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• Exclude category from main RSS feed, but not all feeds

  - by jamEs

  I've got a blog that supplies content to multiple MailChimp newsletters via RSS. The first newsletter works fine, but the second I'm having issues with. The issue I have is that the second newsletter has "hidden" content. This content isn't meant for wide consumption, so it doesn't appear on the frontpage, but is accessible elsewhere on the site. The snafu with this is that not all of this content is hidden, just some of it, while other pieces of content for this newsletter could overlap with the first newsletter. This obviously makes excluding everything problematic, as they could be assigned multiple categories, some of which I wouldn't want hidden. The issue I'm running into is that I have a way to exclude this content from the frontpage, but not from the main RSS feed. I'm using WP Hide Post for this, which allows me to exclude from feed, which in turn removes it from all feeds, including the ones that feed the newsletter. I'm currently using /feed?cat=XXX to reference these feeds. Is there a way to make it so category feeds still work, just the main /feed RSS would exclude it?

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• Django: Storing ordered, arbitrary references

  - by Sarah

  I'm new to Django, and I'm not sure what I want is possible: I have a number of items that I want each AppUser (extended User model) to be able to reference. That is, given an AppUser, I want to be able to extract its list of items in the way that AppUser has chosen to order them. In general, these items would actually be references to something else in the database, and this led me to one possible solution: Store the keys for the given objects in a CommaSeparatedIntegerField in AppUser. This way, a user could have stored {7, 3, 232, 42, 1} in their items field and both the references and their preferred order would be stored. However, this feels hacky. Since most db backends store CommaSeparatedIntegerField as a VARCHAR internally, the user is not only limited by a number of objects, but also the number of digits in their chosen items. Eg. "you may store 10 items if you choose items with itemID < 10, but only 5 items if 10 < itemID < 100". Is there a better way to do this?

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• How do I pass references as method parameters across AppDomains?

  - by Thiado de Arruda

  I have been trying to get the following code to work(everything is defined in the same assembly) : namespace SomeApp{ public class A : MarshalByRefObject { public byte[] GetSomeData() { // } } public class B : MarshalByRefObject { private A remoteObj; public void SetA(A remoteObj) { this.remoteObj = remoteObj; } } public class C { A someA = new A(); public void Init() { AppDomain domain = AppDomain.CreateDomain("ChildDomain"); string currentAssemblyPath = Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().Location; B remoteB = domain.domain.CreateInstanceFromAndUnwrap(currentAssemblyPath,"SomeApp.B") as B; remoteB.SetA(someA); // this throws an ArgumentException "Object type cannot be converted to target type." } } } What I'm trying to do is pass a reference of an 'A' instance created in the first AppDomain to the child domain and have the child domain execute a method on the first domain. In some point on 'B' code I'm going to call 'remoteObj.GetSomeData()'. This has to be done because the 'byte[]' from 'GetSomeData' method must be 'calculated' on the first appdomain. What should I do to avoid the exception, or what can I do to achieve the same result?

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• How can this Ambient Context become null?

  - by Mark Seemann

  Can anyone help me explain how TimeProvider.Current can become null in the following class? public abstract class TimeProvider { private static TimeProvider current = DefaultTimeProvider.Instance; public static TimeProvider Current { get { return TimeProvider.current; } set { if (value == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("value"); } TimeProvider.current = value; } } public abstract DateTime UtcNow { get; } public static void ResetToDefault() { TimeProvider.current = DefaultTimeProvider.Instance; } } Observations All unit tests that directly reference TimeProvider also invokes ResetToDefault() in their Fixture Teardown. There is no multithreaded code involved. Once in a while, one of the unit tests fail because TimeProvider.Current is null (NullReferenceException is thrown). This only happens when I run the entire suite, but not when I just run a single unit test, suggesting to me that there is some subtle test interdependence going on. It happens approximately once every five or six test runs. When a failure occurs, it seems to be occuring in the first executed tests that involves TimeProvider.Current. More than one test can fail, but only one fails in a given test run. FWIW, here's the DefaultTimeProvider class as well: public class DefaultTimeProvider : TimeProvider { private readonly static DefaultTimeProvider instance = new DefaultTimeProvider(); private DefaultTimeProvider() { } public override DateTime UtcNow { get { return DateTime.UtcNow; } } public static DefaultTimeProvider Instance { get { return DefaultTimeProvider.instance; } } } I suspect that there's some subtle interplay going on with static initialization where the runtime is actually allowed to access TimeProvider.Current before all static initialization has finished, but I can't quite put my finger on it. Any help is appreciated.

