Search Results

Search found 16914 results on 677 pages for 'single threaded'.

Page 565/677 | < Previous Page | 561 562 563 564 565 566 567 568 569 570 571 572  | Next Page >

• Summarising grouped records in a dataframe in R (...again)

  - by monch1962

  Hello all, (I tried to ask this question earlier today, but later realised I over-simplified the question; the answers I received were correct, but I couldn't use them because of my over-simplification of the problem in the original question. Here's my 2nd attempt...) I have a data frame in R that looks like: "Timestamp", "Source", "Target", "Length", "Content" 0.1 , P1 , P2 , 5 , "ABCDE" 0.2 , P1 , P2 , 3 , "HIJ" 0.4 , P1 , P2 , 4 , "PQRS" 0.5 , P2 , P1 , 2 , "ZY" 0.9 , P2 , P1 , 4 , "SRQP" 1.1 , P1 , P2 , 1 , "B" 1.6 , P1 , P2 , 3 , "DEF" 2.0 , P2 , P1 , 3 , "IJK" ... and I want to convert this to: "StartTime", "EndTime", "Duration", "Source", "Target", "Length", "Content" 0.1 , 0.4 , 0.3 , P1 , P2 , 12 , "ABCDEHIJPQRS" 0.5 , 0.9 , 0.4 , P2 , P1 , 6 , "ZYSRQP" 1.1 , 1.6 , 0.5 , P1 , P2 , 4 , "BDEF" ... Trying to put this into English, I want to group consecutive records with the same 'Source' and 'Target' together, then print out a single record per group showing the StartTime, EndTime & Duration (=EndTime-StartTime) for that group, along with the sum of the Lengths for that group, and a concatenation of the Content (which will all be strings) in that group. The TimeOffset values will always increase throughout the data frame. I had a look at melt/recast and have a feeling that it could be used to solve the problem, but couldn't get my head around the documentation. I suspect it's possible to do this within R, but I really don't know where to start. In a pinch I could export the data frame out and do it in e.g. Python, but I'd prefer to stay within R if possible. Thanks in advance for any assistance you can provide

  Read the article

• Multiple IntenseDebate Comment Counts

  - by Aristotle

  I just setup IntenseDebate on my blog this evening and am, for the most part, pleased with it. One thing I did see is that they offered me a small snippet to show the current number of comments: <script> var idcomments_acct = 'abcdefgef12345678mykey8675309acdc'; var idcomments_post_id; var idcomments_post_url; </script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://www.intensedebate.com/js/genericLinkWrapperV2.js"></script> This is nice, but what I would like to do is have something similar on my archives page where many posts are listed - not just one. Presently the page looks like this: Some Post TitleAuthor NameShort abstract from this post... Some Post TitleAuthor NameShort abstract from this post... I would like it to look like this: Some Post TitleAuthor NameShort abstract from this post...7 Comments Some Post TitleAuthor NameShort abstract from this post...3 Comments But I'm not exactly sure how I can do this with IntenseDebate. Do they offer any sort of method to gather the total number of comments for multiple pages from a single page?

  Read the article

• How to avoid hard-coded credentials in Sharepoint webpart?

  - by Bryan

  I am building a Sharepoint web part that will be used by all users, but can only be modified by admins. The web part connects to a web service which needs credentials. I hard coded credentials in the web part's code. query.Credentials = new System.Net.NetworkCredential("username", "password", "domain"); query is an instance of the web service class This may not be a good approach. In regard with security, the source code of the web apart is available to people who are not allowed to see the credentials. In normal ASP.net applications, credentials can be written into web.config and encrypted. A web part doesn't have a .config file associated. There is a application-level .config file for the whole sharepoint site, but I don't want to modify it for a single webpart. I wonder if there is a webpart-specific way to solve the credential problem? Say we provide a WebBrowsable property of that web part so that privileged users can modify credentials. If this is desirable, how should I make the property displayed in a password ("*") rather than in plain text? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Can not open ports in iptables on CentOS 5??

