Search Results

Search found 34893 results on 1396 pages for 'const method'.

Page 561/1396 | < Previous Page | 557 558 559 560 561 562 563 564 565 566 567 568  | Next Page >

  • Recursive QuickSort suffering a StackOverflowException -- Need fresh eyes

    - by jon
    I am working on a Recursive QuickSort method implementation in a GenericList Class. I will have a second method that accepts a compareDelegate to compare different types, but for development purposes I'm sorting a GenericList<int I am recieving stackoverflow areas in different places depending on the list size. I've been staring at and tracing through this code for hours and probably just need a fresh pair of (more experienced)eyes. Definitely wanting to learn why it is broken, not just how to fix it. public void QuickSort() { int i, j, lowPos, highPos, pivot; GenericList<T> leftList = new GenericList<T>(); GenericList<T> rightList = new GenericList<T>(); GenericList<T> tempList = new GenericList<T>(); lowPos = 1; highPos = this.Count; if (lowPos < highPos) { pivot = (lowPos + highPos) / 2; for (i = 1; i <= highPos; i++) { if (this[i].CompareTo(this[pivot]) <= 0) leftList.Add(this[i]); else rightList.Add(this[i]); } leftList.QuickSort(); rightList.QuickSort(); for(i=1;i<=leftList.Count;i++) tempList.Add(leftList[i]); for(i=1;i<=rightList.Count;i++) tempList.Add(rightList[i]); this.items = tempList.items; this.count = tempList.count; } }

    Read the article

  • Implementing Dispose on a class derived from Stream

    - by AnthonyWJones
    I'm building a class that derives from Stream to wrap a COM IStream. However I've come across an issue where I need to release the COM IStream deteministically. Ok so that's easy just use Marshal.ReleaseComObject in the Dispose method. However I'm not sure its that simple. The Stream base class already has an protected virtual method Dispose(boolean). Here is my first idea:- ~ComStreamWrapper() { if (!_Disposed) { iop.Marshal.FreeCoTaskMem(_Int64Ptr); iop.Marshal.ReleaseComObject(_IStream); } } protected override void Dispose(bool disposing) { base.Dispose(disposing); if (!_Disposed) { if (disposing) { iop.Marshal.FreeCoTaskMem(_Int64Ptr); iop.Marshal.ReleaseComObject(_IStream); } _Disposed = true; } } You'll notice there isn't an implementation of Dispose() itself. I'm currently making the asssumption that the existing implementation on Stream does what I need it to. That is calling Diposing(true) and GC.SuppressFinalize. Is this assumption faulty? Have I missed something? Is there a better approach? You see more of the basic class in this answer to an ealier question.

    Read the article

  • IE 8 remove line break between nodes with JavaScript

    - by Tokimon
    Ok i have a list of HTML nodes which should be inline with no spacing between them. The problem is, that the nodes are written from a CMS and therefore will come with all sorts of linebreaks and spaces. Therefore I'm removing the spaces with JS using the method descibed in this question. The problem is, however, that in IE (not 9) the white spaces isn't part of the childrens list of the parent node, rendering the method useless in IE. However IE 7 (or at least IE 9 emulating IE 7) ignores the linebreaks, so that one is in the clear. That leaves IE 8 as the troublemaker. I discovered that the line break is actually a part of the outerHTML and that a simple reset of the outerHTML did the trick - like so: node.outerHTML = node.outerHTML However this will reset the node intirely and therefore removing all events and other settings on the node, which isn't really any good. So my question is now: Is there a way to remove that linebreak from the nodes outerHTML whitout resetting the node? I've tried with zoom: 1, but to no avail. Hope anyone has any experience with this.

    Read the article

  • Form submit capture into database not working

    - by kielie
    Hi guys, I have a form that has two buttons on it, one yes, one no, and at the moment I capture the clicked button into a database, but for some reason, it doesn't always capture the clicked button, I have gone through all my code and everything seems fine, here is the form <div id="mid_prompt"> <form action="refer.php" method="post" onsubmit="return submit_form()" > <div class="prompt_container" style="float: left;"> <span class="prompt_item"><input type="image" src="images/yes.jpg" alt="submit" name="refer" value="yes" /></span> </div> </form> <form action="thank_you.php" method="post" onsubmit="return submit_form()" > <div class="prompt_container" style="float: right;"> <span class="prompt_item"><input type="image" src="images/no.jpg" alt="submit" name="refer" value="no" /></span> </div> </form> </div> I am using sessions to carry the variables all the way to the end of the forms where I then write all the data to a database, I have checked my sessions and they seem to be working fine, the only one that is giving problems is the yes/no. So basically I need it to capture that yes/no everytime. Thanx in advance!

