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  • How to print a page when a JButton is pressed in java swing using PrinterJob?

    - by Prayag Upd
    I tried the following code AWT but at runtime shows multiple print dialogs repeatedly.... package printerjob; import java.awt.BasicStroke; import java.awt.Frame; import java.awt.Graphics; import java.awt.Graphics2D; import java.awt.event.WindowAdapter; import java.awt.print.PageFormat; import java.awt.print.Printable; import java.awt.print.PrinterException; import java.awt.print.PrinterJob; /** * * @author pragX */ public class FramePrinterJob extends Frame implements Printable{ public void start(){ add(button); } @Override public void paint(Graphics graphics){ PrinterJob printerJob=PrinterJob.getPrinterJob(); printerJob.setPrintable(this); if(printerJob.printDialog()){ try{ printerJob.print(); }catch(PrinterException printerException){ //printerException.printStackTrace(); System.out.println("Error Printing." + printerException); } } } public int print(Graphics graphics, PageFormat pageFormat, int pageIndex) throws PrinterException { //throw new UnsupportedOperationException("Not supported yet."); if(pageIndex>=1){ return Printable.NO_SUCH_PAGE; } graphics.translate((int) pageFormat.getImageableX(), (int)pageFormat.getImageableY()); Graphics2D graphics2D=(Graphics2D)graphics; graphics2D.setStroke(new BasicStroke(4f)); graphics2D.drawLine(20, 20, 20, 120); graphics2D.drawLine(40, 20, 40, 120); graphics2D.drawLine(20, 70, 40, 70); graphics2D.drawLine(60, 70, 60, 120); graphics2D.drawLine(60, 40, 60, 45); return Printable.PAGE_EXISTS; } public static void main(String args[]){ Frame frame=new FramePrinterJob(); frame.addWindowListener(new WindowAdapter() { public void windowClosing(){System.exit(0);}}); frame.setSize(300,400); frame.setVisible(true); } }

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  • Call ASP.NET 2.0 Server side code from Javascript

    - by Kannabiran
    I'm struggling with this for the past 3 days. I need to call asp.net serverside code from Javascript when the user closes the browser. I'm using the following code to accomplish this. In my asp.net form I have various validation controls. Even if there are some validation errors, When I close the form the server side code works perfectly in my development box(windows 7). But the same code doesnt work in my production environment(windows server). Does it have something to do with the Validation summary or Validation controls. The button control has Causes validation set to false. So even if there is a validation error still my form will post back. Am I correct? I suspect the form is not getting post back to the server when there is a validation error. But i'm disabling all the validation controls in the javascript before calling the button click event. Can someone throw some light on this issue. There are few blogs which suggests to use JQUERY, AJAX (Pagemethods and script manager). function ConfirmClose(e) { var evtobj = window.event ? event : e; if (evtobj == e) { //firefox if (!evtobj.clientY) { evtobj.returnValue = message; } } else { //IE if (evtobj.clientY < 0) { DisablePageValidators(); document.getElementById('<%# buttonBrowserCloseClick.ClientID %>').click(); } } } function DisablePageValidators() { if ((typeof (Page_Validators) != "undefined") && (Page_Validators != null)) { var i; for (i = 0; i < Page_Validators.length; i++) { ValidatorEnable(Page_Validators[i], false); } } } //HTML <div style="display:none" > <asp:Button ID="buttonBrowserCloseClick" runat="server" onclick="buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click" Text="Button" Width="141px" CausesValidation="False" /> //Server Code protected void buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //Some C# code goes here }

