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  • (EXCEL)VBA Spin button which steps through in an sql databases date time

    - by Gulredy
    I have an sql Database table in MySQL which have lots of rows with varied date time values. For example: 2012-08-21 10:10:00 <-- with these date there are around 12 rows 2012-08-21 15:31:00 <-- with these date there are around 5 rows 2012-08-22 11:40:00 <-- with these date there are around 10 rows 2012-08-22 12:17:00 <-- with these date there are around 9 rows 2012-08-22 12:18:00 <-- with these date there are around 7 rows 2012-08-25 07:21:00 <-- with these date there are around 6 rows If the user clicks on the SpinButton1_SpinUp() or SpinButton1_SpinDown() button then it should do the following: The SpinButton1_SpinUp() button should filter out those data from an sql table which is the next after what we are currently on now. Example: We have currently selected: 2012-08-21 15:31:00. The user hits the SpinUp button then the program selects those date from the database, which is the next higher value like this one: 2012-08-22 11:40:00. So the user hits the SpinUp button the data which is selected in the database will change from those with date: 2012-08-21 15:31:00 to those with date: 2012-08-22 11:40:00 The SpinButton1_SpinDown() will do exactly the reverse of the SpinUp button. When the user hits the SpinDown button the data which is selected in the database will change from those with date: 2012-08-21 15:31:00 to those with date 2012-08-21 10:10:00 So I think the date which we are currently on, should be stored in a variable. But on button hit not every bigger or lower data should be selected in the database, only those which are the closest bigger or the closest lower date. How can I do this? I hope I described my problem understandable. My native language is not english, so misunderstandings can occur! Please ask if you don't understand something! Thank you for reading!

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  • How to make comment reply query in MYSQL?

    - by Prashant
    I am having comment reply (only till one level) functionality. All comments can have as many as replies but no replies can have their further replies. So my database table structure is like below Id ParentId Comment 1 0 this is come sample comment text 2 0 this is come sample comment text 3 0 this is come sample comment text 4 1 this is come sample comment text 5 0 this is come sample comment text 6 3 this is come sample comment text 7 1 this is come sample comment text In the above structures, commentid, 1 (has 2 replies) and 3 (1 reply) has replies. So to fetch the comments and their replies, one simple method is first I fetch all the comments having ParentId as 0 and then by running a while loop fetch all the replies of that particular commentId. But that seems to be running hundreds of queries if I'll have around 200 comments on a particular record. So I want to make a query which will fetch Comments with their replies sequentially as following; Id ParentId Comment 1 0 this is come sample comment text 4 1 this is come sample comment text 7 1 this is come sample comment text 2 0 this is come sample comment text 3 0 this is come sample comment text 6 3 this is come sample comment text 5 0 this is come sample comment text I also have a comment date column in my comment table, if anyone wants to use this with comment query. So finally I want to fetch all the comments and their replies by using one single mysql query. Please tell me how I can do that? Thanks

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  • Jquery validations on form with no fields

    - by jcovert
    I have a table (in a form) populated with radio buttons (with a button for each value in a collection). If the collection is empty, nothing shows up in the table (which is fine). (I'm using Struts2) My trouble comes when validating that the user has selected one of these radio buttons when the submit button is clicked. I'm using JQUERY validations, and it works quite well UNLESS there are no radio buttons to select (collection is empty). $('#startProcessForm').validate({ rules: { selectedProcess: { required: true } }, messages: { selectedProcess: "Please select a process to start." } }); If the list IS empty, then there are no fields (radio button or otherwise) named "selectedProcess". So my question is this: How can I make "selectedProcess" exist AND fail the 'required:true' validation if there's nothing in the collection? I was thinking I could create an empty tag of the same name (selectedProcess) if the collection is empty? Here's what I'd guess would work but doesn't seem to: <s:if test="processes != null && !processes.isEmpty()"> <s:iterator value="processes" status="processesStatus"> <tr> <td><s:radio name="selectedProcess" list="{name}"></s:radio></td> </tr> </s:iterator> </s:if> <s:else> <tr> <td><a name="selectedProcess"></a></td> </tr> </s:else> Thanks!

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  • Entity Framework self referencing entity deletion.

