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  • ASP.NET DropDownList control doesn't postback correctly inside of UserControl

    - by RichardAZ
    I have a situation where a DropDownList control is not posting back correctly. The AutoPost property is set to true, so the postback does happen, but the SelectedValue is not set to the correct value. In addition, the onSelectedIndexChanged event doesn't fire. The exact same code works perfect fine on an ASPX page, but does not work in a ASCX control. I have tried all the obvious things, I hope, trying to figure this one out, but no luck so far. I have even investigated what comes back in Request.Form["__EVENTTARGET"] and __EVENTARGUMENT. __EVENTTARGET does point to the drop down list, but the argument is empty. Can the folks of StackOverflow help lead me in the right direction to debug this issue. Of course, it is further complicated by master pages and the usual overcomplication of ASP.NET. Here is the code: <div> <asp:DropDownList ID="testDrop" runat="server" AutoPostBack="true" EnableViewState="true" onselectedindexchanged="testDrop_SelectedIndexChanged"> <asp:ListItem Value="1" Text="1">1</asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Value="2" Text="2">2</asp:ListItem> </asp:DropDownList> </div> And here is the generated html: <select id="ctl00_MainContent_rptAccordion_ctl00_statControl_testDrop" onchange="javascript:setTimeout('__doPostBack(\'ctl00$MainContent$rptAccordion$ctl00$statControl$testDrop\',\'\')', 0)" name="ctl00$MainContent$rptAccordion$ctl00$statControl$testDrop"> <option value="1" selected="selected">1</option> <option value="2">2</option> THANKS!

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  • Trying to build a dynamic PHP mysql_query string to update a row and getting back the updated row

    - by adardesign
    I have a form that jQuery tracks the onChage .change() event so when something is changed it runs a ajax request and i pass in the column, id, and the values in the url. Here i have the PHP code that should update the data. My question is now how do i build the mySQl string dynamically. and how do i echo back the changes/updates that where just changed on the db. Here is the PHP code i am trying to work with. <?php require_once('Connections/connect.php'); ?> <?php $id = $_GET['id']; $collumn = $_GET['collumn']; $val = $_GET['val']; ?> <?php mysql_select_db($myDB, $connection); // here i try to build the query string and pass in the passed in values $sqlUpdate = 'UPDATE `plProducts`.`allPens` SET `$collumn` = '$val' WHERE `allPens`.`prodId` = '$id' LIMIT 1;'; // here i want to echo back the updated row (or the updated data) $seeResults = mysql_query($sqlUpdate, $connection); echo $seeResults ?>

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  • What is the fastest (to access) struct-like object in Python?

    - by DNS
    I'm optimizing some code whose main bottleneck is running through and accessing a very large list of struct-like objects. Currently I'm using namedtuples, for readability. But some quick benchmarking using 'timeit' shows that this is really the wrong way to go where performance is a factor: Named tuple with a, b, c: >>> timeit("z = a.c", "from __main__ import a") 0.38655471766332994 Class using __slots__, with a, b, c: >>> timeit("z = b.c", "from __main__ import b") 0.14527461047146062 Dictionary with keys a, b, c: >>> timeit("z = c['c']", "from __main__ import c") 0.11588272541098377 Tuple with three values, using a constant key: >>> timeit("z = d[2]", "from __main__ import d") 0.11106188992948773 List with three values, using a constant key: >>> timeit("z = e[2]", "from __main__ import e") 0.086038238242508669 Tuple with three values, using a local key: >>> timeit("z = d[key]", "from __main__ import d, key") 0.11187358437882722 List with three values, using a local key: >>> timeit("z = e[key]", "from __main__ import e, key") 0.088604143037173344 First of all, is there anything about these little timeit tests that would render them invalid? I ran each several times, to make sure no random system event had thrown them off, and the results were almost identical. It would appear that dictionaries offer the best balance between performance and readability, with classes coming in second. This is unfortunate, since, for my purposes, I also need the object to be sequence-like; hence my choice of namedtuple. Lists are substantially faster, but constant keys are unmaintainable; I'd have to create a bunch of index-constants, i.e. KEY_1 = 1, KEY_2 = 2, etc. which is also not ideal. Am I stuck with these choices, or is there an alternative that I've missed?

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  • Set bounds for markers generated by jQuery table loop?

