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  • WPF : Multiple views, one DataContext

    - by zapho
    Hi, I'm working on a WPF application which must handle multiple screens (two at this this time). One view can be opened on several screens and user actions must be reflected consistently on all screens. To achieve this, for a given type of view, a single DataContext is instantiated. Then, when a view is displayed on a screen, the unique DataContext is attached to it. So, one DataContext, several views (same type of view/xaml). So far so good. It works quite well in most cases. I do have a problem with a specific view which relies on ItemsControl. These ItemsControl are used to display UIElements dynamically build in the ViewModel/DataContext (C# code). These UIElements are mostly Path objects. Example : <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding WindVectors}"> <ItemsControl.Template> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type ItemsControl}"> <Canvas IsItemsHost="True" /> </ControlTemplate> </ItemsControl.Template> </ItemsControl> Here, WindVectors is a ObservableCollection<UIElement>. When the view is opened the first time, everything is fine. The problem is that when the view is opened one another screen, all ItemsControl are removed from the first screen and displayed one the second screen. Other WPF components (TextBlock for instance) on this view react normally and are displayed on both screens. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks. Fabrice

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  • How do I access data within this multidimensional array?

    - by dmanexe
    I have this array: $items_pool = Array ( [0] => Array ( [id] => 1 [quantity] => 1 ) [1] => Array ( [id] => 2 [quantity] => 1 ) [2] => Array ( [id] => 72 [quantity] => 6 ) [3] => Array ( [id] => 4 [quantity] => 1 ) [4] => Array ( [id] => 5 [quantity] => 1 ) [5] => Array ( [id] => 7 [quantity] => 1 ) [6] => Array ( [id] => 8 [quantity] => 1 ) [7] => Array ( [id] => 9 [quantity] => 1 ) [8] => Array ( [id] => 19 [quantity] => 1 ) [9] => Array ( [id] => 20 [quantity] => 1 ) [10] => Array ( [id] => 22 [quantity] => 1 ) [11] => Array ( [id] => 29 [quantity] => 0 ) ) I'm trying to loop through this array and perform a conditional based on $items_pool[][id]'s value. I want to then report back TRUE or NULL/FALSE, so I'm just testing the presence of to be specific.

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  • AJAX - querying a search engine and returning the number of results

    - by Moddy
    Right, so basically I need to query a selection of search engines in an AJAX app. As there is a number of different search engines - there's no search engine specific API I can use either. My main problem is getting the number of results returned by the search. So far, I have decided it is probably best to use a regexp from the returned search query HTML, and then convert the string of characters to an integer. However, this method just doesn't feel.. clean to me. It seems a bit rough around the edges and I think it could do with improving! I guess not being 100% confident with regular expressions doesn't help; but it just feels like it could be improved. Any ideas on how to implement this would be great cheers! It doesn't seem like that an exotic thing to do, so I was wondering if perhaps any of you guys have done this before and would have a few tips? Note: This is an AJAX app at the moment, but I may be re-writing this functionality in a different app soon - which won't be AJAX. I'm confident I can transfer any AJAX implementation to the other language though.

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  • target-action uicontrolevents

    - by Fabrizio Farinelli
    I must be missing something obvious here but ... UIControl has a method - (void)addTarget:(id)target action:(SEL)action forControlEvents: (UIControlEvents)controlEvents which lets you add an action to be called when any of the given controlEvents occur. ControlEvents are a bitmask of events which tell you if a touch went down, or up inside, or was dragged etc., there's about 16 of them, you or them together and get called when any of them occur. The selector can have one of the following signatures - (void)action - (void)action:(id)sender - (void)action:(id)sender forEvent:(UIEvent *) none of those tell you what the control event bitmask was. The UIEvent is something slightly different, it's related to the actual touch event and doesn't (I think) contain the UIControlEvent. The sender (UIControl) doesn't have a way to find the control events either. I'd like to have one method which deals with a number of control events as I have some common code regardless of which event or events happened but I still need to know what the UIControlEvents were for some specific processing. Am I missing a way to find out what UIControlEvents were used when the action was called or do I really have to separate my code into -(void)actionWithUIControlEventX; -(void)actionWithUIControlEventY;