    - by Viktor
    Hello. I have a structure of folders like this: Folder1 Folder1.1 Folder1.2 Folder2 Folder2.1 Folder2.1.1 and so on.. The question is how to cascade delete them(i.e. when remove folder2 all children are also deleted). I can't set an ON DELETE action because MSSQL does not allow it. Can you give some suggesions? UPDATE: I wrote this stored proc, can I just leave it or it needs some modifications? SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO CREATE PROCEDURE sp_DeleteFoldersRecursive @parent_folder_id int AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; IF @parent_folder_id = 0 RETURN; CREATE TABLE #temp(fid INT ); DECLARE @Count INT; INSERT INTO #temp(fid) SELECT FolderId FROM Folders WHERE FolderId = @parent_folder_id; SET @Count = @@ROWCOUNT; WHILE @Count > 0 BEGIN INSERT INTO #temp(fid) SELECT FolderId FROM Folders WHERE EXISTS (SELECT FolderId FROM #temp WHERE Folders.ParentId = #temp.fid) AND NOT EXISTS (SELECT FolderId FROM #temp WHERE Folders.FolderId = #temp.fid); SET @Count = @@ROWCOUNT; END DELETE Folders FROM Folders INNER JOIN #temp ON Folders.FolderId = #temp.fid; DROP TABLE #temp; END GO

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  • Where do Java Applets live?

    - by Wendi Peters
    I'm trying to figure out where java Applets that I run from the browser live. I'm using Firefox 3.0 on Windows XP with Java 1.6 if that makes any difference. From the Java Control Panel on the toolbar, I can access "Temporary Internet Files - Settings" to find the Java cache. From there I can show the resources and see a file called "dws2010066.dat". Does this resource correspond to a file on disk? I did a search in the Java cache/my whole computer and came up empty handed.

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  • php: showing my country based on my IP, mysql optimized

    - by andufo
    I'm downloaded WIPmania's worldip table from http://www.wipmania.com/en/base/ -- the table has 3 fields and around 79k rows: startip // example: 3363110912 endip // example: 3363112063 country // example: AR (Argentina) So, lets suppose i'm in Argentina and my IP address is: 200.117.248.17 1) I use this function to convert my ip to long function ip_address_to_number($ip) { if(!$ip) { return false; } else { $ip = split('\.',$ip); return($ip[0]*16777216 + $ip[1]*65536 + $ip[2]*256 + $ip[3]); } } 2) I search for the proper country code by matching the long converted ip: $sql = 'SELECT * FROM worldip WHERE '.ip_address_to_number($_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR']).' BETWEEN startip AND endip'; which is equivalent to: SELECT country FROM worldip WHERE 3363174417 BETWEEN startip AND endip (benchmark: Showing rows 0 - 0 (1 total, Query took 0.2109 sec)) Now comes the real question. What if another bunch of argentinian guys also open the website and they all have these ip addresses: 200.117.248.17 200.117.233.10 200.117.241.88 200.117.159.24 Since i'm caching all the sql queries; instead of matching EACH of the ip queries in the database, would it be better (and right) just to match the 2 first sections of the ip by modifying the function like this? function ip_address_to_number($ip) { if(!$ip) { return false; } else { $ip = split('\.',$ip); return($ip[0]*16777216 + $ip[1]*65536); } } (notice that the 3rd and 4th splitted values of the IP have been removed). That way instead of querying these 4 values: 3363174417 3363170570 3363172696 3363151640 ...all i have to query is: 3363110912 (which is 200.117.0.0 converted to long). Is this right? any other ideas to optimize this process? Thanks!

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  • Understanding evaluation of expressions containing '++' and '->' operators in C.

    - by Leif Ericson
    Consider this example: struct { int num; } s, *ps; s.num = 0; ps = &s; ++ps->num; printf("%d", s.num); /* Prints 1 */ It prints 1. So I understand that it is because according to operators precedence, -> is higher than ++, so the value ps->num (which is 0) is firstly fetched and then the ++ operator operates on it, so it increments it to 1. struct { int num; } s, *ps; s.num = 0; ps = &s; ps++->num; printf("%d", s.num); /* Prints 0 */ In this example I get 0 and I don't understand why; the explanation of the first example should be the same for this example. But it seems that this expression is evaluated as follows: At first, the operator ++ operates, and it operates on ps, so it increments it to the next struct. Only then -> operates and it does nothing because it just fetches the num field of the next struct and does nothing with it. But it contradicts the precedence of operators, which says that -> have higher precedence than ++. Can someone explain this behavior? Edit: After reading two answers which refer to a C++ precedence tables which indicate that a prefix ++/-- operators have lower precedence than ->, I did some googling and came up with this link that states that this rule applies also to C itself. It fits exactly and fully explains this behavior, but I must add that the table in this link contradicts a table in my own copy of K&R ANSI C. So if you have suggestions as to which source is correct I would like to know. Thanks.