    Read the article

  • NSPopupButton Bindings with Value Transformer

    - by rdelmar
    I don't know if what I see with a popup button populated by bindings with a value transformer is the way it's supposed to be or not -- the unusual thing I'm seeing (at least with respect to what I've seen with value transformers and table views) is that the "value" parameter in the transformedValue: method is the whole array bound to the array controller, not the individual strings in the array. When I've done this with table views, the transformer is called once for each displayed row in the table, and the "value" parameter is whatever object is bound to that row and column, not the whole array that serves as the content array for the array controller. I have a very simple app to test this. In the app delegate there is this: +(void)initialize { RDTransformer *transformer = [[RDTransformer alloc] init]; [NSValueTransformer setValueTransformer:transformer forName:@"testTransformer"]; } - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(NSNotification *)aNotification { self.theData = @[@{@"name":@"William", @"age":@"24"},@{@"name":@"Thomas", @"age":@"23"},@{@"name":@"Alexander", @"age":@"64"},@{@"name":@"James", @"age":@"47"}]; } In the RDTransformer class is this: + (Class)transformedValueClass { return [NSString class]; } +(BOOL)allowsReverseTransformation { return NO; } -(id)transformedValue:(id)value { NSLog(@"%@",value); return value; } In IB, I added an NSPopupButton to the window and an array controller to the objects list. The content array of the controller is bound to App Delegate.theData, and the Content Values of the popup button is bound to Array Controller.arrangedObjects.name with the value transformer, testTransformer. When I run the program, the log from the transformedValue: method is this: 2012-09-19 20:31:39.975 PopupBindingWithTransformer[793:303] ( ) 2012-09-19 20:31:40.019 PopupBindingWithTransformer[793:303] ( William, Thomas, Alexander, James ) This doesn't seem to be other people's experience from what I can see on SO. Is there something I'm doing wrong with either the bindings or the value transformer?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET AJAX weirdness

    - by LoveMeSomeCode
    Ok, I thought I understood these topics well, but I guess not, so hopefully someone here can clear this up. Page.IsAsync seems to be broken. It always returns false. But ScriptManager.IsInAsyncPostBack seems to work, sort of. It returns true during the round trip for controls inside UpdatePanels. This is good; I can tell if it's a partial postback or a regular one. ScriptManager.IsInAsyncPostBack returns false however for async Page Methods. Why is this? It's not a regular postback, I'm just calling a public static method on the page. It causes a problem because I also realized that if you have a control with AutoPostBack = false, it won't trigger a postback on it's own, but if it has an event handler on the page, that event handler code WILL run on the next postback, regardless of how the postback occurred, IF the value has changed. i.e. if I tweak a dropdown and then hit a button, that dropdown's handler code will fire. This is ok, except that it will also happen during Page Method calls, and I have no way to know the difference. Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • OptimisticLockException in inner transaction ruins outer transaction

    - by Pace
    I have the following code (OLE = OptimisticLockException)... public void outer() { try { middle() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); outer(); } } @Transactional public void middle() { try { inner() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); middle(); } @Transactional public void inner() { //Do DB operation } inner() is called by other non-transactional methods which is why both middle() and inner() are transactional. As you can see, I deal with OLEs by updating the entities and retrying the operation. The problem I'm having is that when I designed things this way I was assuming that the only time one could get an OLE was when a transaction closed. This is apparently not the case as the call to inner() is throwing an OLE even when the stack is outer()->middle()->inner(). Now, middle() is properly handling the OLE and the retry succeeds but when it comes time to close the transaction it has been marked rollbackOnly by Spring. When the middle() method call finally returns the closing aspect throws an exception because it can't commit a transaction marked rollbackOnly. I'm uncertain what to do here. I can't clear the rollbackOnly state. I don't want to force create a transaction on every call to inner because that kills my performance. Am I missing something or can anyone see a way I can structure this differently? EDIT: To clarify what I'm asking, let me explain my main question. Is it possible to catch and handle OLE if you are inside of an @Transactional method? FYI: The transaction manager is a JpaTransactionManager and the JPA provider is Hibernate.