  - by abszero

  I am trying to open up ports in CentOS's firewall and am having a terrible go at it. I have followed the "HowTo" here: http://wiki.centos.org/HowTos/Network/IPTables as well as a few other places on the Net but I still can't get the bloody thing to work. Basically I wanted to get two things working: VNC and Apache over the internal network. The problem is that the firewall is blocking all attempts to connect to these services. Now if I issue service iptables stop and then try to access the server via VNC or hit the webserver everything works as expected. However the moment I turn iptables back on all of my access is blocked. Below is a truncated version of my iptables file as it appears in vi -A RH-Firewall-1-INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 5801 -j ACCEPT -A RH-Firewall-1-INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 5901 -j ACCEPT -A RH-Firewall-1-INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 6001 -j ACCEPT -A RH-Firewall-1-INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 5900 -j ACCEPT -A RH-Firewall-1-INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 80 -j ACCEPT Really I would just be happy if I could get port 80 opened up for Apache since I can do most stuff via putty but if I could figure out VNC as well that would be cool. As far as VNC goes there is just a single/user desktop that I am trying to connect to via: [ipaddress]:1 Any help would be greatly appreciated!

  Read the article

• How to define a batching routing service in WCF

  - by mattx

  I have designed a custom silverlight wcf channel that I want to leverage to selectively batch calls from the client to the server and possibly to cache on the client and short circuit calls. So far I'm just using this channel as a transport and sending the generic WCF messages that result to the WCF router service example here http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/cc500646.aspx?pr=blog to prototype this on the server side. So my scenario looks like this: IFooClient-MyTransportChannel-IRouterService-IFooService-Return I now need to be able to send more than one message per call through the router and carve them up and service them on the server side. Since this is just an experiment and I'm taking baby steps I will dispatch and service all the messages right away on the server side and return the batch of results. Immediately I noticed that simply making the router interface take Message[] instead of Message doesn't work due to serialization problems. I guess this makes sense. I'm not sure soap envelopes can contain other soap envelopes etc. Is there a simple way to take a collection of WCF Message objects and send them to a single method on a service where they can be split up and forwarded as appropriate? If not I'd love suggestions on how I should approach this. I want to have minimal work to do on the router service side so the goal should be to get as close to being able to "slice and forward" as possible.

  Read the article

• Django IntegrityError: foreign key violation upon delete

  - by Lukasz Korzybski

  I have Order and Shipment model. Shipment has a foreign key to Order. class Order(...): ... class Shipment() order = m.ForeignKey('Order') ... Now in one of my views I want do delete order object along with all related objects. So I invoke order.delete(). I have Django 1.0.4, PostgreSQL 8.4 and I use transaction middleware, so whole request is enclosed in single transaction. The problem is that upon order.delete() I get: ... File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/backends/__init__.py", line 28, in _commit return self.connection.commit() IntegrityError: update or delete on table "main_order" violates foreign key constraint "main_shipment_order_id_fkey" on table "main_shipment" DETAIL: Key (id)=(45) is still referenced from table "main_shipment". I checked in connection.queries that proper queries are executed in proper order. First shipment is deleted, after that django executes delete on order row: {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_shipment" WHERE "id" IN (17)'}, {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_order" WHERE "id" IN (45)'} Foreign key have ON DELETE NO ACTION (default) and is initially deferred. I don't know why I get foreign key constraint violation. I also tried to register pre_delete signal and manually delete shipment objects before delete on order is called, but it resulted in the same error. I can change ON DELETE behaviour for this key in Postgres but it would be just a hack, I wonder if anyone has a better idea what's going on here. There is also a small detail, my Order model inherits from Cart model, so it actually doesn't have id field but cart_ptr_id and after DELETE on order is executed there is also DELETE on cart, but it seems unrelated? to the shipment-order problem so I simplified it in the example.

  Read the article

• Same session and session ID for different subdomains in Grails project - How can I do that?