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  • Tuples of unknown size/parameter types

    - by myahya
    I need to create a map, from integers to sets of tuples, the tuples in a single set have the same size. The problem is that the size of a tuple and its parameter types can be determined at runtime, not compile time. I am imagining something like: std::map<int, std::set<boost::tuple> > but not exctly sure how to exactly do this, bossibly using pointers. The purpose of this is to create temporary relations (tables), each with a unique identifier (key), maybe you have another approach.

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  • Asp.net web forms, Asp Identity - how to store claims from Facebook, Twitter, etc

    - by user2959352
    This request is based upon the new Visual Studio 2013 integration of Asp.net Identity stuff. I have seen some of the posts regarding this question for MVC, but for the life of me cannot get it to work for standard Web Forms. What I'm trying to do is populate the AspNetUserClaims table from the claims that I get back from Facebook (or other service). I actually can see the values coming back in the OnAuthenticated below, but cannot for the life of me figure out how to add these claims to the context of the currently logged in user? There are literally hundreds of MVC examples surrounding this, but alas no Web Forms examples. This should be completely straightforward, but for some reason I cannot match up the context of the currently logged in user to the claims and credentials coming back from Facebook. Currently after the OnAuthenticated fires, it obviously returns me to the page (RegisterExternalLogin.aspx) as the built-in example provides. However, the claims are gone, the context of the login to Facebook is gone, and I can't do anything else at this point. So the ultimate question is, HOW does one populate the claims FROM Facebook into the AspNetUserClaims table based upon the context of the currently logged in user WITHOUT using MVC? var fboptions = new FacebookAuthenticationOptions(); fboptions.AppId = "xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx"; fboptions.AppSecret = "yyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyy"; fboptions.Scope.Add("email"); fboptions.Scope.Add("friends_about_me"); fboptions.Scope.Add("friends_photos"); fboptions.Provider = new FacebookAuthenticationProvider() { OnAuthenticated = (context) => { foreach (var v in context.User) { context.Identity.AddClaim(new System.Security.Claims.Claim(v.Key, v.Value.ToString())); } context.Identity.AddClaim(new System.Security.Claims.Claim("FacebookAccessToken", context.AccessToken)); return Task.FromResult(0); }, }; app.UseFacebookAuthentication(fboptions);

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  • JPA - Performance with using multiple entity manager

    - by Nguyen Tuan Linh
    My situation is: The code is not mine I have two kinds of database: one is Dad, one is Son. In Dad, I have a table to store JNDI name. I will look up Dad using JNDI, create entity manager, and retrieve this table. From these retrieved JNDI names, I will create multiple entity managers using multiple Son databases. The problem is: Son have thousands of entities. It takes each Son database around 10 minutes to load all entities. If there is 4 Son databases, it will be 40 minutes. My question: Is there any way to load all entities and use them for all entity manager? Please look at the code below For each Son JNDI: Map<String, String> puSonProperties = new HashMap<String, String>(); puSonProperties.put("javax.persistence.jtaDataSource", sonJndi); EntityManagerFactory emf = Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory("PUSon", puSonProperties); PUSon - All of them use the same persistence unit log.info("Verify entity manager for son: {0} - {1}", sonCode, emSon.find(Son_configuration.class, 0) != null ? "ok" : "failed!"); This is the actual code where the loading of all entities begins. 10 mins.

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  • GWT: Change padding of tree rows?

    - by Epaga
    A GWT tree looks roughly like this: <div class="gwt-Tree"> <div style="padding-top: 3px; padding-right: 3px; padding-bottom: 3px; margin-left: 0px; padding-left: 23px;"> <div style="display:inline;" class="gwt-TreeItem"> <table> ... </table> </div> </div> <div ...> </div> ... </div> My question is: how should I change the padding of the individual tree rows? I suppose I could do something along the lines of setting CSS rules for .gwt-Tree > div but that seems hacky. Is there a more elegant way?