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  • Emulator restarts after snapshot load

    - by reox
    I've set up a android emulator with a snapshot of a specific state i need to go back every time. the snapshot is created and is listed and i can also start directly with this snapshot with emulator -avd MyAVD -snapshot mystate -no-snapshot-save the problem is now that the emulator restart itselfs after i load the snapshot after i did my changes in the emulator. So if i use echo -e "avd snapshot load mystate\nexit" | nc localhost 5554 the snapshot is loaded correctly but then after some seconds i see the bootloader screen. Whats happening there? this phenomen is repeatable with different emulators and different snapshots. is it possible that i just misuse a feature here? edit: it seems this problem is only occuring when i load a snapshot multiple times. after starting the emulator, everything is working quite well. now i load my snapshot, also everything is working well. but when i now load the same snapshot again, it will correctly load it but then the emulator will restart. so is there any possibility to load a snapshot multiple times? otherwise i always need to restart my emulator, which takes a long time...

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  • What should a developer know before building a public web site?

    - by Joel Coehoorn
    What things should a programmer implementing the technical details of a web site address before making the site public? If Jeff Atwood can forget about HttpOnly cookies, sitemaps, and cross-site request forgeries all in the same site, what important thing could I be forgetting as well? I'm thinking about this from a web developer's perspective, such that someone else is creating the actual design and content for the site. So while usability and content may be more important than the platform, you the programmer have little say in that. What you do need to worry about is that your implementation of the platform is stable, performs well, is secure, and meets any other business goals (like not cost too much, take too long to build, and rank as well with Google as the content supports). Think of this from the perspective of a developer who's done some work for intranet-type applications in a fairly trusted environment, and is about to have his first shot and putting out a potentially popular site for the entire big bad world wide web. Also: I'm looking for something more specific than just a vague "web standards" response. I mean, HTML, JavaScript, and CSS over HTTP are pretty much a given, especially when I've already specified that you're a professional web developer. So going beyond that, Which standards? In what circumstances, and why? Provide a link to the standard's specification. This question is community wiki, so please feel free to edit that answer to add links to good articles that will help explain or teach each particular point.

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  • PHPUnit and autoloaders: Determining whether code is running in test-scope?

    - by pinkgothic
    Premise I know that writing code to act differently when a test is run is hilariously bad practise, but I may've actually come across a scenario in which it may be necessary. Specifically, I'm trying to test a very specific wrapper for HTML Purifier in the Zend framework - a View Helper, to be exact. The HTML Purifier autoloader is necessary because it uses a different logic to the autoloaders we otherwise have. Problem require()-ing the autoloader at the top of my View Helper class, gives me the following in test-scope: HTML Purifier autoloader registrar is not compatible with non-static object methods due to PHP Bug #44144; Please do not use HTMLPurifier.autoload.php (or any file that includes this file); instead, place the code: spl_autoload_register(array('HTMLPurifier_Bootstrap', 'autoload')) after your own autoloaders. Replacing the require() with spl_autoload_register(array('HTMLPurifier_Bootstrap', 'autoload')) as advertised means the test runs fine, but the View Helper dies a terrible death claiming: Zend_Log[3707]: ErrorController caught LogicException "Passed array does not specify an existing static method (class 'HTMLPurifier_Bootstrap' not found)" (Our test folder structure is slightly different to our Zend folder structure by necessity.) Question(s) After tinkering with it, I'm thinking I'll need to pick an autoloader-loading depending on whether things are in the test scope or not. Do I have another option to include HTMLPurifier's autoloading routine in both cases that I'm not seeing due to tunnel vision? If not, do I have to find a means to differentiate between test-environment and production-environment this with my own code (e.g. APPLICATION_ENV) - or does PHPUnit support this godawful hackery of mine natively by setting a constant that I could check whether its been defined(), or similar shenanigans? (My Google-fu here is weak! I'm probably just doing it wrong.)