  - by fluxon

  I am currently working on a project that supports multiple languages. In order to be seo friendly, I am trying to redirect users subdomains corresponding to their locale (or their preferred language). I.e., my projects's url is mydomain.com and I work with the subdomains en.mydomain.com, es.mydomain.com, de.mydomain.com, fr.mydomain.com ... you get the idea. All subdomains are served by the same grails app for now. What happens is that my grails project maintains different sessions (as seen by the session ids) for every single subdomain, hence information is lost, when a user switches between languages. I had not forseen that. :( How can I explicitly set the session identifier? I would like it to be based on just mydomain.com. I got the hint that Apache Tomcat offers something like <Context sessionCookiePath="/" sessionCookieDomain=".mydomain.com"> , but that does not help for the devel environment etc. Any hints? Have you tried storing session information in the DB? This is sometimes used for load-balancing purposes and might help here as well?! Help is highly appreciated (as always)! Cheers!

  Read the article

• git: remove 2nd commit

  - by cwolves

  I'm trying to remove the 2nd commit to a repo. At this point I could just blow away the .git dir and re-do it, but I'm curious how to do this... I've deleted commits before, but apparently never the 2nd one :) > git log commit c39019e4b08497406c53ceb532f99801793205ca Author: Me Date: Thu Mar 22 14:02:41 2012 -0700 Initializing registry directories commit 535dce28f1c68e8af9d22bc653aca426fb7825d8 Author: Me Date: Tue Jan 31 21:04:13 2012 -0800 First Commit > git rebase -i HEAD~2 fatal: Needed a single revision invalid upstream HEAD~2 > git rebase -i HEAD~1 at which point I get in my editor: pick c39019e Initializing registry directories # Rebase 535dce2..c39019e onto 535dce2 # # Commands: # p, pick = use commit # r, reword = use commit, but edit the commit message # e, edit = use commit, but stop for amending # s, squash = use commit, but meld into previous commit # f, fixup = like "squash", but discard this commit's log message # x, exec = run command (the rest of the line) using shell # # If you remove a line here THAT COMMIT WILL BE LOST. # However, if you remove everything, the rebase will be aborted. # Now my problem is that I can't just blow away this 2nd commit since "if you remove everything, the rebase will be aborted"

  Read the article

• Which fieldtype is best for storing PRICE values?

  - by BerggreenDK

  Hi there I am wondering whats the best "price field" in MSSQL for a shoplike structure? Looking at this overview: http://www.teratrax.com/sql_guide/data_types/sql_server_data_types.html We have datatypes called money, smallmoney, then we have decimal/numeric and lastly float and real Name, memory/disk-usage and value ranges: Money: 8 bytes (values: -922,337,203,685,477.5808 to +922,337,203,685,477.5807) Smallmoney: 4 bytes (values: -214,748.3648 to +214,748.3647) Decimal: 9 [default, min. 5] bytes (values: -10^38 +1 to 10^38 -1 ) Float: 8 bytes (values: -1.79E+308 to 1.79E+308 ) Real: 4 bytes (values: -3.40E+38 to 3.40E+38 ) My question is: is it really wise to store pricevalues in those types? what about eg. INT? Int: 4 bytes (values: -2,147,483,648 to 2,147,483,647) Lets say a shop uses dollars, they have cents, but I dont see prices being $49.2142342 so the use of a lot of decimals showing cents seems waste of SQL bandwidth. Secondly, most shops wouldn't show any prices near 200.000.000 (not in normal webshops at least... unless someone is trying to sell me a famous tower in Paris) So why not go for an int? An int is fast, its only 4 bytes and you can easily make decimals, by saving values in cents instead of dollars and then divide when you present the values. The other approach would be to use smallmoney which is 4 bytes too, but this will require the math part of the CPU to do the calc, where as Int is integer power... on the downside you will need to divide every single outcome. Are there any "currency" related problems with regionalsettings when using smallmoney/money fields? what will these transfer too in C#/.NET ? Any pros/cons? Go for integer prices or smallmoney or some other? Whats does your experience tell?

  Read the article

• (Oracle) How get total number of results when using a pagination query?