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  • Django Cannot set values on a ManyToManyField which specifies an intermediary model

    - by dana
    i am using a m2m and a through table, and when i was trying to save, my error was: Cannot set values on a ManyToManyField which specifies an intermediary model so, i've modified my code, so that when i save the form, to insert data into the 'through' table too.But now, i'm having another error. (i've bolded the lines where i think i am wrong) i have in models.py: class Classroom(models.Model): user = models.ForeignKey(User, related_name = 'classroom_creator') classname = models.CharField(max_length=140, unique = True) date = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True) open_class = models.BooleanField(default=True) members = models.ManyToManyField(User,related_name="list of invited members", through = 'Membership') class Membership(models.Model): accept = models.BooleanField(User) date = models.DateTimeField(auto_now = True) classroom = models.ForeignKey(Classroom, related_name = 'classroom_membership') member = models.ForeignKey(User, related_name = 'user_membership') and in def save_classroom(request): if request.method == 'POST': form = ClassroomForm(request.POST, request.FILES, user = request.user) **classroom_instance = Classroom member_instance = Membership** if form.is_valid(): new_obj = form.save(commit=False) new_obj.user = request.user r = Relations.objects.filter(initiated_by = request.user) membership = Membership.objects.create(**classroom = classroom_instance, member = member_instance,date=datetime.datetime.now())** new_obj.save() form.save_m2m() return HttpResponseRedirect('/classroom/classroom_view/{{user}}/') else: form = ClassroomForm(user = request.user) return render_to_response('classroom/classroom_form.html', { 'form': form, }, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) but i don't seem to initialise okay the classroom_instance and menber_instance.My error os: Cannot assign "": "Membership.classroom" must be a "Classroom" instance. Thanks!

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  • How to put foreign key constraints on a computed fields in sql server?

    - by Asaf R
    Table A has a computed field called Computed1. It's persisted and not null. Also, it always computes to an expression which is char(50). It's also unique and has a unique key constraint on it. Table B has a field RefersToComputed1, which should refer to a valid Computed1 value. Trying to create a foreign key constraint on B's RefersToComputed1 that references A' Computed1 leads to the following error: Error SQL01268: .Net SqlClient Data Provider: Msg 1753, Level 16, State 0, Line 1 Column 'B.RefersToComputed1' is not the same length or scale as referencing column 'A.Computed1' in foreign key 'FK_B_A'. Columns participating in a foreign key relationship must be defined with the same length and scale. Q: Why is this error created? Are there special measures needed for foreign keys for computed columns, and if so what are they? Summary: The specific problem rises from computed, char based, fields being varchar. Hence, Computed1 is varchar(50) and not char(50). It's best to have a cast surrounding a computed field's expression to force it to a specific type. Credit goes to Cade Roux for this tip.

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  • what data structure should I use for hash lookup as well as binary search?

    - by zebraman
    I am working on a school homework. I have a list of names. I want to be able to perform binary search on these names (find all names between a lower and upper bound) for first name as well as last name, and perform keyword searches as well (this will be accomplished using hashing. For example, if I have the names Garfield Cat Snoopy Dog Captain Crunch Fat Cat then a binary search of first names (C,H) will return Captain Crunch, Fat Cat, and Garfield Cat. A binary search of last names (Cr,D) will return Captain Crunch. A keyword search of 'cat' will return Fat Cat and Garfield Cat. I understand binary search will only work on a sorted list, but since I am planning on searching two different criteria, I will have to sort the list by last name or first name depending on what I'm searching for. I feel like it will be too inefficient to have to resort the list each time I want to perform a new binary search. Would it just be better for me to set up and maintain two sorted lists (one for sorted by first name, one for sorted by last name)? Also, for hashing, will I have to set up a different table of names for that as well? I understand each keyword will hash to some value determined by a hash function, and this value (or key) is a table address where the corresponding names are stored. So I just want to know what would be the best way to solve this problem? Maintaining separate structures, or is there a way to efficiently do everything I want with just one data structure?

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  • Is it possible to convert a 40-character SHA1 hash to a 20-character SHA1 hash?