    Read the article

  • jQuery dynamic css loading weired behavior

    - by jimpsr
    The app I am working on requires dynamic loading of css and js, right now the solution is as follows: myapp.loadCss = function(css){ $("head").append("<link>"); cssDom = $("head").children(":last"); cssDom.attr({rel: "stylesheet", type: "text/css", href: css }); } myapp.loadJs = funciton(js){ ... //$.ajax call is used in synchronized mode to make sure the js is fully loaded } } When some widgets need to be load, the usual call with be myapp.loadCss('/widgets/widget1/css/example.css'); myapp.loadJs('/wiggets/widget1/js/example.js'); The weired thing is that once a while (1 out of 10 or 20), the newly created dom elements from example.js will not be able to get its css from example.css, it seems however my loadCss method does not load the css in a synchronized mode? I have tried to replace my loadCss with the the following code: myapp.loadCss(css){ $('<link href="' + css + '" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" />').appendTo($('head')); } It seems to be OK then (I refreshed the webpage a hundred times for verification :-( ) But unfortunately this method failed in IE(IE7, not tested in IE6, 8) Is there any better solution for this?

    Read the article

  • Ruby on Rails Truncate text - can I use it for a combination of title and content?

    - by Quhby
    I have <%=link_to topic.title, topic_path(topic) % - <%= truncate(topic.description_without_embed, :length=50, :omission ="...") % But what I really want to do is to truncate both the title and the post to 50 characters. How can this be done? The output should look something like Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. - Curabitur eu dolor est, id pharetra lectus. Phasellus nec feugiat dolor. Curabitur feugiat ultrices leo ut egestas. Nullam nec nisi in ligula feugiat placerat. Ut adipiscing urna consequat tortor euismod pretium. Maecenas eget quam aliquet orci blandit eleifend eu et quam. Donec. instead of Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. - Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Curabitur eu dolor est, id pharetra lectus. Phasellus nec feugiat dolor. Curabitur feugiat ultrices leo ut egestas. Nullam nec nisi in ligula feugiat placerat. Ut adipiscing urna consequat tortor euismod pretium. Maecenas eget quam aliquet orci blandit eleifend eu et quam. Donec. I don't need to use the truncate method, any method would be helpful. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Spring 3 MVC validation BindingResult doesn't contain any errors

    - by Travelsized
    I'm attempting to get a Spring 3.0.2 WebMVC project running with the new annotated validation support. I have a Hibernate entity annotated like this: @Entity @Table(name = "client") public class Client implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "clientId", nullable = false) @NotEmpty private Integer clientId; @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "firstname", nullable = false, length = 45) @NotEmpty @Size(min=2, max=45) private String firstname; ... more fields, getters and setters } I've turned on mvc annotation support in my applicationContext.xml file: <mvc:annotation-driven /> And I have a method in my controller that responds to a form submission: @RequestMapping(value="/addClient.htm") public String addClient(@ModelAttribute("client") @Valid Client client, BindingResult result) { if(result.hasErrors()) { return "addClient"; } service.storeClient(client); return "clientResult"; } When my app loads in the server, I can see in the server log file that it loads a validator: 15 [http-8084-2] INFO org.hibernate.validator.util.Version - Hibernate Validator 4.0.2.GA The problem I'm having is that the validator doesn't seem to kick in. I turned on the debugger, and when I get into the controller method, the BindingResult contains 0 errors after I submit an empty form. (The BindingResult does show that it contains the Client object as a target.) It then proceeds to insert a record without an Id and throws an exception. If I fill out an Id but leave the name blank, it creates a record with the Id and empty fields. What steps am I missing to get the validation working?

    Read the article

  • How do I reference my MainViewController from another class?