  - by BestPractices

  I am using Oracle 10g and the following paradigm to get a page of 15 results as a time (so that when the user is looking at page 2 of a search result, they see records 16-30). select * from ( select rownum rnum, a.* from (my_query) a where rownum <= 30 ) where rnum > 15; Right now I'm having to run a separate SQL statement to do a "select count" on "my_query" in order to get the total number of results for my_query (so that I can show it to the user and use it to figure out total number of pages, etc). Is there any way to get the total number of results without doing this via a second query, i.e. by getting it from above query? I've tried adding "max(rownum)", but it doesn't seem to work (I get an error [ORA-01747] that seems to indicate it doesnt like me having the keyword rownum in the group by). My rationale for wanting to get this from the original query rather than doing it in a separate SQL statement is that "my_query" is an expensive query so I'd rather not run it twice (once to get the count, and once to get the page of data) if I dont have to; but whatever solution I can come up with to get the number of results from within a single query (and at the same time get the page of data I need) should not add much if any additional overhead, if possible. Please advise. Here is exactly what I'm trying to do for which I receive an ORA-01747 error because I believe it doesnt like me having ROWNUM in the group by. Note, If there is another solution that doesnt use max(ROWNUM), but something else, that is perfectly fine too. This solution was my first thought as to what might work. SELECT * FROM (SELECT r.*, ROWNUM RNUM, max(ROWNUM) FROM (SELECT t0.ABC_SEQ_ID AS c0, t0.FIRST_NAME, t0.LAST_NAME, t1.SCORE FROM ABC t0, XYZ t1 WHERE (t0.XYZ_ID = 751) AND t0.XYZ_ID = t1.XYZ_ID ORDER BY t0.RANK ASC) r WHERE ROWNUM <= 30 GROUP BY r.*, ROWNUM) WHERE RNUM > 15

  Read the article

• Refactor link to show/hide a table row

  - by abatishchev

  I have a table with row which cab be hidden by user. It's implemented this way: Markup: <table> <tr> <td> <table style="margin-left: auto; text-align: right;"> <tr> <td class="stats-hide"> <a href="#" onclick="hideStats();">Hide</a> </td> <td class="stats-show" style="display: none;"> <a href="#" onclick="showStats();">Show</a> </td> </tr> </table> </td> </tr> <tr class="stats-hide"> <td> <!-- data --> </td> </tr> </table> And jQuery code: <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> function hideStats() { hideControls(true, $('.stats-hide')); hideControls(false, $('.stats-show')); } function showStats() { hideControls(false, $('.stats-hide')); hideControls(true, $('.stats-show')); } function hideControls(value, arr) { $(arr).each(function () { if (value) { $(this).hide(); } else { $(this).show(); } }); } </script> How to implement the same behavior with one, single link and one, probably, CSS class? My idea - store somewhere a boolean variable and toggle controls visibility relatively to this variable. Are there more?

  Read the article

• Efficient way to store order in mySQL for list of items

  - by ninumedia

  I want to code cleaner and more efficiently and I wanted to know any other suggestions for the following problem: I have a mySQL database that holds data about a set of photograph names. Oh, say 100 photograph names Table 1: (photos) has the following fields: photo_id, photo_name Ex data: 1 | sunshine.jpg 2 | cloudy.jpg 3 | rainy.jpg 4 | hazy.jpg ... Table 2: (categories) has the following fields: category_id, category_name, category_order Ex data: 1 | Summer Shots | 1,2,4 2 | Winter Shots | 2,3 3 | All Seasons | 1,2,3,4 ... Is it efficient to store the order of the photos in this manner per entry via comma delimited values? It's one approach I have seen used before but I wanted to know if something else is faster in run time. Using this way I don't think it is possible to do a direct INNER JOIN on the category table and photo table to get a single matched list of all the photographs per category. Ex: Summer shots - sunshine.jpg, cloudy.jpg, hazy.jpg because it was matched against 1,2,4 The iteration through all the categories and then the photos will have a O(n^2) and there has to be a better/faster way. Please educate me :)

  Read the article

• Elegantly determine if more than one boolean is "true"