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  • JDBC call not executing

    - by dbyrne
    I am working on one of the DAOs for a medium sized web application. Unfortunately, it contains very convoluted logic, and makes hundreds of JDBC stored proc calls in loops. This is out of my control. I am working on a method inside the DAO which makes a single JDBC call. The simplified version of what this method looks like is this: DriverManager.registerDriver(new com.sybase.jdbc2.jdbc.SybDriver()); Connection con = DriverManager.getConnection((String)connectionDetails.get("DATABASE_URL") (String)connectionDetails.get("USERID"), (String)connectionDetails.get("PASSWORD")); String sqlToExecute = "{call " + STORED_PROC + "(?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?)}"; CallableStatement stmt = con.prepareCall(sqlToExecute); //Maybe I should try calling clearParameters here? stmt.setString(1,someData); //....Set of parameters.... if (!stmt.execute()) { //execute method never returns false } stmt.close(); Its pretty much a textbook JDBC call. All this stored proc does is insert a single row. Here is where things get crazy: This code works when you run it through a debugger line by line, but fails when you run it "full speed". Not only does it fail, but it doesn't throw any exception! The execute method always returns true. It just breezes right through the JDBC call without inserting a row to the database. If you go through the log files, copy the stored proc call and run it manually, it works (just like it does in debug mode). Whats strange is that the rest of the DAO, with all its hundreds of looped stored proc calls, works fine. My thinking is that Connection or CallableStatement is caching some value behind the scenes that is screwing things up. Has anyone ever seen anything like this before? A JDBC call failing with no exceptions? I know it will be impossible to provide a complete solution to this without seeing the whole application, I am just looking for suggestions on possible issues to investigate.

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  • What should I do if i have a factory method which requires different parameters for different implem

    - by Sam Holder
    I have an interface, IMessage and a class which have several methods for creating different types of message like so: class MessageService { IMessage TypeAMessage(param 1, param 2) IMessage TypeBMessage(param 1, param 2, param 3, param 4) IMessage TypeCMessage(param 1, param 2, param 3) IMessage TypeDMessage(param 1) } I don't want this class to do all the work for creating these messages so it simply delegates to a MessageCreatorFactory which produces an IMessageCreator depending on the type given (an enumeration based on the type of the message TypeA, TypeB, TypeC etc) interface IMessageCreator { IMessage Create(MessageParams params); } So I have 4 implementations of IMessageCreator: TypeAMessageCreator, TypeBMessageCreator, TypeCMessageCreator, TypeDMessageCreator I ok with this except for the fact that because each type requires different parameters I have had to create a MessageParams object which contains 4 properties for the 4 different params, but only some of them are used in each IMessageCreator. Is there an alternative to this? One other thought I had was to have a param array as the parameter in the Create emthod, but this seems even worse as you don't have any idea what the params are. Or to create several overloads of Create in the interface and have some of them throw an exception if they are not suitable for that particular implementation (ie you called a method which needs more params, so you should have called one of the other overloads.) Does this seem ok? Is there a better solution?

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  • C# / IronPython Interop with shared C# Class Library

    - by Adam Haile
    I'm trying to use IronPython as an intermediary between a C# GUI and some C# libraries, so that it can be scripted post compile time. I have a Class library DLL that is used by both the GUI and the python and is something along the lines of this: namespace MyLib { public class MyClass { public string Name { get; set; } public MyClass(string name) { this.Name = name; } } } The IronPython code is as follows: import clr clr.AddReferenceToFile(r"MyLib.dll") from MyLib import MyClass ReturnObject = MyClass("Test") Then, in C# I would call it as follows: ScriptEngine engine = Python.CreateEngine(); ScriptScope scope = null; scope = engine.CreateScope(); ScriptSource source = engine.CreateScriptSourceFromFile("Script.py"); source.Execute(scope); MyClass mc = scope.GetVariable<MyClass>("ReturnObject ") When I call this last bit of code, source.Execute(scope) runs returns successfully, but when I try the GetVariable call, it throw the following exception Microsoft.Scripting.ArgumentTypeException: expected MyClass , got MyClass So, you can see that the class names are exactly the same, but for some reason it thinks they are different. The DLL is in a different directory than the .py file (I just didn't bother to write out all the path setup stuff), could it be that there is an issue with the interpreter for IronPython seeing these objects as difference because it's somehow seeing them as being in a different context or scope?