    - by ewitch
    My problem is a bit hairy, and I may be asking the wrong questions, so please bear with me... I have a legacy MySQL database which stores the user passwords & salts for a membership system. Both of these values have been hashed using the Ruby framework - roughly like this: hashedsalt = Digest::SHA1.hexdigest("--#{Time.now.to_s}--#{login}--") hashedpassword = Digest::SHA1.hexdigest("#{hashedsalt}:#{password}") So both values are stored as 40-character strings (varchar(40)) in MySQL. Now I need to import all of these users into the ASP.NET membership framework for a new web site, which uses a SQL Server database. It is my understanding that the the way I have ASP.NET membership configured, the user passwords and salts are also stored in the membership database (in table aspnet_Membership) as SHA1 hashes, which are then Base64 encoded (see here for details) and stored as nvarchar(128) data. But from the length of the Base64 encoded strings that are stored (28 characters) it seems that the SHA1 hashes that ASP.NET membership generates are only 20 characters long, rather than 40. From some other reading I have been doing I am thinking this has to do with the number of bits per character/character set/encoding or something related. So is there some way to convert the 40-character SHA1 hashes to 20-character hashes which I can then transfer to the new ASP.NET membership data table? I'm pretty familiar with ASP.NET membership by now but I feel like I'm just missing this one piece. However, it may also be known that SHA1 in Ruby and SHA1 in .NET are incompatible, so I'm fighting a losing battle... Thanks in advance for any insight.

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  • Bug when drawing a QImage on a widget with PIL and PyQt

    - by oulipo
    I'm trying to write a small graphic application, and I need to construct some image using PIL that I show in a widget. The image is correctly constructed (I can check with im.show()), I can convert it to a QImage, that I can save normally to disk (using QImage.save), but if I try to draw it directly on my QWidget, it only show a white square. Here I commented out the code that is not working (converting the Image into QImage then QPixmap result in a white square), and I made a dirty hack to save the image to a temporary file and load it directly in a QPixmap, which work but is not what I want to do https://gist.github.com/f6d479f286ad75bf72b7 Someone has an idea? If it can help, when I try to save my QImage in a BMP file, I can access its content, but if I try to save it to a PNG it is completely white

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  • Is it possible in any Java IDE to collapse the type definitions in the source code?

    - by asmaier
    Lately I often have to read Java code like this: LinkedHashMap<String, Integer> totals = new LinkedHashMap<String, Integer>(listOfRows.get(0)) for (LinkedHashMap<String, Integer> row : (ArrayList<LinkedHashMap<String,Integer>>) table.getValue()) { for(Entry<String, Integer> elem : row.entrySet()) { String colName=elem.getKey(); int Value=elem.getValue(); int oldValue=totals.get(colName); int sum = Value + oldValue; totals.put(colName, sum); } } Due to the long and nested type definitions the simple algorithm becomes quite obscured. So I wished I could remove or collapse the type definitions with my IDE to see the Java code without types like: totals = new (listOfRows.get(0)) for (row : table.getValue()) { for(elem : row.entrySet()) { colName=elem.getKey(); Value=elem.getValue(); oldValue=totals.get(colName); sum = Value + oldValue; totals.put(colName, sum); } } The best way of course would be to collapse the type definitions, but when moving the mouse over a variable show the type as a tooltip. Is there a Java IDE or a plugin for an IDE that can do this?

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  • why cookie.getMaxAge() = -1?

    - by wavelet
    i have a test like this : cookie.jsp: <html> <head> </head> <body> <% String cookieName="SNS"; Cookie cookie=new Cookie(cookieName, "maxAgeTest"); cookie.setMaxAge(60*60); response.addCookie(cookie); %> </body> </html> and read.jsp is : <html> <head> </head> <body> <table border=1> <tr><td>Name</td><td>value</td></tr> <% Cookie cookies[]=request.getCookies(); Cookie sCookie=null; String svalue=null; String sname=null; int sage ; for(int i=0;i<cookies.length;i++) { sCookie=cookies[i]; svalue=sCookie.getValue(); sname=sCookie.getName(); sage=sCookie.getMaxAge(); %> <tr><td><%=sname%></td><td><%=svalue%></td><td><%=sage%></td></tr> <% } %> </table> </body> </html> but the result is : Name value maxAge JSESSIONID DB3561A47B37FCA8CA25EA04B80A26C7 -1 SNS maxAgeTest -1 why the maxAge is -1 ? and t test IE8,Chrome5,Safari ,the result same

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  • mysql prevent displaying a row ONE which has reference in another row TWO but no reference in row THREE

    - by Jayapal Chandran
    I have a table like the following id | name | pid 1 | sam | NULL 2 | sams ref | 1 3 | pam | NULL For the first time the first row gets inserted which will have pid as null I insert a row which is related to the first row and then i insert a row which is new and which may be referred by another row in future. now i want only the third row to be displayed and not the first and second row as the second row contains the reference of first row. so if any row has a reference to another row then both the rows should not be displayed. Only rows which is not having any reference should be displayed. BESIDES, IS IT A GOOD PRACTICE? PLEASE ADVICE ON THIS. Edited When i updated in server the query is always giving empty result. here is what i have and this one When pid is NULL then that row should appear but when another entry in the same table with pid as its parent id or any other rows id appears then both the rows should not appear. so if any pid has been referred then both the rows should not appear. here only one row will refer another row and not more than that. in my localhost i have mysql version 5.0.1 or something like that but when i installed xampp in another system it had 5.5 and in the live server it was 5.3 so in version around 5.0 the query is returning rows but in higher versions it is returning empty rows. so now i this case how to make a query?