  - by Ola Tuvesson

  I have a set of five boolean values. If more than one of these are true I want to excecute a particular function. What is the most elegant way you can think of that would allow me to check this condition in a single if() statement? Target language is C# but I'm interested in solutions in other languages as well (as long as we're not talking about specific built-in functions). One interesting option is to store the booleans in a byte, do a right shift and compare with the original byte. Something like if(myByte && (myByte 1)) But this would require converting the separate booleans to a byte (via a bitArray?) and that seems a bit (pun intended) clumsy... [edit]Sorry, that should have been if(myByte & (myByte - 1)) [/edit] Note: This is of course very close to the classical "population count", "sideways addition" or "Hamming weight" programming problem - but not quite the same. I don't need to know how many of the bits are set, only if it is more than one. My hope is that there is a much simpler way to accomplish this.

  Read the article

• How can I share an entity framework model across website users

  - by richardmoss

  Hello, Currently my website is based around MVC and the Entity Framework running against a SQL Server 2005 database. So far, it has all been running very smoothly, and I really enjoy MVC and its slimmer more concise code (and no huge viewstates or soul destroying postbacks ;)) Recently I was working on upgrading the site to use a simple forum system, and this is where I started running into problems. When I was testing the site using two different browsers, if I created or replied to a post in one browser, the other browser couldn't see the post. At the moment, each visitor to the site gets their own copy of the entity model, which I store in their session data. Obviously this is the problem as updates to one model aren't getting carried to the other. As a test, I tried storing a single copy of the model which all visitors would access by assigning the model to a static variable. This worked, and both browsers could see each others modifications. However, it had its side effects. For example, if I fired up both browsers at the same time and the model was initialized, one browser would crash, and the other would work fine, despite me using a locking object so in theory one of them should have been delayed until the model was ready (of course I could have implemented this wrong ;)). Also, originally this site did use one model for all visitors and when it was live, it frequently shut down - killing the IIS application pool while it did. Now I'm not sure if this was related, but I don't really want to reintroduce whatever bug I had that caused this shut down. So, my question is a simple one really - what is the best way of either using the same model for all website users so they all see updates, or if they do have separate copies (which I imagine will have a performance impact in time) how can the models detect changes in the database and update themselves according. Thanks in advance for any advice! Regards; Richard Moss

  Read the article

• Summarising grouped records in a dataframe in R

  - by monch1962

  Hello all, I have a data frame in R that looks like this: > TimeOffset, Source, Length > 0 1 1500 > 0.1 1 1000 > 0.2 1 50 > 0.4 2 25 > 0.6 2 3 > 1.1 1 1500 > 1.4 1 18 > 1.6 2 2500 > 1.9 2 18 > 2.1 1 37 > ... and I want to convert it to > TimeOffset, Source, Length > 0.2 1 2550 > 0.6 2 28 > 1.4 1 1518 > 1.9 2 2518 > ... Trying to put this into English, I want to group consecutive records with the same 'Source' together, then printing out a single record per group showing the highest time offset in that group, the source, and the sum of the lengths in that group. The TimeOffset values will always increase. I suspect this is possible in R, but I really don't know where to start. In a pinch I could export the data frame out and do it in e.g. Python, but I'd prefer to stay within R if possible. Thanks in advance for any assistance you can provide