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  • Extension Methods and Application Code

    - by Mystagogue
    I have seen plenty of online guidelines for authoring extension methods, usually along these lines: 1) Avoid authoring extension methods when practical - prefer other approaches first (e.g. regular static methods). 2) Don't author extension methods to extend code you own or currently develop. Instead, author them to extend 3rd party or BCL code. But I have the impression that a couple more guidelines are either implied or advisable. What does the community think of these two additional guidelines: A) Prefer to author extension methods to contain generic functionality rather than application-specific logic. (This seems to follow from guideline #2 above) B) An extension method should be sizeable enough to justify itself (preferably at least 5 lines of code in length). Item (B) is intended to discourage a develoer from writing dozens of extension methods (totalling X lines of code) to refactor or replace what originally was already about X lines of inline code. Perhaps item (B) is badly qualified, or even misinformed about how a one line extension method is actually powerful and justified. I'm curious to know. But if item (B) is somehow dismissed by the community, I must admist I'm still particularly interested in feedback on guideline (A).

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  • Clarification needed: How does .NET runtime resolve assembly references from parent folder?

    - by aoven
    I have the following output structure of executables in my solution: %ProgramFiles% | +-[MyAppName] | +-[Client] | | | +-(EXE & several DLL assemblies) | +-[Common] | | | +-[Schema Assemblies] | | | | | +-(several DLL assemblies) | | | +-(several DLL assemblies) | +-[Server] | +-(EXE & several DLL assemblies) Each project in solution references different DLL assemblies, some of which are outputs from other projects in solution, and others are plain 3rd-party assemblies. For example, [Client] EXE might reference an assembly in [Common], which is in a different directory branch. All references have "Copy Local" set to false, to mirror the layout of the files in the final installed application. Now, if I take a look at reference properties in the Visual Studio IDE, I see that "Path" of every reference is absolute and that it corresponds to the actual output location of the assembly. That's understandable and correct. As expected, solution compiles and runs just fine. What I don't understand is, why everything seems to work even when I close the IDE, rename the [MyAppName] directory and run the [Client] EXE manually? How does the runtime find the assemblies if the reference paths aren't the same as they were at the time of linking? To be clear - this is actually exactly what I'm after: a semi-dispersed set of application files that run fine regardless of where the [MyAppName] directory is located or even what it's named. I'd just like to know, how and why this works without any specific path resolution on my part. I've read the answers to this similar question, but I still don't get it. Help much appreciated!

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  • using style in WPF

    - by Polaris
    In my application I use ShinyBlue.xaml resourse Dictionary which has this code for GroupBox control: <Style TargetType="{x:Type GroupBox}"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type GroupBox}"> <Grid SnapsToDevicePixels="true"> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="6" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="*" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="6" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" /> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" /> <RowDefinition Height="*" /> <RowDefinition Height="6" /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <Border Grid.ColumnSpan="4" Grid.RowSpan="4" Background="{DynamicResource LightBrush}" CornerRadius="4,4,4,4" BorderThickness="1,1,1,1" /> </Grid> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> These style common for all app. But in one of the forms I want to change background to Transparent. I want override only Background Property but it's not work <Style TargetType="GroupBox" BasedOn="{StaticResource {x:Type GroupBox}}"> <Setter Property="Background" Value="Transparent"/> </Style> code above not works properly How can I change GroupBox Background in specific form ?.

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  • High performance text file parsing in .net

    - by diamandiev
    Here is the situation: I am making a small prog to parse server log files. I tested it with a log file with several thousand requests (between 10000 - 20000 don't know exactly) What i have to do is to load the log text files into memory so that i can query them. This is taking the most resources. The methods that take the most cpu time are those (worst culprits first): string.split - splits the line values into a array of values string.contains - checking if the user agent contains a specific agent string. (determine browser ID) string.tolower - various purposes streamreader.readline - to read the log file line by line. string.startswith - determine if line is a column definition line or a line with values there were some others that i was able to replace. For example the dictionary getter was taking lots of resources too. Which i had not expected since its a dictionary and should have its keys indexed. I replaced it with a multidimensional array and saved some cpu time. Now i am running on a fast dual core and the total time it takes to load the file i mentioned is about 1 sec. Now this is really bad. Imagine a site that has tens of thousands of visits a day. It's going to take minutes to load the log file. So what are my alternatives? If any, cause i think this is just a .net limitation and i can't do much about it.