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• WCF operationcontract with List type unavailable in (Silverlight) client

  - by Dave

  This is the first time I have tried returning a List of data to a Silverlight client, so I'm having trouble getting the client to recognize this operationcontract. All others are fine. I have a method on the server called ReadOwFileData that needs to return a List. ReadOwFileDataCompletedEventArgs shows up in the Object Browser in the client, but not ReadOwFileDataAsync. What I want is similar to the tutorial here. The Dictionary collection type on the client is set to System.Collections.Generic.List. I tried deleting and recreating the service reference. Web.Config on the server is using basicHttpBinding. Here is the operationcontract on the server: [OperationContract] public List<OwFileData> ReadOwFileData(string OrderID) { DataClasses1DataContext db = new DataClasses1DataContext(); var dFileData = (from p in db.OwFileDatas where p.OrderID == OrderID select p).ToList(); List<OwFileData> x = new List<OwFileData>(dFileData); return x; } Incidently, this works fine: [OperationContract] public Customer GetShippingAndContactInfo(string login, string ordernum) { DataClasses1DataContext db = new DataClasses1DataContext(); Customer dInfo = (from p in db.Customers where p.Login == login select p).Single(); return dInfo; } I would like to read this data in the client and place it into an object I created called ObservableCollection. But that obviously can't happen until the client can see the method on the server. I do not know if this is an acceptable start, but this is what is on the client so far. The ReadOwFileDataAsync object is null: void populatefilesReceivedDataSource(string OrderID) { ArtUpload.ServiceReference1.UploadServiceClient client = new ArtUpload.ServiceReference1.UploadServiceClient(); var myList = client.ReadOwFileDataAsync(OrderID); // can I just itterate thru the list instead of 'binding' }

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• Mono Develop 2.4.1 + linq error.

  - by Nev_Rahd

  I just started to learn Mono Develop Installed Mono Develop 2.4.1 and trial version of Mono Touch. my Code: using System; using System.Xml.Linq; using System.Collections.Generic; namespace RSSReader { public static class RSSRepository { public static IList<FeedItem> GetFeeds(string url) { XDocument rssFeed = XDocument.Load(url); Console.Write(rssFeed.ToString()); var feeds = new List<FeedItem>(); try { var query = from item in rssFeed.Descendants("item") select new FeedItem { Title = item.Element("title").Value, Published = DateTime.Parse(item.Element("pubDate").Value), Url = item.Element("link").Value }; feeds = query.ToList(); } catch (Exception ex){ Console.WriteLine(ex.Message); } return feeds; } } } This is throwing an error: An implementation of 'select' query expression pattern could not be found. Are you missing 'System.linq' using directive or 'System.Core.dll' assembly reference? I got both references to System.Xml.Linq and System.Core What am i missing ?

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• Question about array subscripting in C#

  - by Michael J

  Back in the old days of C, one could use array subscripting to address storage in very useful ways. For example, one could declare an array as such. This array represents an EEPROM image with 8 bit words. BYTE eepromImage[1024] = { ... }; And later refer to that array as if it were really multi-dimensional storage BYTE mpuImage[2][512] = eepromImage; I'm sure I have the syntax wrong, but I hope you get the idea. Anyway, this projected a two dimension image of what is really single dimensional storage. The two dimensional projection represents the EEPROM image when loaded into the memory of an MPU with 16 bit words. In C one could reference the storage multi-dimensionaly and change values and the changed values would show up in the real (single dimension) storage almost as if by magic. Is it possible to do this same thing using C#? Our current solution uses multiple arrays and event handlers to keep things synchronized. This kind of works but it is additional complexity that we would like to avoid if there is a better way.

