresponding element with similar name as the one in xml file in my class. So in case of: <photo>abc</photo> <photo>def</photo> What I get in photo element of my class is the second element i.e def, as the first one gets overwritten as there's only one photo element in my class. My question is am I wrong in taking similar elements in class as in case of xml? Is there any better method or a better parser? Or I'm on right path and have to do this manually by setting some flags etc? Thanx in advance.

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