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  • setting up 301 redirects: dynamic urls to static urls

    - by MS
    We are currently using a template-based website and are hoping to move to a site with static urls. Our domain will stay the same. I understand that using 301 redirects in a .htaccess file is the preferred method -- and the one that has the highest chance of preserving our google rankings. I am still new at all this and am having a hard time figuring out the proper way to code it all. Over a hundred of our pages are indexed. They all have a similar URL but with different pageIDs: http://www.realestate-bigbear.com/Nav.aspx/Page=%2fPageManager%2fDefault.aspx%2fPageID%3d2020765 Some link out to provided content, ex. /RealEstateNews/Default.aspx Then there are many that flow from the main featured listings page: /ListNow/Default.aspx Down to all the specific properties.. where the PropertyId changes /ListNow/Property.aspx?PropertyID=2048098 would a simple set of codes work... like the following.... redirect 301 /Nav.aspx/Page=%2fPageManager%2fDefault.aspx%2fPageID%3d2020765 www.realestate.bigbear.com/SearchBigBearMLS.htm or do I need to do something entirely different?

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  • Obtaining touch location for a uiscrollview touch

    - by LOSnively
    I have a uiscrollview as an element of a uiscrollviewcontroller, along with other view objects. The image scrolls and zooms as expected, when the scrollView is the top subview. However, I also need to get the screen location of the touch, in particular when there is no scroll action. (I understand the location may change during a scroll, but that's not important.) I haven't found a way to do that. In the scrollviewcontroller implementation I have customized all of the standard methods that should do this: "touchesShouldBegin...", "touchesBegan:...", "touchesEnded:...", and so on. As far as I can tell, none of these are being called during a touch event when the scrollView is the top subview. I've tried setting the delayContentTouches property to both YES and NO, and that doesn't seem to make a difference. As an alternative, I've tried putting a UIView as the top subview and then tried passing the touches to the now underlying scrollView. In this configuration, the standard methods are called and I can get the touch location, but I haven't found a mechanism for the touches to be passed to the scrollView so scrolling occurs. Doing something like sending the touch messages to the specific scrollView, or to "super" or just sending them to nextResponder doesn't do it. It seems I can make the scroll work or find the location of the touch but not both, depending on what the "top" subview is. I suspect this is trivial, but after two weeks of struggling, it's time to eat my embarrassment for not being able to do this seemingly simplest of things. I've read all of the related questions here on stackoverflow, tried most if not all of the suggestions, and so far, nothing has worked. I've looked through the various links and references suggested by the answers, including Apple's documentation, but none have pointed out the gap in my understanding. Any ideas would be appreciated.

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  • Creating form using Generic_inlineformset_factory from the Model Form