    - by todd412
    Hi, I am building an iPhone Utility app that uses UIImageView to display an animation. Within the MainViewController's viewDidLoad() method, I am creating an instance of a CustomClass, and then setting up the animations: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; cc = [CustomClass new]; NSArray * imageArray = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects: [UIImage imageNamed:@"image-1-off.jpg"], [UIImage imageNamed:@"image-2-off.jpg"], [UIImage imageNamed:@"image-3-off.jpg"], [UIImage imageNamed:@"image-4-off.jpg"], nil]; offSequence = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 480)]; offSequence.animationImages = imageArray; offSequence.animationDuration = .8; offSequence.contentMode = UIViewContentModeBottomLeft; [self.view addSubview:offSequence]; [offSequence startAnimating]; } That works fine. However, I would like to be able to move all the above code that sets up the UIImageView into my CustomClass. The problem is in the second to last line: [self.view addSubview:offSequence]; I basically need to replace 'self' with a reference to the MainControllerView, so I can call addSubview from within my CustomClass. I tried creating an instance var of CustomClass called mvc and a setter method that takes a reference to the MainViewController as an argument as such: - (void) setMainViewController: (MainViewController *) the_mvc { mvc = the_mvc; } And then I called it within MainViewController like so: [cc setMainController:MainViewController:self]; But this yields all sorts of errors which I can post here, but it strikes me that I may be overcomplicating this. Is there an easier way to reference the MainViewController that instanatiated my CustomClass?

    Read the article

  • Adding a button bar at the bottom of ListView upon checkbox select (as in gmail app)??

    - by elto
    I have a ListView with custom adapter. In each row there is a checkbox and couple of textviews. I want user to give option to delete the check marked items, so as soon as soon clicks on one of the checkbox, I want a button bar to slide in from the bottom and stay at the bottom regardless of listview scroll. This is something like the email app behavior of Motorola Cliq and to some extent gmail app itself. I have tried adding a relativelayout (containing buttons) below the listview, which has visibility set to gone initially, but as soon as user checks a button, the visibility changes to "visible". I have added a slide-in animation to it too. It is working but problem is that it is overlapping the last element of the listview which user can not checkmark if the button bar has already become visible. So I tried to set the bottom margin of the listview equal to the height of the button bar when I'm changing the button bar visibility, which solves the problem of overlap, but now the checkbox behavior has gone weird. Clicking on one checkmark tries to checkmark another checkmark in the list for some weird reason. I noticed that this happens because as soon as I change the listview margin, list redraws itself, and during this new call to getView() method of adapter, things mess up. I wanted to ask if anyone has done something like this. What is the best method to add such button bar below list while keeping the slide-in animation intact. Also, What is the footer-view of listview and can that solve my problem?

    Read the article

  • is using private shared objects/variables on class level harmful ?

    - by haansi
    Hello, Thanks for your attention and time. I need your opinion on an basic architectural issue please. In page behind classes I am using a private and shared object and variables (list or just client or simplay int id) to temporary hold data coming from database or class library. This object is used temporarily to catch data and than to return, pass to some function or binding a control. 1st: Can this approach harm any way ? I couldn't analyze it but a thought was using such shared variables may replace data in it when multiple users may be sending request at a time? 2nd: Please comment also on using such variables in BLL (to hold data coming from DAL/database). In this example every time new object of BLL class will be made. Here is sample code: public class ClientManager { Client objclient = new Client(); //Used in 1st and 2nd method List<Client> clientlist = new List<Client>();// used in 3rd and 4th method ClientRepository objclientRep = new ClientRepository(); public List<Client> GetClients() { return clientlist = objclientRep.GetClients(); } public List<Client> SearchClients(string Keyword) { return clientlist = objclientRep.SearchClients(Keyword); } public Client GetaClient(int ClientId) { return objclient = objclientRep.GetaClient(ClientId); } public Client GetClientDetailForConfirmOrder(int UserId) { return objclientRep.GetClientDetailForConfirmOrder(UserId); } } I am really thankful to you for sparing time and paying kind attention.

    Read the article

  • How to specify allowed exceptions in WCF's configuration file?