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  • Using SVN with a MySQL database ran by xamp - yes or no? (and how?)

    - by Extrakun
    For my current PHP/MySQL project (over a group of 4 to 5 team members), we are using this setup: each developer codes and test on his localhost running xamp, and upload to a test server via SVN. One question that I have now is how to synchronize the MySQL database? I may have added a new table to project and the PHP code references to it, so my other team members would need to access that table for my code (once they got it through SVN) to work. We are not always working in the same office all the time, so having a LAN and a MySQL server in the office is not feasible. So I am toying with 2 solutions Setup a test DB online, and have all the coders will reference to that, even when coding from localhost. Downside: you can't test if you happen not have internet access. Somehow sync the localhost copy of MySQL DB. Is that kind of silly? And if I do consider this, how do I do it? (which folder do I add to SVN?) (I guess a related question is how to automatically update the live MySQL DB from the testing DB, regardless if it is on a remote server or hosted locally via xamp. Any advice regarding that would be welcomed!)

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  • Is there a PHP library that performs MySQL Data Validation and Sanitization According to Column Type

    - by JW
    Do you know of any open source library or framework that can perform some basic validation and escaping functionality for a MySQL Db. i envisage something along the lines of: //give it something to perform the quote() quoteInto() methods $lib->setSanitizor($MyZend_DBAdaptor); //tell it structure of the table - colnames/coltypes/ etc $lib->setTableDescription($tableDescArray); //use it to validate and escape according to coltype foreach ($prospectiveData as $colName => $rawValue) if ( $lib->isValid($colName, $rawValue)) { //add it to the set clause $setValuesArray[$lib->escapeIdentifier($colName);] = $lib->getEscapedValue($colName,$rawValue); } else { throw new Exception($colName->getErrorMessage()); } etc... I have looked into - Zend_Db_Table (which knows about a table's description), and - Zend_Db_Adaptor (which knows how to escape/sanitize values depending on TYPE) but they do not automatically do any clever stuff during updates/inserts Anyone know of a good PHP library to preform this kind of validation that I could use rather than writing my own? i envisage alot of this kind of stuff: ... elseif (eregi('^INT|^INTEGER',$dataset_element_arr[col_type])) { $datatype='int'; if (eregi('unsigned',$dataset_element_arr[col_type])) { $int_max_val=4294967296; $int_min_val=0; } else { $int_max_val=2147483647; $int_min_val=-2147483648; } } (p.s I know eregi is deprecated - its just an example of laborious code)

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  • Need help choosing database server

    - by The Pretender
    Good day everyone. Recently I was given a task to develop an application to automate some aspects of stocks trading. While working on initial architecture, the database dilemma emerged. What I need is a fast database engine which can process huge amounts of data coming in very fast. I'm fairly experienced in general programming, but I never faced a task of developing a high-load database architecture. I developed a simple MSSQL database schema with several many-to-many relationships during one of my projects, but that's it. What I'm looking for is some advice on choosing the most suitable database engine and some pointers to various manuals or books which describe high-load database development. Specifics of the project are as follows: OS: Windows NT family (Server 2008 / 7) Primary platform: .NET with C# Database structure: one table to hold primary items and two or three tables with foreign keys to the first table to hold additional information. Database SELECT requirements: Need super-fast selection by foreign keys and by combination of foreign key and one of the columns (presumably DATETIME) Database INSERT requirements: The faster the better :) If there'll be significant performance gain, some parts can be written in C++ with managed interfaces to the rest of the system. So once again: given all that stuff I just typed, please give me some advice on what the best database for my project is. Links or references to some manuals and books on the subject are also greatly appreciated. EDIT: I'll need to insert 3-5 rows in 2 tables approximately once in 30-50 milliseconds and I'll need to do SELECT with 0-2 WHERE clauses queries with similar rate.