    - by abemonkey
    I have some jQuery code that goes through a table of location results and puts corresponding pins on a map. I am having trouble figuring out how to set the bounds so that when it goes through the loop and generates the markers on the map that it zooms and pans to fit the markers in the view. I've tried implementing code from some similar questions on this site but nothing seems to be working. Please let me know what code I should be using and where the heck I should put it in my script: $(function() { var latlng = new google.maps.LatLng(44, 44); var settings = { zoom: 15, center: latlng, disableDefaultUI: false, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP }; var map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map_canvas"), settings); $('tr').each(function(i) { var the_marker = new google.maps.Marker({ title: $(this).find('.views-field-title').text(), map: map, clickable: true, position: new google.maps.LatLng( parseFloat($(this).find('.views-field-latitude').text()), parseFloat($(this).find('.views-field-longitude').text()) ) }); var infowindow = new google.maps.InfoWindow({ content: $(this).find('.views-field-title').text() + $(this).find('.adr').text() }); new google.maps.event.addListener(the_marker, 'click', function() { infowindow.open(map, the_marker); }); }); }); `

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  • How can I make this jQuery plugin chainable after all image load events have completed?

    - by BumbleB2na
    [UPDATE] Solution I decided on: Decided that passing in a callback to the plugin will take care of firing an event once all images have completed loading. Chaining is also still possible. Updated Fiddle I am building a chainable jQuery plugin that can load images dynamically. (View the following code as a JSFiddle) Html: <img data-img-src="http://www.lubasf.com/blog/wp-content/uploads/2009/03/gnome.jpg" style="display: none" /> <img data-img-src="http://buffered.io/uploads/2008/10/gnome.jpg" style="display: none" /> Instead of adding in a src attribute, I give these images a data-img-src attribute. My plugin uses the value of that to fill the src. Also, these images are hidden to begin with. jQuery plugin: (function(jQuery) { jQuery.fn.loadImages = function() { var numToLoad = jQuery(this).length; var numLoaded = 0; jQuery(this).each(function() { if(jQuery(this).attr('src') == undefined) { return jQuery(this).load(function() { numLoaded++; if(numToLoad == numLoaded) return this; // attempt at making this plugin // chainable, after all .load() // events have completed. }).attr('src', jQuery(this).attr('data-img-src')); } else { numLoaded++; if(numToLoad == numLoaded) return this; // attempt at making this plugin // chainable, after all .load() // events have completed. } }); // this works if uncommented, but returns before all .load() events have completed //return this; }; })(jQuery); // I want to chain a .fadeIn() after all images have completed loading $('img[data-img-src]').loadImages().fadeIn(); Is there a way to make this plugin chainable, and have my fadeIn() happen after all images have loaded?

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  • f:ajax not working on tomcat7/eclipse

    - by mntgoat
    I have this very simple code which works fine until I add a f:ajax tag. Code that works: <h:commandButton disabled="#{!feature.available}" class="featureButton" value="#{feature.selected ? 'selected': feature.available? 'available':'unavailable'} " style="vertical-align: top;" action="#{Bean.toggleFeature(feature)}"> </h:commandButton> Code that doesn't work: <h:commandButton disabled="#{!feature.available}" class="featureButton" value="#{feature.selected ? 'selected': feature.available? 'available':'unavailable'} " style="vertical-align: top;" action="#{Bean.toggleFeature(feature)}"> <f:ajax event="click" /> </h:commandButton> As far as I can tell the jsf.js file is loaded fine, this is automatically added by the facelet servlet to the head of my rendered document <script type="text/javascript" src="/www/javax.faces.resource/jsf.js.xhtml?ln=javax.faces"></script> and I was even able to do a jsf.ajax.request directly from javascript and got the page to rerender something. I am using mojarra 2.1.13, tomcat 7, eclipse juno, java 7. Any thoughts on what I might be doing wrong or how I might be able to troubleshoot this issue? debugging it in javascript didn't help at all. Thanks.