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  • What is the IoC / "Springy" way to handle MVP in GWT? (Hint, probably not the Spring Roo 1.1 way)

    - by Ehrann Mehdan
    This is the Spring Roo 1.1 way of doing a factory that returns a GWT Activity (Yes, Spring Framework) public Activity getActivity(ProxyPlace place) { switch (place.getOperation()) { case DETAILS: return new EmployeeDetailsActivity((EntityProxyId<EmployeeProxy>)place.getProxyId(), requests, placeController, ScaffoldApp.isMobile() ? EmployeeMobileDetailsView.instance() : EmployeeDetailsView.instance()); case EDIT: return makeEditActivity(place); case CREATE: return makeCreateActivity(); } throw new IllegalArgumentException("Unknown operation " + place.getOperation()); } It seems to me that we just went back hundred of years if we use a switch case with constants to make a factory. Now this is official auto generated Spring roo 1.1 with GWT / GAE integration, I kid you not I can only assume this is some executives empty announcements because this is definitly not Spring It seems VMWare and Google were too fast to get something out and didn't quite finish it, isn't it? Am I missing something or this is half baked and by far not the way Spring + GWT MVP should work? Do you have a better example of how Spring, GWT (2.1 MVP approach) and GAE should connect? I would hate to do all the plumbing of managing history and activities like this. (no annotations? IOC?) I also would hate to reinvent the wheel and write my own Spring enhancement just to find someone else did the same, or worse, find out that SpringSource and Google will release roo 1.2 soon and make it right

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  • caching images that are retrieved

    - by Rahul Varma
    Hi, I am retrieving a list of images and text from a web service. The images are getting displayed in the list view. But the problem is, when i scroll down the list the entire images are getting loaded once again. When i scroll twice or thrice there is a OutofMemory occuring... Can anyone tell me how to cache the images and also to avoid the loading of the images that are already loaded when i scroll down. I have tried to increase inSampleSize but it didnt work... Here's the code.... public static Bitmap loadImageFromUrl(String url) { InputStream inputStream; Bitmap b; try { inputStream = (InputStream) new URL(url).getContent(); BitmapFactory.Options bpo= new BitmapFactory.Options(); b=BitmapFactory.decodeStream(inputStream, null,bpo ); b.recycle(); bpo.inSampleSize=2; return b; } catch (IOException e) { throw new RuntimeException(e); } // return null; }

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  • error: invalid type argument of '->' (have 'struct node')

    - by Roshan S.A
    Why cant i access the pointer "Cells" like an array ? i have allocated the appropriate memory why wont it act like an array here? it works like an array for a pointer of basic data types. #include<stdio.h> #include<stdlib.h> #include<ctype.h> #define MAX 10 struct node { int e; struct node *next; }; typedef struct node *List; typedef struct node *Position; struct Hashtable { int Tablesize; List Cells; }; typedef struct Hashtable *HashT; HashT Initialize(int SIZE,HashT H) { int i; H=(HashT)malloc(sizeof(struct Hashtable)); if(H!=NULL) { H->Tablesize=SIZE; printf("\n\t%d",H->Tablesize); H->Cells=(List)malloc(sizeof(struct node)* H->Tablesize); should it not act like an array from here on? if(H->Cells!=NULL) { for(i=0;i<H->Tablesize;i++) the following lines are the ones that throw the error { H->Cells[i]->next=NULL; H->Cells[i]->e=i; printf("\n %d",H->Cells[i]->e); } } } else printf("\nError!Out of Space"); } int main() { HashT H; H=Initialize(10,H); return 0; } The error I get is as in the title-error: invalid type argument of '->' (have 'struct node').

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  • Core Data: migrating entities with self-referential properties