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• Configuration Error , Finding assembly after I swapped referenced dll out. Visual Studio 2003

  - by TampaRich

  Here is the situation. I had a clean build of my asp.net web application working. I then went into the bin folder under the web app and replaced two referenced dll's with two older version of the same dll's. (Same name etc.) After testing I replaced those dll's back to the new ones and now my application keeps throwing the configuration error === Pre-bind state information === LOG: DisplayName = xxxxx.xxxx.Personalization (Partial) LOG: Appbase = file:///c:/inetpub/wwwroot/appname LOG: Initial PrivatePath = bin Calling assembly : (Unknown). LOG: Policy not being applied to reference at this time (private, custom, partial, or location-based assembly bind). I found this issue on the web and tried all the solutions to it but nothing worked. I then went into all my projects that it references under the solution and cleared out the bin/debug folder in each, I cleared out the obj folder under each and also deleted the temporary files associated with the application. I rebuilt it and it still will not work due to this error Not sure what is causing this or how to fix this issue. I have tried restarting IIS, stopping index services which was said to be a known issue. This is .net framework 1.1 app and visual studio 2003 Any suggestions would be great. Thanks.

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• Image does not update when file name remains the same in XCode 3.1.2

  - by vman049

  Hi Everyone, I'm using XCode version 3.1.2 and am developing for iPhone using the Simulator with iOS 2.2.1 on Leopard. I had an image file named "img.jpg" in my project which I decided to switch for a different file. After adding the new file into the XCode Resources folder, I removed the first file and renamed the new file to the same name as the previous one, "img.jpg." When I run my program, however, the Simulator loads the old image instead of the new one, even though the old one has been deleted from disk (not just the reference). I tried changing the name of the file to "img2.jpg," and it worked like it should - loading the new image, but I want to keep the name "img.jpg." I ran a search with Spotlight for "img.jpg" to see if there was another copy stored somewhere that XCode was using, but it only returned my new image file. I have tried uninstalling the app from the Simulator and running the application again, but that also does not fix the problem. What must I do for XCode to recognize that I want to use the new image file and not the old one? Thanks for your help!!

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• Sys. engineer has decided to dynamically transform all XSLs into DLLs on website build process. DLL

  - by John Sullivan

  Hello, OS: Win XP. Here is my situation. I have a browser based application. It is "wrapped" in a Visual Basic application. Our "Systems Engineer Senior" has decided to spawn DLL files from all of our XSL pages (many of which have duplicate names) upon building a new instance of the website and have the active server pages (ASPX) use the DLL instead. This has created a "known issue" in which ~200 DLL naming conflicts occur and, thus, half of our application is broken. I think a solution to this problem is that, thankfully, we're generating the names of the DLLs and linking them up with our application dynamically. Therefore we can do something kludgy like generate a hash and append it to the end of the DLL file name when we build our website, then always reference the DLL that had some kind of random string / hash appended to its name. Aside from outright renaming the DLLs, is there another way to have multiple DLLs with the same name register for one application? I think the answer is "No, only between different applications using a special technique." Please confirm. Another question I have on my mind is whether this whole idea is a good practice -- converting our XSL pages (which we use in mass -- every time a response from our web app occurs) into DLL functions that call a "function" to do what the XSL page did via an active server page (ASPX), when we were before just sending an XML response to an XSL page via aspx.

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• Accessing my own datalayer using RIA & Silverlight

  - by Norsten

  Is it possible for me to connect to my own data provide via WCF RIA services? I've created a small datalayer that connnects to DynamicAX datasource. I would like to use Silverlight 4 & RIA service to access that datalayer. At it's most basic -I've done the following... 1) I've added an empty domainclass to the webproject and in that class I created a simple method to return a string... [EnableClientAccess()] public class ProjectService : DomainService { public string TestViaRIA() { return "Hello!"; } } 2) I then added reference to the web project in my silvelight class and created a bit of code to try and invoke the method... using ProjectApp.Web; namespace ProjectApp.Views { public partial class ProjectControl : UserControl { public ProjectControl() { InitializeComponent(); ProjectContext ctx = new ProjectContext(); var x = ctx.TestViaRIA(); testTextBox.Text = x.ToString(); } } } the returned value is "{System.ServiceModel.DomainServices.Client.InvokeOperation}". I'm obviously doing something wrong here and I would appreciate some guidance on how I can achive this. Thanks in advance

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• XML Reader threw Object Null exception, but node exists(?!)