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  • S3 browser upload via POST: unable to handle errors gracefully

    - by samf
    I am writing an app where I want the customer to be able to upload to Amazon S3 straight from the browser. I can make this work just fine. But when errors occur, I want to handle them more gracefully than splattering an XML document on the customer's screen. I have a scheme that I think would work, but it's failing. Here's what I'm trying: Create a form to do the upload, and store the form on S3 itself, in the same domain as the "action" attribute of the form. Redirect the customer to this form. Now their browser is sitting on https://<bucket>.s3.amazonaws.com/something. The page contains a hidden iframe. The form sets its target to the iframe. The load event handler looks at the contents of the iframe, and acts upon it. So, something like this: <iframe id="foo" name="foo" style="display: none" /> <form target="foo" action="https://<bucket>.s3.amazonaws.com/"> <input type="hidden" name="..." value="..." /> <input type="file" name="file" /> </form> with this javascript (using jquery): function handler() { var message = $("#foo").contents().find('message').text(); alert(message); } $("#foo").load(handler); Using firebug, I can see that the iframe contains an XML document, that contains a "message" node. However, the .find('message') always fails to find anything within the XML document. Notice that the action of the form has the same domain, port, and scheme as the document itself. So, I don't think that I should be running afoul of the same-origin policy. Right? But it fails every time. This is using Firefox and Google Chrome browsers. Thanks for any advice!

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  • Detect that the onscreen keyboard has been displayed on Windows Phone 7

    - by David_001
    Simple question: How do I detect that the onscreen keyboard has been displayed on windows mobile 7? Is there an event I can add a listener to? It takes up about half the screen and I want to scroll the view up when it gets displayed... EDIT: A comment below indicates more clearly what I'm trying to do: I have a textbox input, and as the user types into it an autocomplete dropdown appears below it (like google suggest). By default, the active control (the textbox) scrolls into view when focussed, and the onscreen keyboard is directly below it. The onscreen keyboard appears in front of my autocomplete dropdown - what I want to do is make the screen scroll a little further up, so there's some room for my dropdown to be shown. The windows phone UI design guidelines say: "When the keyboard is deployed, the application should scroll to ensure the active edit control and the caret are in view". This happens fine, it's just the non-active dropdown gets hidden behind the onscreen keyboard. The guidelines also say that an application can choose to show the onscreen keyboard, and can also choose to close it. At the moment i'm stuck, and I don't think (based on my research and the replies to this question) that it's possible to detect that the onscreen keyboard has been displayed. I'm moving my investigation to see if it's possible to determine the "visible area" of the page (width & height in pixels for example), and combine this with an onfocus for the textbox... not sure if this will prove fruitful though.

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  • How do I change the application background color at run-time in a Flex 3.5 application?

    - by Adam Tuttle
    I have a Flex 3.5 application that will serve multiple purposes, and as part of the visual changes that I'd like to make to indicate which mode the application is in, I want to change its background color. Currently, the application tag looks like this: <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" xmlns:com="ventures.view.component.*" xmlns:views="ventures.view.*" layout="absolute" preinitialize="onPreInitialize()" creationComplete="onCreationComplete()" applicationComplete="onApplicationComplete()" click="onClick(event)" enabled="{(!chainController.generalLocked)}" backgroundGradientColors="[0xFFFFFF, 0xFFFFFF]" > I've tried using a binding, for both the backgroundColor and backgroundGradientColors attributes: <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" ... backgroundColor="{app_background_color}" > —and— <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" ... backgroundGradientColors="{app_background_color}" > but for the former binding is not allowed, and for the latter there is a warning that: Data binding will not be able to detect assignments to "app_background_color". I also ran across this page which seems to indicate that I could do it with the setStyle() method, but the documentation seems to indicate that this method is only available for components, not the main canvas. I suppose I could wrap everything in a <mx:Canvas></mx:Canvas> specificially for this purpose, but that seems wasteful—like Div-itis in HTML or something. What's the best way to change the main application background color at run-time?

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  • How do I configure a mail server for use with JavaMail?