    - by Dan
    My Core Data model contains an entity, Shape, that has two self-referential relationships, which means four properties. One pair is a one-to-many relationship (Shape.containedBy <- Shape.contains) and the another is a many-to-many relationship (Shape.nextShapes <<- Shape.previousShapes). It all works perfectly in the application, so I don't think self-referencing relationships is a problem in general. However, when it comes to migrating the model to a new version, then Xcode fails to compile the automatically generated mapping model, with this error message: 2009-10-30 17:10:09.387 mapc[18619:607] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: 'Unable to parse the format string "FUNCTION($manager ,'destinationInstancesForSourceRelationshipNamed:sourceInstances:' , 'contains' , $source.contains) == 1"' *** Call stack at first throw: ( 0 CoreFoundation 0x00007fff80d735a4 __exceptionPreprocess + 180 1 libobjc.A.dylib 0x00007fff83f0a313 objc_exception_throw + 45 2 Foundation 0x00007fff819bc8d4 _qfqp2_performParsing + 8412 3 Foundation 0x00007fff819ba79d +[NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:arguments:] + 59 4 Foundation 0x00007fff81a482ef +[NSExpression expressionWithFormat:arguments:] + 68 5 Foundation 0x00007fff81a48843 +[NSExpression expressionWithFormat:] + 155 6 XDBase 0x0000000100038e94 -[XDDevRelationshipMapping valueExpressionAsString] + 260 7 XDBase 0x000000010003ae5c -[XDMappingCompilerSupport generateCompileResultForMappingModel:] + 2828 8 XDBase 0x000000010003b135 -[XDMappingCompilerSupport compileSourcePath:options:] + 309 9 mapc 0x0000000100001a1c 0x0 + 4294973980 10 mapc 0x0000000100001794 0x0 + 4294973332 ) terminate called after throwing an instance of 'NSException' Command /Developer/usr/bin/mapc failed with exit code 6 The 'contains' is the name of one of the self-referential properties. Anyway, the really big problem is that I can't even look at this Mapping Property as Xcode crashes as soon as I select the entity mapping when viewing the mapping model. So I'm a bit lost really where to go from here. I really can't remove the self-referential properties, so I'm thinking I've got manually create a mapping model that compiles? Any ideas? Cheers

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  • Laravel4: Call to a member function on a non-object

    - by s0hno
    The following code will throw an error Call to a member function `links()` on a non-object routes.php: Route::get('videos', function(){ $data = DB::table('video_data_r')->paginate(5); return View::make('video',$data); }); Corresponding video view: <?php foreach($data as $item): ?> <div class="video_entry"> <a href="<?php echo $item -> url; ?>" target="_blank"><img src="<?php echo $item -> thumb; ?>" /></a> <a href="<?php echo $item -> url; ?>" target="_blank"><?php echo $item -> title; ?>"</a> </div> <?php endforeach; ?> <?php echo $data->links();?> Could you give me a good hint on what looks like a trivial error?

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  • How to validate properties across Models without repeating the validation logic

    - by Mano
    Hello All, I am building a ASP.NET Mvc app. I have a Data model say User public class user { public int userId {get; private set}; public string FirstName {get; set;} } The validation to be done is that the firstname cannot exceed 50 characters. I have another presentation model in which i have the property FirstName too. I do not want to repeat the validation logic in both the models. I want to have it in one place and that should be it. I can do it in a simpler way by adding a function which can be called while setting the property like private string firstName; public string FirstName { get { return firstName; } set { if (PropertyValidator.ValidName(value)) // assuming ValidName exists and it will throw an exception if the value is not valid { firstName = value; } } } But I am looking for something much simpler so that I do not need to add this for every property I need to have it validated. I looked at ValidationAttribute but then again I can validate this only from a controller (ModelState.IsValid). Since this model could be used by some other type of apps like console app, I could not choose that. But if there is a way to use the Mvc's ModelState.IsValid from outside of a controller, that would be awesome. Any suggestions are greatly appreciated. Thanks!!

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  • Is it possible to embed a flash player in a table and retain the table properties

    - by user1494241
    I'd like to embed a music (flash) player in a table with clickable images but the embed code seems to throw the table properties off - it extends the width of the table. Is it possible to embed the player on the same row as the image whilst still retaining the table width? Here's what I've been using: <table width="620" border="0" cellspacing="0" cellpadding="0"> <tr> <td> <div align="left"><object height="18" width="100%"> <param name="movie" value="https://player.soundcloud.com/player.swf?url=http%3A%2F%2Fapi.soundcloud.com%2Fplaylists%2F1253725&amp;auto_play=false&amp;player_type=tiny&amp;font=Georgia&amp;color=9a6600&show_playcount=false&default_width=375&default_height=40&show_user=false"></param> <param name="allowscriptaccess" value="always"></param> <param name="wmode" value="transparent"></param><embed wmode="transparent" allowscriptaccess="always" height="18" src="https://player.soundcloud.com/player.swf?url=http%3A%2F%2Fapi.soundcloud.com%2Fplaylists%2F1253725&amp;auto_play=false&amp;player_type=tiny&amp;font=Georgia&amp;color=9a6600&show_playcount=false&default_width=375&default_height=40&show_user=false" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" width="100%"></embed> </object> </td> <td> <div align="right"><img src="http://dl.dropbox.com/u/31856944/Virb/splash_freedownload-2.png" border="0" width="245" height="42" usemap="#Map" /></div> </td> <tr> <td> <div align="right"><img src="http://dl.dropbox.com/u/31856944/Virb/splash_share-2.png" border="0" width="620" height="31" usemap="#Map2" /></div> </td> </tr> </table>