    - by tucaz
    Hello! I´m building a set of WCF services for internal use through all our applications. For exception handling I created a default fault class so I can return treated message to the caller if its the case or a generic one when I have no clue what happened. Fault contract: [DataContract(Name = "DefaultFault", Namespace = "http://fnac.com.br/api/2010/03")] public class DefaultFault { public DefaultFault(DefaultFaultItem[] items) { if (items == null || items.Length== 0) { throw new ArgumentNullException("items"); } StringBuilder sbItems = new StringBuilder(); for (int i = 0; i Specifying that my method can throw this exception so the consuming client will be aware of it: [OperationContract(Name = "PlaceOrder")] [FaultContract(typeof(DefaultFault))] [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "/orders", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.Bare, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, Method = "POST")] string PlaceOrder(Order newOrder); Most of time we will use just .NET to .NET communication with usual binds and everything works fine since we are talking the same language. However, as you can see in the service contract declaration I have a WebInvoke attribute (and a webHttp binding) in order to be able to also talk JSON since one of our apps will be built for iPhone and this guy will talk JSON. My problem is that whenever I throw a FaultException and have includeExceptionDetails="false" in the config file the calling client will get a generic HTTP error instead of my custom message. I understand that this is the correct behavior when includeExceptionDetails is turned off, but I think I saw some configuration a long time ago to allow some exceptions/faults to pass through the service boundaries. Is there such thing like this? If not, what do u suggest for my case? Thanks a LOT!

    Read the article

  • Setting the height of a row in a JTable in java

    - by Douglas Grealis
    I have been searching for a solution to be able to increase the height of a row in a JTable. I have been using the setRowHeight(int int) method which compiles and runs OK, but no row[s] have been increased. When I use the getRowHeight(int) method of the row I set the height to, it does print out the size I increased the row to, so I'm not sure what is wrong. The code below is a rough illustration how I am trying to solve it. My class extends JFrame. String[] columnNames = {"Column 1", "Column 2", "Column 1 3"}; JTable table = new JTable(new DefaultTableModel(columnNames, people.size())); DefaultTableModel model = (DefaultTableModel) table.getModel(); int count =1; for(Person p: people) { model.insertRow(count,(new Object[]{count, p.getName(), p.getAge()+"", p.getNationality})); count++; } table.setRowHeight(1, 15);//Try set height to 15 (I've tried higher) Can anyone tell me where I am going wrong? I am trying to increase the height of row 1 to 15 pixels?

    Read the article

  • How should rules for Aggregate Roots be enforced?

    - by MylesRip
    While searching the web, I came across a list of rules from Eric Evans' book that should be enforced for aggregates: The root Entity has global identity and is ultimately responsible for checking invariants Root Entities have global identity. Entities inside the boundary have local identity, unique only within the Aggregate. Nothing outside the Aggregate boundary can hold a reference to anything inside, except to the root Entity. The root Entity can hand references to the internal Entities to other objects, but they can only use them transiently (within a single method or block). Only Aggregate Roots can be obtained directly with database queries. Everything else must be done through traversal. Objects within the Aggregate can hold references to other Aggregate roots. A delete operation must remove everything within the Aggregate boundary all at once When a change to any object within the Aggregate boundary is committed, all invariants of the whole Aggregate must be satisfied. This all seems fine in theory, but I don't see how these rules would be enforced in the real world. Take rule 3 for example. Once the root entity has given an exteral object a reference to an internal entity, what's to keep that external object from holding on to the reference beyond the single method or block? (If the enforcement of this is platform-specific, I would be interested in knowing how this would be enforced within a C#/.NET/NHibernate environment.)