  - by Capt.Morgan

  I am hoping someone could enlighten me as to why I am getting the annoying - "xml object reference not set to an instance .." error. The elements (nodes?) I am looking for seem to exist and I have not misspelled it either :[ I might be doing something stupid here, but any help at all would be greatly appreciated. My Code: private void button1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { XmlDocument reader = new XmlDocument(); reader.Load("Kotaku - powered by FeedBurner.xml"); XmlNodeList titles = reader.GetElementsByTagName("title"); XmlNodeList dates = reader.GetElementsByTagName("pubDate"); XmlNodeList descriptions = reader.GetElementsByTagName("description"); XmlNodeList links = reader.GetElementsByTagName("link"); for (int i = 0; i < titles.Count; i++) { textBox1.AppendText(Environment.NewLine + titles[i].InnerText); textBox1.AppendText(Environment.NewLine + descriptions[i].InnerText); //<<-- Throws Object Ref Null Exception textBox1.AppendText(Environment.NewLine + links[i].InnerText); textBox1.AppendText(Environment.NewLine + dates[i].InnerText); //<<-- Throws Object Ref Null Exception } } The XML I am using is a saved XML page from: http://feeds.gawker.com/kotaku/full The way I am working on it now is as follows: I have saved the page from the above link (which is an XML page) and put it next to my EXE for easier access. Then I run the code.

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• How can I pass a hash to a Perl subroutine?

  - by Vishalrix

  In one of my main( or primary) routines,I have two or more hashes. I want the subroutine foo() to recieve these possibly-multiple hashes as distinct hashes. Right now I have no preference if they go by value, or as references. I am struggling with this for the last many hours and would appreciate help, so that I dont have to leave perl for php! ( I am using mod_perl, or will be) Right now I have got some answer to my requirement, shown here From http://forums.gentoo.org/viewtopic-t-803720-start-0.html # sub: dump the hash values with the keys '1' and '3' sub dumpvals { foreach $h (@_) { print "1: $h->{1} 3: $h->{3}\n"; } } # initialize an array of anonymous hash references @arr = ({1,2,3,4}, {1,7,3,8}); # create a new hash and add the reference to the array $t{1} = 5; $t{3} = 6; push @arr, \%t; # call the sub dumpvals(@arr); I only want to extend it so that in dumpvals I could do something like this: foreach my %k ( keys @_[0]) { # use $k and @_[0], and others } The syntax is wrong, but I suppose you can tell that I am trying to get the keys of the first hash ( hash1 or h1), and iterate over them. How to do it in the latter code snippet above?

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• How to structure code with 2 methods, one after another, which throw the same two exceptions?

  - by dotnetdev

  Hi, I have two methods, one called straight after another, which both throw the exact same 2 exceptions (IF an erroneous condition occurs, not stating that I'm getting exceptions). For this, should I write seperate try and catch blocks with the one statement in each try block and catch both exceptions (Both of which I can handle as I checked MSDN class library reference and there is something I can do, eg, re-open SqlConnection or run a query and not a stored proc which does not exist). So code like this: try { obj.Open(); } catch (SqlException) { // Take action here. } catch (InvalidOperationException) { // Take action here. } And likewise for the other method I call straight after. This seems like a very messy way of coding. The other way is to code with the exception variable (that is ommited as I am using AOP to log the exception details, using a class-level attribute). Doing this, this could aid me in finding out which method caused an exception and then taking action accordingly. Is this the best approach or is there another best practise altogether? I also assume that, as only these two methods are thrown, I do not need to catch Exception as that would be for an exception I cannot handle (causes way out of my control). Thanks

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• Need help optimizing this Django aggregate query

  - by Chris Lawlor

  I have the following model class Plugin(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=50) # more fields which represents a plugin that can be downloaded from my site. To track downloads, I have class Download(models.Model): plugin = models.ForiegnKey(Plugin) timestamp = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True) So to build a view showing plugins sorted by downloads, I have the following query: # pbd is plugins by download - commented here to prevent scrolling pbd = Plugin.objects.annotate(dl_total=Count('download')).order_by('-dl_total') Which works, but is very slow. With only 1,000 plugins, the avg. response is 3.6 - 3.9 seconds (devserver with local PostgreSQL db), where a similar view with a much simpler query (sorting by plugin release date) takes 160 ms or so. I'm looking for suggestions on how to optimize this query. I'd really prefer that the query return Plugin objects (as opposed to using values) since I'm sharing the same template for the other views (Plugins by rating, Plugins by release date, etc.), so the template is expecting Plugin objects - plus I'm not sure how I would get things like the absolute_url without a reference to the plugin object. Or, is my whole approach doomed to failure? Is there a better way to track downloads? I ultimately want to provide users some nice download statistics for the plugins they've uploaded - like downloads per day/week/month. Will I have to calculate and cache Downloads at some point? EDIT: In my test dataset, there are somewhere between 10-20 Download instances per Plugin - in production I expect this number would be much higher for many of the plugins.