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  • No Hibernate Exception on the same insert of data

    - by Mark Estrada
    Hi All, Hibernate Newbie here. I am quite unsure why I am not getting any exception when I am executing below code. On first attempt, this code creates the Book Entry on my Book Table. But my concern is that when I execute below code again, no error was pop out by Hibernate. I was in fact expecting some sort of Violation of Primary Key Constraints as what I have bee doing in JDBC code. public class BookDao { public void createBook(Book bookObj) { Session session = HibernateUtil.getSessionFactory() .getCurrentSession(); session.beginTransaction(); session.saveOrUpdate(bookObj); session.getTransaction().commit(); } } public class HibernateUtil { private static final SessionFactory sessionFactory = buildSessionFactory(); private static SessionFactory buildSessionFactory() { try { // Create the SessionFactory from hibernate.cfg.xml return new AnnotationConfiguration().configure() .buildSessionFactory(); } catch (Throwable ex) { // Make sure you log the exception, as it might be swallowed ex.printStackTrace(); throw new ExceptionInInitializerError(ex); } } public static SessionFactory getSessionFactory() { return sessionFactory; } } public class BookDBStarter { public static void main(String[] args) { Book bookHF = new Book(); bookHF.setIsbn("HF-12345"); bookHF.setName("Head First HTML"); bookHF.setPublishDate(new Date()); BookDao daoBook = new BookDao(); daoBook.createBook(bookHF); } } Is this normal hibernate way? And how will I know if my insert is successful? Any thoughts?

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  • Weird output of Throwable getMessage()

    - by Ravi Gupta
    Hi I have below pseudo code with throws an exception like this throw new MyException("Bad thing happened","com.stuff.errorCode"); where MyException extends Exception class. So the problem is when I try to get the message from MyException class by calling myEx.getMessage() it returns ???en_US.Bad thing happened??? instead of my original message i.e. Bad thing happened I have checked that MyException class doesn't overrides Throwable class's getMessage() behavior. Below is the how the call passes from MyException.getMessage() to Throwable.getMessage() public MyException(String msg, String sErrorCode){ super(msg); this.sErrorCode = sErrorCode; this.iSeverity = 0; } which then calls public Exception(String message) { super(message); } and finally public Throwable(String message) { fillInStackTrace(); detailMessage = message; } when I do a getMessage on myexception it calls Throwable's getMessage as below public String getMessage() { return detailMessage; } So ideally it should return the original message as I set when throwing the exception. What's the ???en_US thing ?

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  • Is there a way to increase the efficiency of shared_ptr by storing the reference count inside the co

    - by BillyONeal
    Hello everyone :) This is becoming a common pattern in my code, for when I need to manage an object that needs to be noncopyable because either A. it is "heavy" or B. it is an operating system resource, such as a critical section: class Resource; class Implementation : public boost::noncopyable { friend class Resource; HANDLE someData; Implementation(HANDLE input) : someData(input) {}; void SomeMethodThatActsOnHandle() { //Do stuff }; public: ~Implementation() { FreeHandle(someData) }; }; class Resource { boost::shared_ptr<Implementation> impl; public: Resource(int argA) explicit { HANDLE handle = SomeLegacyCApiThatMakesSomething(argA); if (handle == INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE) throw SomeTypeOfException(); impl.reset(new Implementation(handle)); }; void SomeMethodThatActsOnTheResource() { impl->SomeMethodThatActsOnTheHandle(); }; }; This way, shared_ptr takes care of the reference counting headaches, allowing Resource to be copyable, even though the underlying handle should only be closed once all references to it are destroyed. However, it seems like we could save the overhead of allocating shared_ptr's reference counts and such separately if we could move that data inside Implementation somehow, like boost's intrusive containers do. If this is making the premature optimization hackles nag some people, I actually agree that I don't need this for my current project. But I'm curious if it is possible.