    - by Prateek
    hello dear all, I wanted to create a edit form with the help of ModelForm. and my models contain a Generic relation b/w classes, so if any one could suggest me the view and a bit of template for the purpose I would be very thankful, as I am new to the language. My models look like:- class Employee(Person): nickname = models.CharField(_('nickname'), max_length=25, null=True, blank=True) blood_type = models.CharField(_('blood group'), max_length=3, null=True, blank=True, choices=BLOOD_TYPE_CHOICES) marital_status = models.CharField(_('marital status'), max_length=1, null=True, blank=True, choices=MARITAL_STATUS_CHOICES) nationality = CountryField(_('nationality'), default='IN', null=True, blank=True) about = models.TextField(_('about'), blank=True, null=True) dependent = models.ManyToManyField(Dependent, through='DependentRelationship') pan_card_number = models.CharField(_('PAN card number'), max_length=50, blank=True, null=True) policy_number = models.CharField(_('policy number'), max_length=50, null=True, blank=True) # code specific details user = models.OneToOneField(User, blank=True, null=True, verbose_name=_('user')) class Person(models.Model): """Person model""" title = models.CharField(_('title'), max_length=20, null=True, blank=True) first_name = models.CharField(_('first name'), max_length=100) middle_name = models.CharField(_('middle name'), max_length=100, null=True, blank=True) last_name = models.CharField(_('last name'), max_length=100, null=True, blank=True) suffix = models.CharField(_('suffix'), max_length=20, null=True, blank=True) slug = models.SlugField(_('slug'), max_length=50, unique=True) class PhoneNumber(models.Model) : phone_number = generic.GenericRelation('PhoneNumber') email_address = generic.GenericRelation('EmailAddress') address = generic.GenericRelation('Address') date_of_birth = models.DateField(_('date of birth'), null=True, blank=True) gender = models.CharField(_('gender'), max_length=1, null=True, blank=True, choices=GENDER_CHOICES) content_type = models.ForeignKey(ContentType, If anyone could suggest me a link or so. it would be a great help........

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  • Misalignement in the output Bitmap created from a byte array

    - by Daniel
    I am trying to understand why I have troubles creating a Bitmap from a byte array. I post this after a careful scrutiny of the existing posts about Bitmap creation from byte arrays, like the followings: Creating a bitmap from a byte[], Working with Image and Bitmap in c#?, C#: Bitmap Creation using bytes array My code is aimed to execute a filter on a digital image 8bppIndexed writing the pixel value on a byte [] buffer to be converted again (after some processing to manage gray levels) in a 8BppIndexed Bitmap My input image is a trivial image created by means of specific perl code: https://www.box.com/shared/zqt46c4pcvmxhc92i7ct Of course, after executing the filter the output image has lost the first and last rows and the first and last columns, due to the way the filter manage borders, so from the original 256 x 256 image i get a 254 x 254 image. Just to stay focused on the issue I have commented the code responsible for executing the filter so that the operation really performed is an obvious: ComputedPixel = InputImage.GetPixel(myColumn, myRow).R; I know, i should use lock and unlock but I prefer one headache one by one. Anyway this code should be a sort of identity transform, and at last i use: private unsafe void FillOutputImage() { OutputImage = new Bitmap (OutputImageCols, OutputImageRows , PixelFormat .Format8bppIndexed); ColorPalette ncp = OutputImage.Palette; for (int i = 0; i < 256; i++) ncp.Entries[i] = Color .FromArgb(255, i, i, i); OutputImage.Palette = ncp; Rectangle area = new Rectangle(0, 0, OutputImageCols, OutputImageRows); var data = OutputImage.LockBits(area, ImageLockMode.WriteOnly, OutputImage.PixelFormat); Marshal .Copy (byteBuffer, 0, data.Scan0, byteBuffer.Length); OutputImage.UnlockBits(data); } The output image I get is the following: https://www.box.com/shared/p6tubyi6dsf7cyregg9e It is quite clear that I am losing a pixel per row, but i cannot understand why: I have carefully controlled all the parameters: OutputImageCols, OutputImageRows and the byte [] byteBuffer length and content even writing known values as way to test. The code is nearly identical to other code posted in stackOverflow and elsewhere. Someone maybe could help to identify where the problem is? Thanks a lot

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  • Rails model relations depending on count of nested relations