  Read the article

• Merge computed data from two tables back into one of them

  - by Tyler McHenry

  I have the following situation (as a reduced example). Two tables, Measures1 and Measures2, each of which store an ID, a Weight in grams, and optionally a Volume in fluid onces. (In reality, Measures1 has a good deal of other data that is irrelevant here) Contents of Measures1: +----+----------+--------+ | ID | Weight | Volume | +----+----------+--------+ | 1 | 100.0000 | NULL | | 2 | 200.0000 | NULL | | 3 | 150.0000 | NULL | | 4 | 325.0000 | NULL | +----+----------+--------+ Contents of Measures2: +----+----------+----------+ | ID | Weight | Volume | +----+----------+----------+ | 1 | 75.0000 | 10.0000 | | 2 | 400.0000 | 64.0000 | | 3 | 100.0000 | 22.0000 | | 4 | 500.0000 | 100.0000 | +----+----------+----------+ These tables describe equivalent weights and volumes of a substance. E.g. 10 fluid ounces of substance 1 weighs 75 grams. The IDs are related: ID 1 in Measures1 is the same substance as ID 1 in Measures2. What I want to do is fill in the NULL volumes in Measures1 using the information in Measures2, but keeping the weights from Measures1 (then, ultimately, I can drop the Measures2 table, as it will be redundant). For the sake of simplicity, assume that all volumes in Measures1 are NULL and all volumes in Measures2 are not. I can compute the volumes I want to fill in with the following query: SELECT Measures1.ID, Measures1.Weight, (Measures2.Volume * (Measures1.Weight / Measures2.Weight)) AS DesiredVolume FROM Measures1 JOIN Measures2 ON Measures1.ID = Measures2.ID; Producing: +----+----------+-----------------+ | ID | Weight | DesiredVolume | +----+----------+-----------------+ | 4 | 325.0000 | 65.000000000000 | | 3 | 150.0000 | 33.000000000000 | | 2 | 200.0000 | 32.000000000000 | | 1 | 100.0000 | 13.333333333333 | +----+----------+-----------------+ But I am at a loss for how to actually insert these computed values into the Measures1 table. Preferably, I would like to be able to do it with a single query, rather than writing a script or stored procedure that iterates through every ID in Measures1. But even then I am worried that this might not be possible because the MySQL documentation says that you can't use a table in an UPDATE query and a SELECT subquery at the same time, and I think any solution would need to do that. I know that one workaround might be to create a new table with the results of the above query (also selecting all of the other non-Volume fields in Measures1) and then drop both tables and replace Measures1 with the newly-created table, but I was wondering if there was any better way to do it that I am missing.

  Read the article

• Database structure for ecommerce site

  - by imanc

  Hey Guys, I have been tasked with designing an ecommerce solution. The aspect that is causing me the most problems is the database. Currently the site consists of 10+ country based shops each with their own database (all residing on the same mysql instance). For the new site I'd rather all these shop databases be merged into one database so that all tables (products, orders, customers etc.) have a shop_id field. From a programming perspective this seems to make the most sense as we won't have to manage data across multiple databases. Currently the entire site generates about 120k orders a year, but is experiencing fairly heavy growth and we need to design a solution that will scale. In 5 years there may be more than a million orders per year and a database that contains 5 years order history (archiving maybe a solution here). The question is - do we use a single database, or do we keep the database-per-shop structure? I am currently trying to find supporting evidence for either avenue. The company I am designing the solution for prefer the per-shop database structure because they believe it will allow the sites to scale. But my argument is that the shop's database probably won't get that busy over the next few years that they exceed the capacity of a mysql database and a "no expenses spared" hardware set-up. I am wondering if anyone has any advice either way? Does anyone have experience with websites / ecommerce sites that have tables containing millions of records? I know there is probably not a clear answer here, but at what stage do we have too many records or too large table files to have a fast loading site? Also, if anyone has any advice on sources of information - books, websites, etc. where I can do further research, it would be highly appreciated! Cheers, imanc

  Read the article

• How do I update the UI during an event using ASP.NET?

  - by Phil Hale

  I'm a bit stuck with a problem. I feel like the solution should be fairly straight forward but I'm completely out of ideas for some reason. Here's the problem. I've got a user control with a couple of buttons. Think of them as 'On' and 'Off'. When either button is clicked an async method is called. If the method is successful an event is fired. Within the event I want to update the enabled property of the two buttons so that only a single button is clickable at any one time. The problem is that any changes I make to the properties are not shown on screen because the postback is already complete. I tried wrapping the buttons in an UpdatePanel but I get an "Update method can only be called on UpdatePanel with ID 'xxxx' before Render' error. I understand why the problem occurs but I can't think of a solution. Help! Ideally what I'd like to do is simply call a method within the event that will update the UI, but I don't know if that's possible.