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  • In Varnish, how can I read the Set-Cookie response header?

    - by Adam Friedman
    I am trying to detect if my application has set a cookie that holds an "alert message" for the user on the next page, where the Javascript displays it if detected. In my vcl_fetch(), I need to detect if the specific cookie value "alert_message" appears anywhere in the Set-Cookie header (presumably in the VCL variable beresp.http.Set-Cookie). If detected, then I do not want to cache that next page (since Varnish strips the Set-Cookie header by default, which would obliterate the alert message before it makes it back to the browser). So here is my simple test: if(beresp.http.Set-Cookie ~ "alert_message") { set req.http.no_cache = 1; } Strangely, it fails to evaluate to true. So I throw the variable into the Server header to see what it looks like: set beresp.http.Server = " MyApp Varnish implementation - test reading set-cookie: "+beresp.http.Set-Cookie; But for some reason this only displays the FIRST Set-Cookie line in the response headers. Here are the relevant response headers: Server: MyApp Varnish implementation - test reading cookie: elstats_session=7d7279kjmsnkel31lre3s0vu24; expires=Wed, 10-Oct-2012 00:03:32 GMT; path=/; HttpOnly Set-Cookie:app_session=7d7279kjmsnkel31lre3s0vu24; expires=Wed, 10-Oct-2012 00:03:32 GMT; path=/; HttpOnly Set-Cookie:alert_message=Too+many+results.; expires=Tue, 09-Oct-2012 20:13:32 GMT; path=/; domain=.my.app.com Set-Cookie:alert_key=flash_error; expires=Tue, 09-Oct-2012 20:13:32 GMT; path=/; domain=.my.app.com Vary:Accept-Encoding How do I read and run string detection on ALL Set-Cookie header lines?

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  • If setUpBeforeClass() fails, test failures are hidden in PHPUnit's JUnit XML output

    - by Adam Monsen
    If setUpBeforeClass() throws an exception, no failures or errors are reported in the PHPUnit's JUnit XML output. Why? Example test class: <?php class Test extends PHPUnit_Framework_TestCase { public static function setUpBeforeClass() { throw new \Exception('masks all failures in xml output'); } public function testFoo() { $this->fail('failing'); } } Command line: phpunit --verbose --log-junit out.xml Test.php Console output: PHPUnit 3.6.10 by Sebastian Bergmann. E Time: 0 seconds, Memory: 3.25Mb There was 1 error: 1) Test Exception: masks all failures in xml output /tmp/pu/Test.php:6 FAILURES! Tests: 0, Assertions: 0, Errors: 1. JUnit XML output: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <testsuites> <testsuite name="Test" file="/tmp/phpunit-broken/Test.php"/> </testsuites> More info: $ php --version PHP 5.3.10-1ubuntu3.1 with Suhosin-Patch (cli) (built: May 4 2012 02:21:57) Copyright (c) 1997-2012 The PHP Group Zend Engine v2.3.0, Copyright (c) 1998-2012 Zend Technologies with Xdebug v2.1.0, Copyright (c) 2002-2010, by Derick Rethans

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  • Validate HAML from ActiveRecord: scope/controller/helpers for link_to etc?

    - by Chris Boyle
    I like HAML. So much, in fact, that in my first Rails app, which is the usual blog/CMS thing, I want to render the body of my Page model using HAML. So here is app/views/pages/_body.html.haml: .entry-content= Haml::Engine.new(body, :format => :html5).render ...and it works (yay, recursion). What I'd like to do is validate the HAML in the body when creating or updating a Page. I can almost do that, but I'm stuck on the scope argument to render. I have this in app/models/page.rb: validates_each :body do |record, attr, value| begin Haml::Engine.new(value, :format => :html5).render(record) rescue Exception => e record.errors.add attr, "line #{(e.respond_to? :line) && e.line || 'unknown'}: #{e.message}" end end You can see I'm passing record, which is a Page, but even that doesn't have a controller, and in particular doesn't have any helpers like link_to, so as soon as a Page uses any of that it's going to fail to validate even when it would actually render just fine. So I guess I need a controller as scope for this, but accessing that from here in the model (where the validator is) is a big MVC no-no, and as such I don't think Rails gives me a way to do it. (I mean, I suppose I could stash a controller in some singleton somewhere or something, but... excuse me while I throw up.) What's the least ugly way to properly validate HAML in an ActiveRecord validator?