    Read the article

  • How to render a POST and make it show up on another page

    - by stack5914
    I'm trying to create a marketplace website similar to craigslist. I created a form according to the Django tutorial "Working with forms", but I don't know how to render information I got from the POST forms. I want to make information(subject,price...etc) that I got from POST show up on another page like this. http://bakersfield.craigslist.org/atq/3375938126.html and, I want the "Subject"(please look at form.py) of this product(eg.1960 French Chair) to show up on another page like this. http://bakersfield.craigslist.org/ata/ } Can I get some advice to handle submitted information? Here's present codes. I'll appreciate all your answers and helps. <-! Here's my codes -- ?forms.py from django import forms class SellForm(forms.Form): subject = forms.CharField(max_length=100) price = forms.CharField(max_length=100) condition = forms.CharField(max_length=100) email = forms.EmailField() body = forms.TextField() ?views.py from django.shortcuts import render, render_to_response from django.http import HttpResponseRedirect from site1.forms import SellForm def sell(request): if request.method =="POST": form =SellForm(request.POST) if form.is_valid(): subject = form.cleaned_data['subject'] price = form.cleaned_data['price'] condition = form.cleaned_data['condition'] email = form.cleaned_data['email'] body = form.cleaned_data['body'] return HttpResponseRedirect('/books/') else: form=SellForm() render(request, 'sell.html',{'form':form,}) ?urls.py from django.conf.urls import patterns, include, url from django.contrib import admin admin.autodiscover() urlpatterns = patterns('', url(r'^sechand/$','site1.views.sell'), url(r'^admin/', include(admin.site.urls)), ) ?sell.html <form action = "/sell/" method = "post">{% csrf_token%} {{ form.as_p }} <input type = "submit" value="Submit" /> </form>

    Read the article

  • Wildcards vs. generic methods

    - by FredOverflow
    Is there any practical difference between the following approaches to print all elements in a range? public static void printA(Iterable<?> range) { for (Object o : range) { System.out.println(o); } } public static <T> void printB(Iterable<T> range) { for (T x : range) { System.out.println(x); } } Apparently, printB involves an additional checked cast to Object (see line 16), which seems rather stupid to me -- isn't everything an Object anyway? public static void printA(java.lang.Iterable); Code: 0: aload_0 1: invokeinterface #18, 1; //InterfaceMethod java/lang/Iterable.iterator:()Ljava/util/Iterator; 6: astore_2 7: goto 24 10: aload_2 11: invokeinterface #24, 1; //InterfaceMethod java/util/Iterator.next:()Ljava/lang/Object; 16: astore_1 17: getstatic #30; //Field java/lang/System.out:Ljava/io/PrintStream; 20: aload_1 21: invokevirtual #36; //Method java/io/PrintStream.println:(Ljava/lang/Object;)V 24: aload_2 25: invokeinterface #42, 1; //InterfaceMethod java/util/Iterator.hasNext:()Z 30: ifne 10 33: return public static void printB(java.lang.Iterable); Code: 0: aload_0 1: invokeinterface #18, 1; //InterfaceMethod java/lang/Iterable.iterator:()Ljava/util/Iterator; 6: astore_2 7: goto 27 10: aload_2 11: invokeinterface #24, 1; //InterfaceMethod java/util/Iterator.next:()Ljava/lang/Object; 16: checkcast #3; //class java/lang/Object 19: astore_1 20: getstatic #30; //Field java/lang/System.out:Ljava/io/PrintStream; 23: aload_1 24: invokevirtual #36; //Method java/io/PrintStream.println:(Ljava/lang/Object;)V 27: aload_2 28: invokeinterface #42, 1; //InterfaceMethod java/util/Iterator.hasNext:()Z 33: ifne 10 36: return

    Read the article

  • ScriptManager duplicates javascript

    - by Andreas
    Hi! I have a usercontrol that can be used in for example a gridview itemtemplate, this means that the control might or might not be on the page at page load. In the case where the control is inside an itemtemplate i will popupate the gridview via asyncronous postbacks (via updatepanels). The control itselfs registrers scriptblocks since it is depending on javascripts. First i used Page.ClientScript.RegistrerClientScriptBlock But this doesn't work on asyncronous postbacks (updatepanels) so i then tried the same using ScriptManager which allows me to registrer scripts on the page after async postbacks. great!. ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock However, ScriptManager (what i know of) does not have the functionallity to see if a script already is on the page, so i will for every postback generate duplicates of the script blocks, this is ofcourse unwanted behaviour. I did a run at Google and found that i can call the Dispose() method of the PageRequestManager can be used, this does work since it clears the scripts and then adding them again (this also solves my issue with removing unused script blocks from removed controls). Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager.getInstance().Dispose() However, ofcourse there is a downside since im posting here :). The Dispose() method disposes the instance on the master page as well which leads to scripts running there will stop to function after an async postback (updateprogress for example). So, is there a way to check if a script already exists on the page using ScriptManager or any other tools, that will prevent me of inserting duplicate scripts? Also, is there a way to remove certain script blocks (when i am removing an item in itemtemplate for example). Big thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Prog error: for replacing spaces with "%20"