    - by bobby
    I'm trying to work with the below code: import javax.servlet.*; import javax.servlet.http.*; import java.io.*; import javax.mail.*; import javax.mail.internet.*; // important import javax.mail.event.*; // important import java.net.*; import java.util.*; public class servletmail extends HttpServlet { public void doPost(HttpServletRequest request,HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { PrintWriter out=response.getWriter(); response.setContentType("text/html"); try { Properties props=new Properties(); props.put("mail.smtp.host","localhost"); // 'localhost' for testing Session session1 = Session.getDefaultInstance(props,null); String s1 = request.getParameter("text1"); //sender (from) String s2 = request.getParameter("text2"); String s3 = request.getParameter("text3"); String s4 = request.getParameter("area1"); Message message =new MimeMessage(session1); message.setFrom(new InternetAddress(s1)); message.setRecipients(Message.RecipientType.TO,InternetAddress.parse(s2,false)); message.setSubject(s3); message.setText(s4); Transport.send(message); out.println("mail has been sent"); } catch(Exception ex) { System.out.println("ERROR....."+ex); } } } I'm using mail.jar and activation.jar. But I can't understand how I should configure it with a mail server. Which mail server should I use? Will I be able to send an email using above code? What are the requirements a mail server? How should I configure it?

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  • URL Rewrite ASP.net

    - by wandos
    i have an asp.net website where i need to use URL re-write so i have written an HTTP module and i have implemented it and it works correctly the only problem is when the page redirect to its corresponding address the images and the styles are not loaded. here is the http module: // Your BeginRequest event handler. private void Application_BeginRequest(Object source, EventArgs e) { HttpApplication application = (HttpApplication)source; string URL = application.Request.Url.ToString(); //int pid = Convert.ToInt32(application.Request.QueryString["pid"]); if ((URL.ToLower().Contains(".aspx")) || (URL.ToLower().Contains(".js")) || (URL.ToLower().Contains(".css")) || (URL.ToLower().Contains(".gif")) || (URL.ToLower().Contains(".png")) || (URL.ToLower().Contains(".jpeg")) || (URL.ToLower().Contains(".jpe")) || (URL.ToLower().Contains(".jpg")) || (URL.ToLower().Contains(".ashx"))) return; else { string mname = URL.Substring(URL.LastIndexOf("/") + 1).ToString(); Merchand ms = merchantDB.GetMerchant(mname); HttpContext context = application.Context; if (ms != null) { string url = "~/pages/Merchant.aspx?mid=" + ms.MerchandID + "&catid=" + ms.MainCategory + "&subcatid=0"; context.RewritePath(VirtualPathUtility.ToAppRelative(url)); } else { //(""); string url = "~/pages/default.aspx"; context.RewritePath(VirtualPathUtility.ToAppRelative(url)); } } } when i open the page from it normal URL it opens fine, but when i use the url rewrite it open but with out images or styles. when i open firebug i get an error that the css and the javascript are not found

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  • Custom API requirement

    - by Jonathan.Peppers
    We are currently working on an API for an existing system. It basically wraps some web-requests as an easy-to-use library that 3rd party companies should be able to use with our product. As part of the API, there is an event mechanism where the server can call back to the client via a constantly-running socket connection. To minimize load on the server, we want to only have one connection per computer. Currently there is a socket open per process, and that could eventually cause load problems if you had multiple applications using the API. So my question is: if we want to deploy our API as a single standalone assembly, what is the best way to fix our problem? A couple options we thought of: Write an out of process COM object (don't know if that works in .Net) Include a second exe file that would be required for events, it would have to single-instance itself, and open a named pipe or something to communicate through multiple processes Extract this exe file from an embedded resource and execute it None of those really seem ideal. Any better ideas?

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  • jquery tabs - load url in current tab?

    - by BigDogsBarking
    I'm trying to figure out how to load the url each tab links to inside the tab area onclick, and have been trying to following the docs at http://docs.jquery.com/UI/Tabs#...open_links_in_the_current_tab_instead_of_leaving_the_page, but am clearly not getting it.... This is the HTML markup: <div class="tabs"> <ul class="tabNav"> <li><a href="/1.html#tabone">Tab One</a></li> <li><a href="/2.html#tabtwo">Tab Two</a></li> <li><a href="/3.html#tabthree">Tab Three</a></li> </ul> </div> <div id="tabone"> <!-- Trying to load content from 1.html in this div on click --> </div> <div id="tabtwo"> <!-- Trying to load content from 2.html in this div on click --> </div> <div id="tabthree"> <!-- Trying to load content from 3.html in this div on click --> </div> And this is the jquery I'm trying to use: $(".tabs").tabs({ load: function(event, ui) { $('a', ui.panel).click(function() { $(ui.panel).load(this.href); return false; }); } }); I know I've got some part of this wrong.... I've gone through several iterations (too many to post), and all I get is a blank div... I don't know... Feeling a bit confused here... Help?