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  • How to process events chain.

    - by theblackcascade
    I need to process this chain using one LoadXML method and one urlLoader object: ResourceLoader.Instance.LoadXML("Config.xml"); ResourceLoader.Instance.LoadXML("GraphicsSet.xml"); Loader starts loading after first frameFunc iteration (why?) I want it to start immediatly.(optional) And it starts loading only "GraphicsSet.xml" Loader class LoadXml method: public function LoadXML(URL:String):XML { urlLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE,XmlLoadCompleteListener); urlLoader.load(new URLRequest(URL)); return xml; } private function XmlLoadCompleteListener(e:Event):void { var xml:XML = new XML(e.target.data); trace(xml); trace(xml.name()); if(xml.name() == "Config") XMLParser.Instance.GameSetup(xml); else if(xml.name() == "GraphicsSet") XMLParser.Instance.GraphicsPoolSetup(xml); } Here is main: public function Main() { Mouse.hide(); this.addChild(Game.Instance); this.addEventListener(Event.ENTER_FRAME,Game.Instance.Loop); } And on adding a Game.Instance to the rendering queue in game constuctor i start initialize method: public function Game():void { trace("Constructor"); if(_instance) throw new Error("Use Instance Field"); Initialize(); } its code is: private function Initialize():void { trace("initialization"); ResourceLoader.Instance.LoadXML("Config.xml"); ResourceLoader.Instance.LoadXML("GraphicsSet.xml"); } Thanks.

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  • Returning HTML in the JS portion of a respond_to block throws errors in IE

    - by Horace Loeb
    Here's a common pattern in my controller actions: respond_to do |format| format.html {} format.js { render :layout => false } end I.e., if the request is non-AJAX, I'll send the HTML content in a layout on a brand new page. If the request is AJAX, I'll send down the same content, but without a layout (so that it can be inserted into the existing page or put into a lightbox or whatever). So I'm always returning HTML in the format.js portion, yet Rails sets the Content-Type response header to text/javascript. This causes IE to throw this fun little error message: Of course I could set the content-type of the response every time I did this (or use an after_filter or whatever), but it seems like I'm trying to do something relatively standard and I don't want to add additional boilerplate code. How do I fix this problem? Alternatively, if the only way to fix the problem is to change the content-type of the response, what's the best way to achieve the behavior I want (i.e., sending down content with layout for non-AJAX and the same content without a layout for AJAX) without having to deal with these errors? Edit: This blog post has some more info

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  • Deserialize json with json.net c#

    - by 76mel
    Hi, am new to Json so a little green. I have a Rest Based Service that returns a json string; {"treeNode":[{"id":"U-2905","pid":"R","userId":"2905"}, {"id":"U-2905","pid":"R","userId":"2905"}]} I have been playing with the Json.net and trying to Deserialize the string into Objects etc. I wrote an extention method to help. public static T DeserializeFromJSON<T>(this Stream jsonStream, Type objectType) { T result; using (StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(jsonStream)) { JsonSerializer serializer = new JsonSerializer(); try { result = (T)serializer.Deserialize(reader, objectType); } catch (Exception e) { throw; } } return result; } I was expecting an array of treeNode[] objects. But its seems that I can only deserialize correctly if treeNode[] property of another object. public class treeNode { public string id { get; set; } public string pid { get; set; } public string userId { get; set; } } I there a way to to just get an straight array from the deserialization ? Cheers

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  • C++ return a "NULL" object if search result not found

    - by aduric
    I'm pretty new to C++ so I tend to design with a lot of Java-isms while I'm learning. Anyway, in Java, if I had class with a 'search' method that would return an object T from a Collection< T that matched a specific parameter, I would return that object and if the object was not found in the collection, I would return a NULL. Then in my calling function I would just check if(T != NULL) { ... } In C++, I'm finding out that I can't return a NULL if the object doesn't exist. I just want to return an 'indicator' of type T that notifies the calling function that no object has been found. I don't want to throw an exception because it's not really an exceptional circumstance. class Node { .... Attr& getAttribute(const string& attribute_name) const { //search collection //if found at i return attributes[i]; //if not found return NULL; } private: vector<Attr> attributes; }