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• Doctrine YAML not generating correctly? Or is this markup wrong?

  - by ropstah

  I'm trying to get a many-to-many relationship between Users and Settings. The models seem to be generated correctly, however the following query fails: "User_Setting" with an alias of "us" in your query does not reference the parent component it is related to. $q = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $q->select('{s.*}, {us.*}') ->from('User u CROSS JOIN Setting s LEFT JOIN User_Setting us ON us.usr_auto_key = u.usr_auto_key AND us.set_auto_key = s.set_auto_key') ->addComponent('s', 'Setting s INDEXBY s.set_auto_key') ->addComponent('us', 'User_Setting us') ->where(u.usr_auto_key = ?',$this->usr_auto_key); $this->settings = $q->execute(); Does anyone spot a problem? This is my YAML: User: connection: default tableName: User columns: usr_auto_key: type: integer(4) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: true autoincrement: true notnull: true email: type: string(100) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: false default: '' notnull: true autoincrement: false password: type: string(32) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: false default: '' notnull: true autoincrement: false relations: Setting: class: Setting foreignAlias: User refClass: User_Setting local: usr_auto_key foreign: set_auto_key Setting: connection: default tableName: Setting columns: set_auto_key: type: integer(4) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: true autoincrement: true notnull: true name: type: string(50) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: false notnull: true autoincrement: false User_Setting: connection: default tableName: User_Setting columns: usr_auto_key: type: integer(4) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: true autoincrement: false notnull: true set_auto_key: type: integer(4) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: true autoincrement: false notnull: true value: type: string(255) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: false notnull: true autoincrement: false relations: Setting: foreignAlias: User_Setting local: set_auto_key foreign: set_auto_key User: foreignAlias: User_Setting local: usr_auto_key foreign: usr_auto_key

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• Can a member struct be zero-init from the constructor initializer list without calling memset?

  - by selbie

  Let's say I have the following structure declaration (simple struct with no constructor). struct Foo { int x; int y; int z; char szData[DATA_SIZE]; }; Now let's say this struct is a member of a C++ class as follows: class CFoobar { Foo _foo; public: CFoobar(); }; If I declare CFoobar's constructor as follows: CFoobar::CFoobar() { printf("_foo = {%d, %d, %d}\n", _foo.x, _foo.y,_foo.z); for (int x = 0; x < 100; x++) printf("%d\n", _foo.szData[x]); } As you would expect, when CFoobar's constructor runs, garbage data gets printed out Obviously, the easy fix is to memset or ZeroMemory &_foo. It's what I've always done... However, I did notice that if add _foo to the constructor's initialization list with no parameters as follows: CFoobar::CFoobar() : _foo() { That this appears to zero-out the member variables of _foo. At least that was the case with g++ on linux. Now here's my question: Is this standard C++, or is this compiler specific behavior? If it's standard behavior, can someone quote me a reference from an official source? Any "gotchas" in regards to implicit zero-init behavior with more complicated structs and classes?

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• How do I call a variable from another class?

  - by squeezemylime

  I have a class called 'Constants' that I am storing a String variable in. This class contains a few global variables used in my app. I want to be able to reference this class and call the variable (called profileId) in other Views of my app. I looked around and found a few examples, but am not sure how to do this. Currently my setup is: Constants.h @interface Constants : UIViewController { NSString *profileId; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *profileId; @end Constants.m #import "Constants.h" @implementation Constants @synthesize profileId; - (void)dealloc { [profileId release]; [super dealloc]; } And I am trying to call the variable profileId in a new View via this way: NewView.h file @class Constants; NewView.m file NSLog(@"ProfileId is:", [myConstants profileId]); Is there something I'm missing? It is coming up null, even though I am properly storing a value in it in another function via this way: Constants *Constant; Constant = [[Constants alloc] init]; Constant.profileId = userId;

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• Referencing java resource files for cold fusion

  - by Chimeara

  I am using a .Jar file containing a .properties file in my CF code, however it seems unable to find the .properties file when run from CF. My java code is: String key =""; String value =""; try { File file = new File("src/test.properties"); FileInputStream fileInput = new FileInputStream(file); Properties properties = new Properties(); properties.load(fileInput); fileInput.close(); Enumeration enuKeys = properties.keys(); while (enuKeys.hasMoreElements()) { key = (String) enuKeys.nextElement(); value = properties.getProperty(key); //System.out.println(key + ": " + value); } } catch (FileNotFoundException e) { e.printStackTrace(); key ="error"; } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); key ="error"; } return(key + ": " + value); I have my test.properties file in the project src folder, and make sure it is selected when compiling, when run from eclipse it gives the expected key and value, however when run from CF I get the caught errors. My CF code is simply: propTest = CreateObject("java","package.class"); testResults = propTest.main2(); Is there a special way to reference the .properties file so CF can access it, or do I need to include the file outside the .jar somewhere?