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  • cakephp group based permissions

    - by Elwhis
    Hey guys, I would like to have group based restrictions that would allow users to access only specified parts of the web. I am new to the whole ACL stuff and I didn't quite get it from the manual :/ therefore I would like to ask some questions. But before any questions, my routes look like this: Router::connect('/', array('controller' => 'users', 'action' => 'login')); Router::connect('/admin/:controller/:action/*', array('prefix' => 'admin', 'admin' => true)); Router::connect('/registered/:controller/:action/*', array('prefix' => 'registered', 'registered' => true)); 1.) How do I restrict users from any other group than Administrator to access ONLY the /registered/ part of the web 2.) How do I prevent anyone from using the default addresses like www.example.com/users/add on a global scale (I want only www.example.com/admin/users/add or www.example.com/registered/users/add type of addresses)? This kind of addresses is not event set in the routes.php but they still work. Any answers apprecated

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  • Why do touches only get detected ABOVE my CCBitmapFontAtlas and not ON it? (cocos2d)

    - by RexOnRoids
    I am detecting touches for CCBitmapFontAtlas (just text labels) as shown in the code below. But it seems that touches are only detected slightly ABOVE the CCBitmapFontAtlases? Did something get screwed when converting between coordinate systems? (*Note objects label1, label2, etc are CCBitmapFontAtlas) - (void)ccTouchesEnded:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { for( UITouch *touch in touches ) { CGPoint location = [touch locationInView:[touch view]]; location = [[CCDirector sharedDirector] convertToGL:location]; self.myGraphManager.isSliding = NO; CGRect rectLabel1 = CGRectMake(label1.position.x, label1.position.y, label1.contentSize.width, label1.contentSize.height); CGRect rectLabel2 = CGRectMake(label2.position.x, label2.position.y, label2.contentSize.width, label2.contentSize.height); CGRect rectLabel3 = CGRectMake(label3.position.x, label3.position.y, label3.contentSize.width, label3.contentSize.height); CGRect rectLabel4 = CGRectMake(label4.position.x, label4.position.y, label4.contentSize.width, label4.contentSize.height); CGRect rectLabel5 = CGRectMake(label5.position.x, label5.position.y, label5.contentSize.width, label5.contentSize.height); CGRect rectLabel6 = CGRectMake(label6.position.x, label6.position.y, label6.contentSize.width, label6.contentSize.height); if(CGRectContainsPoint(rectLabel1, location)){ NSLog(@"Label 1 Touched"); }else if(CGRectContainsPoint(rectLabel2, location)){ NSLog(@"Label 2 Touched"); }else if(CGRectContainsPoint(rectLabel3, location)){ NSLog(@"Label 3 Touched"); }else if(CGRectContainsPoint(rectLabel4, location)){ NSLog(@"Label 4 Touched"); }else if(CGRectContainsPoint(rectLabel5, location)){ NSLog(@"Label 5 Touched"); }else if(CGRectContainsPoint(rectLabel6, location)){ NSLog(@"Label 6 Touched"); } } }

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  • What could the negative effects be of attaching to a process as a debugger?

    - by I_like_traffic_lights
    Background A client of mine has a major problem. They have a CRM system, which was created by a single person over a period of 9 years. Unfortunatelly, a few weeks ago, this person died. I believe the company has learned their lesson, and they have started a project of rewriting the CRM system to a modern platform. I have been hired to create a solution in the meantime to make adaptations to the CRM system. I have given up understanding the code, as this would take too long. My solution, is therefore, to make a window and show this on top of the CRM system, whenever this CRM system is showing. This part works fine, but my major problem is extracting the data from the CRM system. Proposed solution After excluding 6 approaches, including runtime code injection, memory searching, database integration, I have arrived at attaching to the process as a debugger, so I get notified about event, and use this in combination with reading from process memory. This approach seems to work, but I am worried about possible side-effects of this approach. Question What are the dangers of using this in a production environment, where there are 250 employees utilizing the system. Needless to say, I cannot risk reducing the already shaky stability of the system.

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  • Why does the BackgroundWorker in WPF need Thread.Sleep to update UI controls?