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  • Obj-C: Passing pointers to initialized classes in other classes

    - by FnGreg7
    Hey all. I initialized a class in my singleton called DataModel. Now, from my UIViewController, when I click a button, I have a method that is trying to access that class so that I may add an object to one of its dictionaries. My get/set method passes back the pointer to the class from my singleton, but when I am back in my UIViewController, the class passed back doesn't respond to methods. It's like it's just not there. I think it has something to do with the difference in passing pointers around classes or something. I even tried using the copy method to throw a copy back, but no luck. UIViewController: ApplicationSingleton *applicationSingleton = [[ApplicationSingleton alloc] init]; DataModel *dataModel = [applicationSingleton getDataModel]; [dataModel retrieveDataCategory:dataCategory]; Singleton: ApplicationSingleton *m_instance; DataModel *m_dataModel; - (id) init { NSLog(@"ApplicationSingleton.m initialized."); self = [super init]; if(self != nil) { if(m_instance != nil) { return m_instance; } NSLog(@"Initializing the application singleton."); m_instance = self; m_dataModel = [[DataModel alloc] init]; } NSLog(@"ApplicationSingleton init method returning."); return m_instance; } -(DataModel *)getDataModel { DataModel *dataModel_COPY = [m_dataModel copy]; return dataModel_COPY; } For the getDataModel method, I also tried this: -(DataModel *)getDataModel { return m_dataModel; } In my DataModel retrieveDataCategory method, I couldn't get anything to work. I even just tried putting a NSLog in there but it never would come onto the console. Any ideas?

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  • Threading calls to web service in a web service - (.net 2.0)

    - by Ryan Ternier
    Got a question regarding best practices for doing parallel web service calls, in a web service. Our portal will get a message, split that message into 2 messages, and then do 2 calls to our broker. These need to be on separate threads to lower the timeout. One solution is to do something similar to (pseudo code): XmlNode DNode = GetaGetDemoNodeSomehow(); XmlNode ENode = GetAGetElNodeSomehow(); XmlNode elResponse; XmlNode demResponse; Thread dThread = new Thread(delegate { //Web Service Call GetDemographics d = new GetDemographics(); demResponse = d.HIALRequest(DNode); }); Thread eThread = new Thread(delegate { //Web Service Call GetEligibility ge = new GetEligibility(); elResponse = ge.HIALRequest(ENode); }); dThread.Start(); eThread.Start(); dThread.Join(); eThread.Join(); //combine the resulting XML and return it. //Maybe throw a bit of logging in to make architecture happy Another option we thought of is to create a worker class, and pass it the service information and have it execute. This would allow us to have a bit more control over what is going on, but could add additional overhead. Another option brought up would be 2 asynchronous calls and manage the returns through a loop. When the calls are completed (success or error) the loop picks it up and ends. The portal service will be called about 50,000 times a day. I don't want to gold plate this sucker. I'm looking for something light weight. The services that are being called on the broker do have time out limits set, and are already heavily logged and audited, so I'm not worried on that part. This is .NET 2.0 , and as much as I would love to upgrade I can't right now. So please leave all the goodies of 2.0 out please.

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  • What is a reasonable OSGi development workflow?

    - by levand
    I'm using OSGi for my latest project at work, and it's pretty beautiful as far as modularity and functionality. But I'm not happy with the development workflow. Eventually, I plan to have 30-50 separate bundles, arranged in a dependency graph - supposedly, this is what OSGi is designed for. But I can't figure out a clean way to manage dependencies at compile time. Example: You have bundles A and B. B depends on packages defined in A. Each bundle is developed as a separate Java project. In order to compile B, A has to be on the javac classpath. Do you: Reference the file system location of project A in B's build script? Build A and throw the jar into B's lib directory? Rely on Eclipse's "referenced projects" feature and always use Eclipse's classpath to build (ugh) Use a common "lib" directory for all projects and dump the bundle jars there after compilation? Set up a bundle repository, parse the manifest from the build script and pull down the required bundles from the repository? No. 5 sounds the cleanest, but also like a lot of overhead.

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