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  • Stock management of assemblies and its sub parts (relations)

    - by The Disintegrator
    I have to track the stock of individual parts and kits (assemblies) and can't find a satisfactory way of doing this. Sample bogus and hyper simplified database: Table prod: prodID 1 prodName Flux capacitor prodCost 900 prodPrice 1350 (900*1.5) prodStock 3 - prodID 2 prodName Mr Fusion prodCost 300 prodPrice 600 (300*2) prodStock 2 - prodID 3 prodName Time travel kit prodCost 1650 (1350+300) prodPrice 2145 (1650*1.3) prodStock 2 Table rels relID 1 relSrc 1 (Flux capacitor) relType 4 (is a subpart of) relDst 3 (Time travel kit) - relID 2 relSrc 2 (Mr Fusion) relType 4 (is a subpart of) relDst 3 (Time travel kit) prodPrice: it's calculated based on the cost but not in a linear way. In this example for costs of 500 or less, the markup is a 200%. For costs of 500-1000 the markup is 150%. For costs of 1000+ the markup is 130% That's why the time travel kit is much cheaper than the individual parts prodStock: here is my problem. I can sell kits or the individual parts, So the stock of the kits is virtual. The problem when I buy: Some providers sell me the Time Travel kit as a whole (with one barcode) and some sells me the individual parts (with a different barcode) So when I load the stock I don't know how to impute it. The problem when I sell: If I only sell kits, calculate the stock would be easy: "I have 3 Flux capacitors and 2 Mr Fusions, so I have 2 Time travel kits and a Flux Capacitor" But I can sell Kits or individual parts. So, I have to track the stock of the individual parts and the possible kits at the same time (and I have to compensate for the sell price) Probably this is really simple, but I can't see a simple solution. Resuming: I have to find a way of tracking the stock and the database/program is the one who has to do it (I cant ask the clerk to correct the stock) I'm using php+MySql. But this is more a logical problem than a programing one

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  • SQL Where Clause Against View

    - by Adam Carr
    I have a view (actually, it's a table valued function, but the observed behavior is the same in both) that inner joins and left outer joins several other tables. When I query this view with a where clause similar to SELECT * FROM [v_MyView] WHERE [Name] like '%Doe, John%' ... the query is very slow, but if I do the following... SELECT * FROM [v_MyView] WHERE [ID] in ( SELECT [ID] FROM [v_MyView] WHERE [Name] like '%Doe, John%' ) it is MUCH faster. The first query is taking at least 2 minutes to return, if not longer where the second query will return in less than 5 seconds. Any suggestions on how I can improve this? If I run the whole command as one SQL statement (without the use of a view) it is very fast as well. I believe this result is because of how a view should behave as a table in that if a view has OUTER JOINS, GROUP BYS or TOP ##, if the where clause was interpreted prior to vs after the execution of the view, the results could differ. My question is why wouldn't SQL optimize my first query to something as efficient as my second query?

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  • Creating stored procedure having different WHERE clause on different search criteria without putting

    - by Muhammad Kashif Nadeem
    Is there any alternate way to create stored procedure without putting all query in one long string if criteria of WWHERE clause can be different. Suppose I have Orders table I want to create stored procedure on this table and there are three column on which I wnat to filter records. 1- CustomerId, 2- SupplierId, 3- ProductId. If user only give CustomerId in search criteria then query should be like following SELECT * FROM Orders WHERE Orders.CustomerId = @customerId And if user only give ProductId in search criteria then query should be like following SELECT * FROM Orders WHERE Orders.ProductId = @productId And if user only all three CustomerId, ProductId, and SupplierId is given then all three Ids will be used in WHERE to filter. There is also chance that user don't want to filter record then query should be like following SELCT * FROM Orders Whenever I have to create this kind of procedure I put all this in string and use IF conditions to check if arguments (@customeId or @supplierId etc) has values. I use following method to create procedure DECLARE @query VARCHAR(MAX) DECLARE @queryWhere VARCHAR(MAX) SET @query = @query + 'SELECT * FROM Orders ' IF (@originationNumber IS NOT NULL) BEGIN BEGIN SET @queryWhere =@queryWhere + ' Orders.CustomerId = ' + CONVERT(VARCHAR(100),@customerId) END END IF(@queryWhere <> '') BEGIN SET @query = @query+' WHERE ' + @queryWhere END EXEC (@query) Thanks.

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