  Read the article

• PHP script stops running arbitrarily with no errors.

  - by RobHardgood

  I was working on a fairly long script that seemed to stop running after about 20 minutes. After days of trying to figure out why, I decided to make a very simple script to see how long it would run without any complex code to confuse me. I found that the same thing was happening with this simple infinite loop. At some point between 15 and 25 minutes of running, it simply stopped. There is no error output at all. The bottom of the browser simply says "Done" and nothing else is processed. I've been over every single possible thing I could think of... set_time_limit, session.gc_maxlifetime in the php.ini as well as memory_limit and max_execution_time. The point that the script is stopped is never consistent. Sometimes it will stop at 15 minutes, sometimes 22 minutes, sometimes 17... But it's always long enough to be a PITA to test. Please, any help would be greatly appreciated. It is hosted on a 1and1 server. I contacted them and they couldn't help me... but I have a feeling they just didn't know enough.

  Read the article

• loading files through one file to hide locations

  - by Phil Jackson

  Hello all. Im currently doing a project in which my client does not want to location ( ie folder names and locations ) to be displayed. so I have done something like this: <link href="./?0000=css&0001=0001&0002=css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <link href="./?0000=css&0001=0002&0002=css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <script src="./?0000=js&0001=0000&0002=script" type="text/javascript"></script> </head> <body> <div id="wrapper"> <div id="header"> <div id="left_header"> <img src="./?0000=jpg&0001=0001&0002=pic" width="277" height="167" alt="" /> </div> <div id="right_header"> <div id="top-banner"></div> <ul id="navigation"> <li><a href="#" title="#" id="nav-home">Home</a></li> <li><a href="#" title="#">Signup</a></li> all works but my question being is or will this cause any complications i.e. speed of the site as all requests are being made to one single file and then loading in the appropriate data. Regards, Phil

  Read the article

• JSF2.0: variable list of custom component

  - by rattaman

  Hello Is there any way of using JSF2.0 in connection with variable lists of components? For example, lets say I have list o people that I would like to edit. They are presented on the page as list of components PersonEditor, which allow changing person data. Each editor is associated with single Person element. In order for this to work I need to perform following steps: On initial request: Get list of people For each person create PersonEditor and associate it with Person object. Fill editor's data. On user action: When user changes values and presses Save, data is processed by backing bean. I can either fill editor with data from list of people or bind it to the backing bean, but not at the same time, so I am stuck. I tried people.xhtml <ui:render value="#{bean.people}" var="person"> <example:personEditor person="#{person}"/> </ui:render> where personEditor.xhtml: a) proper association with person object, but no connection to backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{cc.attr.person.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> b) no association with person object, but there is connection to backing bean - there is no way to pass that person to the backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{editorBean.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> If I had each editor on separate page, I could pass the person id as url parameter (either using f:param or f:attribute) and initialize it accordingly. Is there any solution to this problem?

  Read the article

• How to filter what is shown in the for-each loop in XSL

  - by Denoteone

  I thought it would be as easy as tell the for-each to only select top_coach_sales_vw that has "Site" equal to "PB" but when I run the script it does not loop through any of the data in the XML. I am escaping the single quotes because it is part of a php echo. <xsl:for-each select="NewDataSet/top_coach_sales_vw[Site==\'PB\']"> <td><xsl:value-of select="name"/></td> <td><xsl:value-of select="Site"/></td> <td><xsl:value-of select="Status"/></td> </xsl:for-each> XML: <NewDataSet> <top_coach_sales_vw> <name>Mike</name> <Site>PB</Site> <State>Ready</State> </top_coach_sales_vw> <top_coach_sales_vw> <name>Bill</name> <Site>EL</Site> <State>Talking</State> </top_coach_sales_vw> <top_coach_sales_vw> <name>Ted</name> <Site>PB</Site> <State>Ready</State> </top_coach_sales_vw> </NewDataSet>

  Read the article

• Why might my PHP log file not entirely be text?