    - by assasinC
    below is the prog i am compiling for replacing spaces with "%20" but when I run it output window shows blank and a message "arrays5.exe has occurred a prob" #include <iostream> #include<cstring> using namespace std; void method(char str[], int len) //replaces spaces with "%20" { int spaces, newlen,i; for (i=0;i<len;i++) if(str[i]==' ') spaces++; newlen=len+spaces*2; str[newlen]=0; for (i=len-1;i>=0;i--) { if(str[i]==' ') { str[newlen-1]='0'; str[newlen-2]='2'; str[newlen-3]='%'; newlen=newlen-3; } else { str[newlen-1]=str[i]; newlen=newlen-1; } } } int main() { char str[20]="sa h "; method(str,5); cout <<str<<endl; return 0; } Please help me finding the error.Thanks

    Read the article

  • How To Deal With Exceptions In Large Code Bases

    - by peter
    Hi All, I have a large C# code base. It seems quite buggy at times, and I was wondering if there is a quick way to improve finding and diagnosing issues that are occuring on client PCs. The most pressing issue is that exceptions occur in the software, are caught, and even reported through to me. The problem is that by the time they are caught the original cause of the exception is lost. I.e. If an exception was caught in a specific method, but that method calls 20 other methods, and those methods each call 20 other methods. You get the picture, a null reference exception is impossible to figure out, especially if it occured on a client machine. I have currently found some places where I think errors are more likely to occur and wrapped these directly in their own try catch blocks. Is that the only solution? I could be here a long time. I don't care that the exception will bring down the current process (it is just a thread anyway - not the main application), but I care that the exceptions come back and don't help with troubleshooting. Any ideas? I am well aware that I am probably asking a question which sounds silly, and may not have a straightforward answer. All the same some discussion would be good.

    Read the article

  • CCNet exception during build of vs2010 project

    - by sonee
    We have two build machines. Lately, we've migrated our projects to vs2010 from vs2005. But the problem is that one of the machines occurs error during build. Another machine works well, but just one machine shows error. The differences between the machines are os and computer spec. The machine which is working well is installed windows server 2003 and the other is windows7. the error message is unhandled exception: System.NullReferenceException: Microsoft.VisualStudio.Shell.ThreadHelper.InvokeOnUIThread(InvokableBase invokable) Microsoft.VisualStudio.Shell.ThreadHelper.Invoke(Action action)Microsoft.VisualStudio.Project.VS.Implementation.VSShellServices.InvokeOnUIThread(Action method) Microsoft.VisualStudio.Project.VisualC.VCProjectEngine.ApartmentMarshaler.Invoke(Action method) Microsoft.VisualStudio.Project.VisualC.VCProjectEngine.VCConfigBuildJob.BuildCompleted(BuildSubmission ar) Microsoft.VisualStudio.Project.Contracts.Implementation.BuildProjectBase.BuildCompletedCallbackManager.BuildCompleted(BuildSubmission buildSubmission) Microsoft.Build.Execution.BuildSubmission.<CheckForCompletion>b__0(Object state) System.Threading.QueueUserWorkItemCallback.WaitCallback_Context(Object state) System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state, Boolean ignoreSyncCtx) System.Threading.QueueUserWorkItemCallback.System.Threading.IThreadPoolWorkItem.ExecuteWorkItem() System.Threading.ThreadPoolWorkQueue.Dispatch() System.Threading._ThreadPoolWaitCallback.PerformWaitCallback() Curiously enough, when I run building project in command line on the machine which occurs error, it works well. The machine just shows error when launched by ccnet. I've installed latest version of ccnet to all machines. Is there anybody who faced like this problem?