    - by Lowgain
    I am putting together a messaging system for a rails app I am working on. I am building it in a similar fashion to facebook's system, so messages are grouped into threads, etc. My related models are: MsgThread - main container of a thread Message - each message/reply in thread Recipience - ties to user to define which users should subscribe to this thread Read - determines whether or not a user has read a specific message My relationships look like class User < ActiveRecord::Base #stuff... has_many :msg_threads, :foreign_key => 'originator_id' #threads the user has started has_many :recipiences has_many :subscribed_threads, :through => :recipiences, :source => :msg_thread #threads the user is subscribed to end class MsgThread < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :messages has_many :recipiences belongs_to :originator, :class_name => "User", :foreign_key => "originator_id" end class Recipience < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :msg_thread end class Message < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :msg_thread belongs_to :author, :class_name => "User", :foreign_key => "author_id" end class Read < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :message end I'd like to create a new selector in the user sort of like: has_many :updated_threads, :through => :recipiencies, :source => :msg_thread, :conditions => {THREAD CONTAINS MESSAGES WHICH ARE UNREAD (have no 'read' models tying a user to a message)} I was thinking of either writing a long condition with multiple joins, or possibly writing giving the model an updated_threads method to return this, but I'd like to see if there is an easier way first. Any ideas? Also, if there is something fundamentally wrong with my structure for this functionality let me know! Thanks!!

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  • How does the overall view hierarchy change when using UIKit view manipulations?

    - by executor21
    I've been trying to figure out what happens in the view hierarchy when methods like pushViewController:animated, presentModalViewController:animated, and tab switches in UITabBarViewController are used, as well as UIAlertView and UIActionSheet. (Side note: I'm doing this because I need to know whether a specific UIView of my creation is visible on screen when I do not know anything about how it or its superview may have been added to the view hierarchy. If someone knows a good way to determine this, I'd welcome the knowledge.) To figure it out, I've been logging out the hierarchy of [[UIApplication sharedApplication] keyWindow] subviews in different circumstances. Is the following correct: When a new viewController is pushed onto the stack of a UINavigationController, the old viewController's view is no longer in the view hierarchy. That is, only the top view controller's view is a subview of UINavigationController's view (according to logs, it's actually several private classes such as UILayoutContainerView). Are the views of view controllers below the top controller of the stack actually removed from the window? A very similar thing happens when a new viewController is presented via presentModalViewController:animated. The new viewController's view is the only subview of the kew window. Is this correct? The easiest thing to understand: a UIAlertView creates its own window and makes it key. The strangest thing I encountered: a UIActionSheet is shown via showInView: method, the actionSheet isn't in the view hierarchy at all. It's not a subview of the view passed as an argument to showInView:, it isn't added as a subview of the key window, and it doesn't create its own window. How does it appear, then? I haven't tried this yet, so I'd like to know what happens in the keyWindow hierarchy when tabs in a UITabBarController are switched. Is the view of the selected UIViewController moved to the top, or does it work like with pushViewController:animated and presentModalViewController:animated, where only the displayed view is in the window hierarchy?

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  • Is it possible to update old database from dbml file ? (C#, .Net 4, Linq, SQL Server)

    - by Emil
    Hi all, I began recently a new job, a very interesting project (C#,.Net 4, Linq, VS 2010 and SQL Server). And immediately I got a very exciting challenge: I must implement either a new tool or integrate the logic when program start, or whatever, but what must happen is the following: the customers have previous application and database (full with their specific data). Now a new version is ready and the customer gets the update. In the mean time we made some modification on DB (new table, columns, maybe an old column deleted, or whatever). I’m pretty new in Linq and also SQL databases and my first solution can be: I check the applications/databases version and implement all the changes step by step comparing all tables, columns, keys, constrains, etc. (all this new information I have in my dbml and the old I asked from the existing DB). And I’ll do this each time the version changed. But somehow I feel, this is NOT a smart solution so I look for a general solution of this problem. Is there a way to update customers DB from the dbml file? To create a new one is not a problem (CreateDatabase with DataContext), is there any update/alter database methods? I guess I’m not the only one who search for such a solution (I found nothing in internet – or I looked for bad keywords). How did you solve this problem? I look also for an external tool, but first for a solution with C#, Linq or something similar. For any idea thank you in advance! Best regards, Emil

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  • java Properties - to expose or not to expose?