  - by Fletcher Moore

  I'm trying to debug a plugin-bloated Wordpress installation; so I've added a very simple homebrew logger that records all the callbacks, which are basically listed in a single, ultimately 250+ row multidimensional array in Wordpress (I can't use print_r() because I need to catch them right before they are called). My logger line is $logger->log("\t" . $callback . "\n"); The logger produces a dandy text file in normal situations, but at two points during this particular task it is adding something which causes my log file to no longer be encoded properly. Gedit (I'm on Ubuntu) won't open the file, claiming to not understand the encoding. In vim, the culprit corrupt callback (which I could not find in the debugger, looking at the array) is about in the middle and printed as ^@lambda_546 and at the end of file there's this cute guy ^M. The ^M and ^@ are blue in my vim, which has no color theme set for .txt files. I don't know what it means. I tried adding an is_string($callback) condition, but I get the same results. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• Mysql Performance Question - Essentially about normalizing efficiency

  - by freqmode

  Hi there. Just a quick question about database performance. I'll outline my site purpose below as background. I'm creating a dictionary site that saves the words users define to a database. What I'm wondering is whether or not to create a words table for each user or to keep one massive words table. This site will be used for entire schools so the single words table would be massive! The database structure is as follows: A user table with: User_ID PRIMARY KEY Username First Last Password Email Country Research Standings SendInfo Donated JoinedOn LastLogin Logins Correct Attempts Admin Active And one word table with: User_ID PRIMARY KEY Word Vocab Spell Defined DefinedAttempted Spelled SpelledAttempted Sentenced SentencedAttempted So what I'm asking is , performance-wise, should I create a new table for each user when they join the site - each user could have hundreds or thousands of words over time? Or is it better to have one massive table with thousands and thousands of records and filter by User_ID. I don't think I'll perform many table joins. My gut feeling is to create a new table for each user, but I thought I'd ask for expert advice! Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• How to exclude rows where matching join is in an SQL tree

  - by Greg K

  Sorry for the poor title, I couldn't think how to concisely describe this problem. I have a set of items that should have a 1-to-1 relationship with an attribute. I have a query to return those rows where the data is wrong and this relationship has been broken (1-to-many). I'm gathering these rows to fix them and restore this 1-to-1 relationship. This is a theoretical simplification of my actual problem but I'll post example table schema here as it was requested. item table: +------------+------------+-----------+ | item_id | name | attr_id | +------------+------------+-----------+ | 1 | BMW 320d | 20 | | 1 | BMW 320d | 21 | | 2 | BMW 335i | 23 | | 2 | BMW 335i | 34 | +------------+------------+-----------+ attribute table: +---------+-----------------+------------+ | attr_id | value | parent_id | +---------+-----------------+------------+ | 20 | SE | 21 | | 21 | M Sport | 0 | | 23 | AC | 24 | | 24 | Climate control | 0 | .... | 34 | Leather seats | 0 | +---------+-----------------+------------+ A simple query to return items with more than one attribute. SELECT item_id, COUNT(DISTINCT(attr_id)) AS attributes FROM item GROUP BY item_id HAVING attributes > 1 This gets me a result set like so: +-----------+------------+ | item_id | attributes | +-----------+------------+ | 1 | 2 | | 2 | 2 | | 3 | 2 | -- etc. -- However, there's an exception. The attribute table can hold a tree structure, via parent links in the table. For certain rows, parent_id can hold the ID of another attribute. There's only one level to this tree. Example: +---------+-----------------+------------+ | attr_id | value | parent_id | +---------+-----------------+------------+ | 20 | SE | 21 | | 21 | M Sport | 0 | .... I do not want to retrieve items in my original query where, for a pair of associated attributes, they related like attributes 20 & 21. I do want to retrieve items where: the attributes have no parent for two or more attributes they are not related (e.g. attributes 23 & 34) Example result desired, just the item ID: +------------+ | item_id | +------------+ | 2 | +------------+ How can I join against attributes from items and exclude these rows? Do I use a temporary table or can I achieve this from a single query? Thanks.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 561 562 563 564 565 566 567 568 569 570 571 572  | Next Page >