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• i not find how in powershell pass through http autentification then use a webservices (lotus/domino)

  - by user1716616

  We have here a domino/lotus webservices i want use with powershell. probleme is in front of webservices lotus admin ask a http autentification. how i can use this webservice?? here what i tryed first scrap the first page and get cookie. $url = "http://xxxxxxx/names.nsf?Login" $CookieContainer = New-Object System.Net.CookieContainer $postData = "Username=web.services&Password=jesuisunestar" $buffer = [text.encoding]::ascii.getbytes($postData) [net.httpWebRequest] $req = [net.webRequest]::create($url) $req.method = "POST" $req.Accept = "text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8" $req.Headers.Add("Accept-Language: en-US") $req.Headers.Add("Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate") $req.Headers.Add("Accept-Charset: ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7") $req.AllowAutoRedirect = $false $req.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded" $req.ContentLength = $buffer.length $req.TimeOut = 50000 $req.KeepAlive = $true $req.Headers.Add("Keep-Alive: 300"); $req.CookieContainer = $CookieContainer $reqst = $req.getRequestStream() $reqst.write($buffer, 0, $buffer.length) $reqst.flush() $reqst.close() [net.httpWebResponse] $res = $req.getResponse() $resst = $res.getResponseStream() $sr = new-object IO.StreamReader($resst) $result = $sr.ReadToEnd() this seem work but now no idea how i can use cookie with a webservicesproxy??? ps: i success have this to work with c# + visualstudio (just the class reference is autobuilt and i don't understand half of this but it allow me to use .CookieContenaire on the generated webservice )

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• wget not completely processing the http call

  - by user578458

  Here is a wget command that executes a HTML / PHP stack report suite that is hosted by a third party - we don't have control over the PHP or HTML page wget --no-check-certificate --http-user=/myacc --http-password=mypass -O /tmp/myoutput.csv "https://myserver.mydomain.com/mymodule.php?myrepcode=9999&action=exportcsv&admin=myappuserid&password=myappuserpass&startdate=2011-01-16&enddate=2011-01-16&reportby=mypreferredview" All the elements are working perfectly: --http-user / --http-pass as offered by a browsers standard popup for username and password prompt -O /tmp/myoutput.csv - the output file of interest https://myserver.mydomain.com/mymodule.php?myrepcode=9999&action=exportcsv&admin=myappuserid&password=myappuserpass&startdate=2011-01-16&enddate=2011-01-16&reportby=mypreferredview" The file generated on the fly by the parameters myrepcode=9999 - a reference to the report in question action=exportcsv internally written in the function admin=myappuserid the third party operats SSL to access the site - then internal username and password stored in a database to access the functions of the site) password=myappuserpass startdate=2011-01-16 this and end data are parameters specific to the report 9999 enddate=2011-01-16 reportby=mypreferredview This is an option in the report that facilitates different levels of detail or aggregation The problem is that the reportby parameter is a radio button selection in a list of 5 selections (sure I enough the default is highest level of aggregation , I want the last one which is the most detailed) Here is a sample of the HTML page code for the options of reportby View by The Default My Least Preferred My Second Least Preferred My Third Least Preferred My Preferred No matter which of the reportby items I select in the wget statement - thedefault is always executed. Questions 1) Has anyone come across this notation in HTML (id=inputname[inputelement]) I spoke to a senior web developer and he has never seen this notation for inputs (id=inputname[inputelement]) - and w3schools do not appear familiar with this either based on an extensive search 2) Can a wget command select a none default radio item when executing the command ? This probably will be initially received with a "Use CURL" response- however the wget approach works very well in the limited environment I am operating in - particularly as I need to download 10000 of these such items. Thanks ahead of response