    - by ring bearer
    This might be an age old problem and I am sure everyone has their own ways. Suppose I have some properties defined such as secret.user.id=user secret.password=password website.url=http://stackoverflow.com Suppose I have 100 different classes and places where I need to use these properties. Which one is good (1) I create a Util class that will load all properties and serve them using a key constant Such as : Util is a singleton that loads all properties and keeps up on getInstance() call. Util myUtil = Util.getInstance(); String user = myUtil.getConfigByKey(Constants.SECRET_USER_ID); String password = myUtil.getConfigByKey(Constants.SECRET_PASSWORD); .. //getConfigByKey() - inturns invokes properties.get(..) doSomething(user, password) So wherever I need these properties, I can do steps above. (2) I create a meaningful Class to represent these properties; say, ApplicationConfig and provide getters to get specific properties. So above code may look like: ApplicationConfig config = ApplicationConfig.getInstance(); doSomething(config.getSecretUserId(), config.getPassword()); //ApplicationConfig would have instance variables that are initialized during // getInstance() after loading from properties file. Note: The properties file as such will have only minor changes in the future. My personal choice is (2) - let me hear some comments?

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  • What does it mean that "Lisp can be written in itself?"

    - by Mason Wheeler
    Paul Graham wrote that "The unusual thing about Lisp-- in fact, the defining quality of Lisp-- is that it can be written in itself." But that doesn't seem the least bit unusual or definitive to me. ISTM that a programming language is defined by two things: Its compiler or interpreter, which defines the syntax and the semantics for the language by fiat, and its standard library, which defines to a large degree the idioms and techniques that skilled users will use when writing code in the language. With a few specific exceptions, (the non-C# members of the .NET family, for example,) most languages' standard libraries are written in that language for two very good reasons: because it will share the same set of syntactical definitions, function calling conventions, and the general "look and feel" of the language, and because the people who are likely to write a standard library for a programming language are its users, and particularly its designer(s). So there's nothing unique there; that's pretty standard. And again, there's nothing unique or unusual about a language's compiler being written in itself. C compilers are written in C. Pascal compilers are written in Pascal. Mono's C# compiler is written in C#. Heck, even some scripting languages have implementations "written in itself". So what does it mean that Lisp is unusual in being written in itself?

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  • NHibernate: Mapping multiple classes from a single table row

    - by Michael Kurtz
    I couldn't find an answer to this specific question. I am trying to keep my domain model object-oriented and re-use objects where possible. I am having an issue determining how to provide a mapping to multiple classes from a single row. Let me explain with an example: I have a single table, call it Customer. A customer has several attributes; but, for brevity, assume it has Id, Name, Address, City, State, ZipCode. I would like to create a Customer and Address class that look like this: public class Customer { public virtual long Id {get;set;} public virtual string Name {get;set;} public virtual Address Address {get;set;} } public class Address { public virtual string Address {get;set;} public virtual string City {get;set;} public virtual string State {get;set;} public virtual string ZipCode {get;set;} } What I am having trouble with is determining what the mapping would be for the Address class within the Customer class. There is no Address table and there isn't a "set" of addresses associated with a Customer. I just want a more object-oriented view of the Customer table in code. There are several other tables that have address information in them and it would be nice to have a reusable Address class to deal with them. Addresses are not shared so breaking all addresses into a separate table with foreign keys seems to be overkill and, actually, more painful since I would need foreign keys to multiple tables. Can someone enlighten me on this type of mapping? Please provide an example if you can. Thanks for any insights! -Mike

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  • WPF: Selecting the Target of an Animation