    - by user364060
    namespace WpfApplication1 { /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for Window1.xaml /// </summary> public partial class Window1 : Window { BackgroundWorker bgWorker; Action<int> myProgressReporter; public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); bgWorker = new BackgroundWorker(); bgWorker.DoWork += bgWorker_Task; bgWorker.RunWorkerCompleted += myWorker_RunWorkerCompleted; // hook event to method bgWorker.ProgressChanged += bgWorker_ReportProgress; // hook the delegate to the method myProgressReporter = updateProgress; bgWorker.WorkerReportsProgress = true; } private void myWorker_RunWorkerCompleted(object sender, System.ComponentModel.RunWorkerCompletedEventArgs e) { object result; result = e.Result; MessageBox.Show(result.ToString()); progressBar1.Value = 0; button1.IsEnabled = true; } private void bgWorker_ReportProgress(object sender, ProgressChangedEventArgs e) { System.Windows.Threading.Dispatcher disp = button1.Dispatcher; disp.BeginInvoke(myProgressReporter,e.ProgressPercentage); //Dispatcher.BeginInvoke(myProgressReporter, DispatcherPriority.Normal, e.ProgressPercentage); } private void updateProgress(int progressPercentage) { progressBar1.Value = progressPercentage; } private void bgWorker_Task(Object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { int total = 1000; for (int i = 1; i <= total; i++) { if (bgWorker.WorkerReportsProgress) { int p = (int)(((float)i / (float)total) * 100); bgWorker.ReportProgress(p); } Thread.Sleep(1); // Without Thread.Sleep(x) the main thread freezes or gives stackoverflow exception, } e.Result = "Completed"; } private void button1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { if(!bgWorker.IsBusy) bgWorker.RunWorkerAsync("This is a background process"); button1.IsEnabled = false; } } }

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  • Why can't multiple programmatically generated FilteringSelect's share a single store?

    - by yarmiganosca
    Before you ask, a MultiSelect wouldn't really be intuitive for the user in this instance. I have an object, with an array as its value for 'items', that's provided on the page in a var statement. I also have a function that generates and places dijit.form.FilteringSelects and is triggered on a certain button's click event. Every one of these selects should have the aformentioned object as their 'store' attribute. If I write store: new dojo.data.ItemFileReadStore({ data: object_name }), in my select initialization code, I get weird behavior: I click the generate button 2 times and get 2 FilteringSelects (call them A,B). I click on B's dropdown piece, and the menu appears attached to B. Then I click on A's dropdown button, and menu appears attached to A. If I then go back and click on B's dropdown button again, nothing happens (well not nothing; an error gets thrown). However, if instead, I have data: {items: array_literal} everything works fine, and I switch back and forth between the 2 as much as I want. As the data: statement appears once in the javascript code, this isn't a big deal (now that I have a workaround at least). It is however, exceedingly odd. I attempted to dig into the source code, to no avail.Anybody have any idea what's going on here?

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  • Windows Form UserControl design time properties

    - by Raffaeu
    I am struggling with a UserControl. I have a UserControl that represent a Pager and it has a Presenter object property exposed in this way: [Browsable(false)] [DesignSerializationAttribute(DesignSerializationAttribute.Hidden)] public object Presenter { get; set; } The code itself works as I can drag and drop a control into a Windows From without having Visual Studio initializing this property. Now, because in the Load event of this control I call a method of the Presenter that at run-time is null ... I have introduced this additional code: public override void OnLoad(...) { if (this.DesignMode) { base.OnLoad(e); return; } presenter.OnViewReady(); } Now, every time I open a Window that contains this UserControl, Visual Studio modifies the Windows designer code. So, as soon as I open it, VS ask me if I want to save it ... and of course, if I add a control to the Window, it doesn't keep the changes ... As soon as I remove the UserControl Pager the problem disappears ... How should I tackle that in the proper way? I just don't want that the presenter property is initialized at design time as it is injected at runtime ...