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• Nested bind expressions

  - by user328543

  This is a followup question to my previous question. #include <functional> int foo(void) {return 2;} class bar { public: int operator() (void) {return 3;}; int something(int a) {return a;}; }; template <class C> auto func(C&& c) -> decltype(c()) { return c(); } template <class C> int doit(C&& c) { return c();} template <class C> void func_wrapper(C&& c) { func( std::bind(doit<C>, std::forward<C>(c)) ); } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { // call with a function pointer func(foo); func_wrapper(foo); // error // call with a member function bar b; func(b); func_wrapper(b); // call with a bind expression func(std::bind(&bar::something, b, 42)); func_wrapper(std::bind(&bar::something, b, 42)); // error // call with a lambda expression func( [](void)->int {return 42;} ); func_wrapper( [](void)->int {return 42;} ); return 0; } I'm getting a compile errors deep in the C++ headers: functional:1137: error: invalid initialization of reference of type ‘int (&)()’ from expression of type ‘int (*)()’ functional:1137: error: conversion from ‘int’ to non-scalar type ‘std::_Bind(bar, int)’ requested func_wrapper(foo) is supposed to execute func(doit(foo)). In the real code it packages the function for a thread to execute. func would the function executed by the other thread, doit sits in between to check for unhandled exceptions and to clean up. But the additional bind in func_wrapper messes things up...

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• Finding out inside which iframe a script is executing

  - by juandopazo

  I have a page with several iframes. One of this iframes has a page from a different domain. Inside this iframe there's another iframe with a page from the parent domain. my page from mydomain.com -> an iframe -> iframe "#foo" from another-domain.com> -> iframe "#bar" from mydomain.com -> another iframe I need to get a reference to the "#foo" node inside the main page. The security model should allow me to do that because "#bar" has the same domain as the main page. So what I'm doing is iterating through the window.top array and comparing each element to the window object which is currently the "#bar" window object. My test code looks like: for (var i = 0; i < top.length; i++) { for (var j = 0; j < top[i].length; j++) { if (top[i][j] == window) { alert("The iframe number " + i + " contains me"); } } } This works fine in all browsers, but Internet Explorer 6 throws a security error when accesing top[i][j]. Any ideas on how to solve this on IE6? Thanks!

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• How to make 2 incompatible types, but with the same members, interchangeable?

  - by Quigrim

  Yesterday 2 of the guys on our team came to me with an uncommon problem. We are using a third-party component in one of our winforms applications. All the code has already been written against it. They then wanted to incorporate another third-party component, by the same vender, into our application. To their delight they found that the second component had the exact same public members as the first. But to their dismay, the 2 components have completely separate inheritance hierarchies, and implement no common interfaces. Makes you wonder... Well, makes me wonder. An example of the problem: public class ThirdPartyClass1 { public string Name { get { return "ThirdPartyClass1"; } } public void DoThirdPartyStuff () { Console.WriteLine ("ThirdPartyClass1 is doing its thing."); } } public class ThirdPartyClass2 { public string Name { get { return "ThirdPartyClass2"; } } public void DoThirdPartyStuff () { Console.WriteLine ("ThirdPartyClass2 is doing its thing."); } } Gladly they felt copying and pasting the code they wrote for the first component was not the correct answer. So they were thinking of assigning the component instant into an object reference and then modifying the code to do conditional casts after checking what type it was. But that is arguably even uglier than the copy and paste approach. So they then asked me if I can write some reflection code to access the properties and call the methods off the two different object types since we know what they are, and they are exactly the same. But my first thought was that there goes the elegance. I figure there has to be a better, graceful solution to this problem.

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• Detecting what the target object is when NullReferenceException is thrown.

  - by StingyJack

  I'm sure we all have received the wonderfully vague "Object reference not set to instance of an Object" exception at some time or another. Identifying the object that is the problem is often a tedious task of setting breakpoints and inspecting all members in each statement. Does anyone have any tricks to easily and efficiently identify the object that causes the exception, either via programmatical means or otherwise? --edit It seems I was vague like the exception =). The point is to _not have to debug the app to find the errant object. The compiler/runtime does know that the object has been allocated, and that the object has not yet been instantiated. Is there a way to extract / identify those details in a caught exception @ W. Craig Trader Your explanation that it is a result of a design problem is probably the best answer I could get. I am fairly compulsive with defensive coding and have managed to get rid of most of these errors after fixing my habits over time. The remaining ones just tweak me to no end, and lead me to posting this question to the community. Thanks for everyone's suggestions.

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