    - by Phil Sandler
    I am trying to create a simple (I think) animation effect based on a property change in my ViewModel. I would like the target to be a specific textblock in the control template of a custom control, which inherits from Window. From the article examples I've seen, a DataTrigger is the easiest way to accomplish this. It appears that Window.Triggers doesn't support DataTriggers, which led me to try to apply the trigger in the style. The problem I am currently having is that I can't seem to target the TextBlock (or any other child control)--what happens is which the code below is that the animation is applied to the background of the whole window. If I leave off StoryBoard.Target completely, the effect is exactly the same. Is this the right approach with the wrong syntax, or is there an easier way to accomplish this? <Style x:Key="MyWindowStyle" TargetType="{x:Type Window}"> <Setter Property="Template" Value="{StaticResource MyWindowTemplate}"/> <Style.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding ChangeOccurred}" Value="True"> <DataTrigger.EnterActions> <BeginStoryboard> <Storyboard BeginTime="00:00:00" Duration="0:0:2" Storyboard.Target="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType=TextBlock}}" Storyboard.TargetProperty="(Background).(SolidColorBrush.Color)"> <ColorAnimation FillBehavior="Stop" From="Black" To="Red" Duration="0:0:0.5" AutoReverse="True"/> </Storyboard> </BeginStoryboard> </DataTrigger.EnterActions> </DataTrigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style>

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  • Location of the object after scrolling in UIScrollView

    - by ludo
    Hi, I have a scrollView (width:320px height:100px) on my UIView, inside it I add 10 images with width:106.5px each. After that I use this function to have 3 different parts inside my scrollView, so everytime I scroll, an image will automatically be center. -(void)scrollViewDidEndDragging:(UIScrollView *)scrollView willDecelerate:(BOOL)decelerate { [self returnToPosition:self.scrollView]; } -(void)scrollViewDidEndDecelerating:(UIScrollView *)scrollView { [self returnToPosition:self.scrollView]; } -(void)returnToPosition:(UIScrollView *)scrollView { CGFloat itemWidth = 106.5f; CGFloat position = [self.scrollView contentOffset].x; CGFloat newPosition = 0.0f; CGFloat offSet = position / itemWidth; NSUInteger target = (NSUInteger)(offSet + 0.5f); newPosition = target * itemWidth; [self.scrollView setContentOffset:CGPointMake(newPosition, 0.0f) animated:YES]; } Here is my question, I want to be able to know which image will be in the middle position after the user scroll the View, because I want to display on my UIView a text, specific to that image. But I don't know how to do that. Some Ideas?

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  • cross-platform scripting for windows, Linux, MacOS X

    - by karolrvn
    Hi. I'm looking for cross-platform scripting (language) for windows, Linux, MacOS X. I'm tired of .bat / bash . I would like to do things like for example ,,lock workstation'' at automatic login (I had this in X-Window but the solution was pretty ugly; now, I would like that on MS Windows and not that ugly :-) ). Generally: automate tasks. Or would I be better off with Windows Scripting Host? PowerShell also comes to mind, but that's seems to Windows-only for my taste. Can languages like Python, Ruby, (Java?) interact (elegantly? sensibly?) with WSH? Also things like DBUS, DCOM, etc come to mind as part of the picture. Currently I use a mixture of Java, .bat, bash, Ruby, Scala; some VBA for Excel. Which sometimes gets pretty ugly. I would like a cross-platform general solution with/using ,,native'' parts close to OS-specifics. Like e.g. Ruby driving some Windows-specific stuff (just a guess). What do You use? TIA

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  • ActionScript - clicking and determining the sprite's class

    - by TheDarkIn1978
    i'd like to add all or most of my mouse events to stage, but in order to do that i need to be able to tell what is the type of the sprite being clicked. i've added two sprites to the display list, one of which is from a class called Square, the other from a class called Circle. var mySquare:Sprite = new Square(); var myCircle:Sprite = new Circle(); addChild(mySquare); addChild(myCircle); now when i click on these sprites, i'd like to know from which class they are from, or which type of sprite it is. //mousePoint returns mouse coordinates of the stage var myArray:Array = stage.getObjectsUnderPoint(mousePoint()); if (myArray[myArray.length - 1] is Sprite) ... so far i know how to do is determine if it IS a sprite display object, but since i'll only be working with sprites i need something more specific. rather than checking "is Sprite", is there a way i can check "is Square" or "is Circle"? if (myArray[myArray.length - 1] is Square)

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