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  • localhost yes but phpmyadmin blank

    - by Giskin Leow
    WAMP people having problem with both localhost and phpmyadmin loads blank which usually the port problem. Mine is only phpmyadmin blank. sqlbuddy and phpinfo no problem. tried uninstall reinstalled wamp. tried xampp, same problem, all works well, not phpmyadmin. mysql log: 120905 8:03:08 [Note] Plugin 'FEDERATED' is disabled. 120905 8:03:08 InnoDB: The InnoDB memory heap is disabled 120905 8:03:08 InnoDB: Mutexes and rw_locks use Windows interlocked functions 120905 8:03:08 InnoDB: Compressed tables use zlib 1.2.3 120905 8:03:09 InnoDB: Initializing buffer pool, size = 128.0M 120905 8:03:09 InnoDB: Completed initialization of buffer pool 120905 8:03:09 InnoDB: highest supported file format is Barracuda. 120905 8:03:09 InnoDB: Waiting for the background threads to start 120905 8:03:10 InnoDB: 1.1.8 started; log sequence number 1595675 120905 8:03:11 [Note] Server hostname (bind-address): '(null)'; port: 3306 120905 8:03:11 [Note] - '(null)' resolves to '::'; 120905 8:03:11 [Note] - '(null)' resolves to '0.0.0.0'; 120905 8:03:11 [Note] Server socket created on IP: '0.0.0.0'. 120905 8:03:13 [Note] Event Scheduler: Loaded 0 events 120905 8:03:13 [Note] wampmysqld: ready for connections. apache log [Wed Sep 05 08:03:09 2012] [notice] Apache/2.2.22 (Win32) PHP/5.4.3 configured -- resuming normal operations [Wed Sep 05 08:03:09 2012] [notice] Server built: May 13 2012 13:32:42 [Wed Sep 05 08:03:09 2012] [notice] Parent: Created child process 3812 [Wed Sep 05 08:03:09 2012] [notice] Child 3812: Child process is running [Wed Sep 05 08:03:09 2012] [notice] Child 3812: Acquired the start mutex. [Wed Sep 05 08:03:09 2012] [notice] Child 3812: Starting 64 worker threads. [Wed Sep 05 08:03:09 2012] [notice] Child 3812: Starting thread to listen on port 80. [Wed Sep 05 08:03:09 2012] [notice] Child 3812: Starting thread to listen on port 80. [Wed Sep 05 08:04:14 2012] [error] [client 127.0.0.1] File does not exist: C:/wamp/www/favicon.ico [Wed Sep 05 08:09:50 2012] [error] [client 127.0.0.1] File does not exist: C:/wamp/www/favicon.ico [Wed Sep 05 08:41:03 2012] [error] [client 127.0.0.1] File does not exist: C:/wamp/www/phpMyAdmin

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  • TDD approach for complex function

    - by jamie
    I have a method in a class for which they are a few different outcomes (based upon event responses etc). But this is a single atomic function which is to used by other applications. I have broken down the main blocks of the functionality that comprise this function into different functions and successfully taken a Test Driven Development approach to the functionality of each of these elements. These elements however aren't exposed for other applications would use. And so my question is how can/should i easily approach a TDD style solution to verifying that the single method that should be called does function correctly without a lot of duplication in testing or lots of setup required for each test? I have considered / looked at moving the blocks of functionality into a different class and use Mocking to simulate the responses of the functions used but it doesn't feel right and the individual methods need to write to variables within the main class (it felt really heath robinson). The code roughly looks like this (i have removed a lot of parameters to make things clearer along with a fair bit of irrelevant code). public void MethodToTest(string parameter) { IResponse x = null; if (function1(parameter)) { if (!function2(parameter,out x)) { function3(parameter, out x); } } // ... // more bits of code here // ... if (x != null) { x.Success(); } }

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  • JQuery remove() not working with a two word id

    - by Programer
    I have a button <button onclick="takedown()"> take down </button> that creates a H1 and button with the id of the text in my text field and h1 at the end for the h1 and button at the end for the button the button has a onclick onclick="delete()". This is that function function takedown(){ note = document.getElementById("noteinput").value; idh1 = note + "h1"; idbutton = note + "button"; idcenter = note + "center"; $('<center id="' + idcenter + '"> <h1 id="' + idh1 + '">' + note + '</h1> <button id="'+ idbutton +'" onclick="deletenote()"> Delete </button> </center>').appendTo("body"); } For the delete function the remove() works only if the id of the button and the h1 is one word. function deletenote(){ // First setting var idbuttondelete = event.target.id; var idh1delete = idbuttondelete.replace("button", "h1"); // Removing the button, h1,center $('#' + idbuttondelete).remove(); $('#' + idh1delete).remove(); } Does anybody know whats wrong or how to use JQuery to delete something if it has a two word id.