    Read the article

  • What is the simplest way to implement multithreading in c# to existing code

    - by Kaeso
    I have already implemented a functionnal application that parses 26 pages of html all at once to produce an xml file with data contained on the web pages. I would need to implement a thread so that this method can work in the background without causing my app to seems unresponsive. Secondly, I have another function that is decoupled from the first one which compares two xml files to produce a third one and then transform this third xml file to produce an html page using XSLT. This would have to be on a thread, where I can click Cancel to stop the thread whithout crashing the app. What is the easiest best way to do this using WPF forms in VS 2010 ? I have chosen to use the BackgroundWorker. BackgroundWorker implementation: public partial class MainWindow : Window { private BackgroundWorker bw = new BackgroundWorker(); public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); bw.WorkerReportsProgress = true; bw.DoWork += new DoWorkEventHandler(bw_DoWork); bw.RunWorkerCompleted += new RunWorkerCompletedEventHandler(backgroundWorker1_RunWorkerCompleted); } private void Window_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { this.LoadFiles(); } private void btnCompare_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (bw.IsBusy != true) { progressBar2.IsIndeterminate = true; // Start the asynchronous operation. bw.RunWorkerAsync(); } } private void bw_DoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { StatsProcessor proc = new StatsProcessor(); if (lstStatsBox1.SelectedItem != null) if (lstStatsBox2.SelectedItem != null) proc.CompareStats(lstStatsBox1.SelectedItem.ToString(), lstStatsBox2.SelectedItem.ToString()); } private void backgroundWorker1_RunWorkerCompleted(object sender, RunWorkerCompletedEventArgs e) { progressBar2.IsIndeterminate = false; progressBar2.Value = 100; } I have started with the bgworker solution, but it seems that the bw_DoWork method is never called when btnCompare is clicked, I must be doing something wrong... I am new to threads.

    Read the article

  • .NET ValidationRule problem

    - by PaN1C_Showt1Me
    Hi ! I have a control with this validation <MyPicker.SelectedItem> <Binding Path="Person.Value" Mode="TwoWay" UpdateSourceTrigger="PropertyChanged" NotifyOnValidationError="True"> <Binding.ValidationRules> <rules:MyValidationRule ValidationType="notnull"/> </Binding.ValidationRules> </Binding> </MyPicker.SelectedItem> This is the Validation Class: class MyValidationRule : ValidationRule { private string _validationType; public string ValidationType { get { return _validationType; } set { _validationType = value; } } public override ValidationResult Validate(object value, CultureInfo cultureInfo) { ValidationResult trueResult = new ValidationResult(true, null); switch (_validationType.ToLower()) { case "notnull": return value == null ? new ValidationResult(false, "EMPTY FIELD") : trueResult; default: return trueResult; } } } Question: When the property is changed, then the Validate( ) method is called which is correct. But to call this method at the very beginning when the MyControl is created? I need to prove immediate after initialize if the there's a null value in the control (and display a validation error)

    Read the article

  • LinQ XML mapping to a generic type

    - by Manuel Navarro
    I´m trying to use an external XML file to map the output from a stored procedure into an instance of a class. The problem is that my class is of a generic type: public class MyValue<T> { public T Value { get; set; } } Searching through a lot of blogs an articles I've managed to get this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <Database Name="" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/linqtosql/mapping/2007"> <Table Name="MyValue" Member="MyNamespace.MyValue`1" > <Type Name="MyNamespace.MyValue`1"> <Column Name="Category" Member="Value" DbType="VarChar(100)" /> </Type> </Table> <Function Method="GetResourceCategories" Name="myprefix_GetResourceCategories" > <ElementType Name="MyNamespace.MyValue`1"/> </Function> </Database> The MyNamespace.MyValue`1 trick works fine, and the class is recognized. I expect four rows from the stored procedure, and I'm getting four MyValue<string> instances, but the big problem is that the property Value for the all four instances is null. The property is not getting mapped and I don't really get why. Maybe worth noting that the property Value is generic, and that when the mapping is done using attributes it works perfect. Anyone have a clue? BTW the method GetResourceCategories: public ISingleResult<MyValue<string>> GetResourceCategories() { IExecuteResult result = this.ExecuteMethodCall( this, (MethodInfo)MethodInfo.GetCurrentMethod()); return (ISingleResult<MyValue<string>>)result.ReturnValue; }

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 557 558 559 560 561 562 563 564 565 566 567 568  | Next Page >