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  • ASP.NET - Google Chrome caching DropDownList selections

    - by Fake
    I'm experiencing what seems to be a caching issue with Google Chrome and Safari on my cart page. In the cart there are 2 dropdown lists. When you hit the checkout button after changing the values in the dropdown lists, it commits what's selected in the lists to the database. It's a little bit hard to explain the unexpected behavior so I will try to write it out step by step with an illustration of my problem. Lets say the first dropdown list has the values of: VALUE1 VALUE2 VALUE3 And the second dropdown list has the values of: DUMBO1 DUMBO2 DUMBO3 I add an item to my cart. Screen Says: VALUE1, DUMBO1 Database Says: VALUE1, DUMBO1 I hit Checkout. Database says: VALUE1, DUMBO1 (I can't see the dropdown lists after I hit checkout because i'm not at the cart page) I hit the back button. Screen Says: VALUE1, DUMBO1 Database Says: VALUE1, DUMBO1 I drop down the VALUE1 combo and select VALUE2, VALUE2 is selected momentarily and then the site posts back and VALUE1 is re-selected in the drop down list (from being reloaded from the DB) MOMENTARILY Screen Says: VALUE2, DUMBO1 Database Says: VALUE1, DUMBO1 THEN AFTER POSTBACK FROM DROPDOWNLIST_SELECTIONCHANGED EVENT Screen Says: VALUE1, DUMBO1 Database Says: VALUE1, DUMBO1 Hit Checkout. Database Says VALUE1 ,DUMBO1 (I can't see the dropdown lists after I hit checkout because i'm not at the cart page) Go back. Screen Says: VALUE2, DUMBO1 Database Says: VALUE1, DUMBO1 So it appears that it's remembering my selection of VALUE2 even though it jumped back to VALUE1 before I checked out. It seems to be a caching problem, however I've got some no-cache code to prevent caching of that page that works great in firefox and internet explorer but seems to be failing in Chrome and Safari. I'm basically returning in the headers for the cart page: no-cache, no-store, and must-revalidate to attempt to prevent caching, but based on this scenario it seems to be caching the page anyway and not reloading it when I hit the back button. I am open to any solutions or suggestions at this point. Thanks!

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  • Error logging/handling on application basis?

    - by Industrial
    Hi everybody, We have a web server that we're about to launch a number of applications on. On the server-level we have managed to work out the error handling with the help of Hyperic to notify the person who is in charge in the event of a database/memcached server is going down. However, we are still in the need of handling those eventual error and log events that happen on application level to improve the applications for our customers, before the customers notices. So, what's then a good solution to do this? Utilizing PHP:s own error log would quickly become cloggered if we would run a big number of applications at the same time. It's probably isn't the best option if you like structure. One idea is to build a off-site lightweight error-handling application that has a REST/JSON API that receives encrypted and serialized arrays of error messages and stores them into a database. Maybe it could, depending on the severity of the error also be directly inputted into our bug tracker. Could be a few well spent hours, but it seems like a quite fragile solution and I am sure that there's better more-reliable alternatives out there already. Thanks,

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  • when to use Hibernate vs. Simple ResultSets for small application

    - by luke
    I just started working on upgrading a small component in a distributed java application. The main application is a rather complicated applet/servlet combo running on JBoss and it extensively uses Hibernate for its DataAccess. The component i am working on however is very a very straightforward data importing service. Basically the workflow is Listen for a network event Parse the data packet, extract a set of identifiers Map the identifier set to a primary key in our database Parse the rest of the packet and insert items in a related table using the foreign key found in step 3 Repeat in the previous version of this component it used a hibernate based DAL, that is no longer usable for a variety of reasons (in particular it is EOL), so I am in charge of replacing the Data Access layer for this component. So on the one hand I think i should use Hibernate because that's what the rest of the application does, but on the other i think i should just use regular java.sql.* classes because my requirements are really straightforward and aren't expected to change any time soon. So my question is (and i understand it is subjective) at what point do you think that the added complexity of using an ORM tool (in terms of configuration, dependencies...) is worth it? UPDATE due to the way the DataAccesLayer for the main application was written (weird dependencies) i cannot easily use it, i would have to implement it myself.

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