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• C++ MFC how to compare LPCTSTR in a if statement?

  - by user1078510

  I have the following code: LPCTSTR strPermission = Method(); if (strPermission == L"0") { return true; } else { return false; } While debugging I can see that strPermission does equal "0", yet when I compare it like in the if statement it always returns false. The only thing I can think of is that it is comparing the memory address of the variable rather than the variable value. How do I compare strPermission to L"0" so that it would return true if strPermission equals "0". Thank you!

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• Singleton pattern with Web application, Not a good idea!!

  - by Tony

  Hi I found something funny, I notice it by luck while I was debugging other thing. I was applying MCP pattern and I made a singleton controller to be shared among all presentations. Suddenly I figured out that some event is called once at first postback, twice if there is two postback, 100 times if there is 100 postbacks. because Singleton is based on a static variable which hold the instance, and the static variable live across postbacks, and I wired the event assuming that it will be wired once, and rewired for each postback. I think we should think twice before applying a singleton in a web application, or I miss something?? thanks

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• How does this module code work?

  - by phsr

  I'm new to ruby and I am trying to figure out how the following code works The following code is inside a class in a module. The method is called later with the following code: @something ||= Module::Class.config class << self def config &block options = OpenStruct.new yield options if block_given? init_client! Client.new(options) end def init_client!(client) base_eigenclass = class << Base; self; end base_eigenclass.send :define_method, :client do @client = client end client end end The class has some constants in it, and when the classes initialize is called, the instance member are set to option.variable || VARIABLE_CONSTANT. I understand that if there is no value for option.variable then VARIABLE_CONSTANT is used, but I don't understand that calling Module::Class.config do |options| #some block end set the @client until config is called again with options The code definitely works, but I want to understand how it does

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• Hibernate many-to-many relationship

  - by Capitan

  I have two mapped types, related many-to-many. @Entity @Table(name = "students") public class Student{ ... @ManyToMany(fetch = FetchType.EAGER) @JoinTable( name = "students2courses", joinColumns = { @JoinColumn( name = "student_id", referencedColumnName = "_id") }, inverseJoinColumns = { @JoinColumn( name = "course_id", referencedColumnName = "_id") }) public Set<Course> getCourses() { return courses; } public void setCourses(Set<Course> courses) { this.courses = courses; } ... } __ @Entity @Table(name = "courses") public class Course{ ... @ManyToMany(fetch = FetchType.EAGER, mappedBy = "courses") public Set<Student> getStudents() { return students; } public void setStudents(Set<Student> students) { this.students = students; } ... } But if I update/delete Course entity, records are not created/deleted in table students2courses. (with Student entity updating/deleting goes as expected) I wrote abstract class HibObject public abstract class HibObject { public String getRemoveMTMQuery() { return null; } } which is inherited by Student and Course. In DAO I added this code (for delete() method): String query = obj.getRemoveMTMQuery(); if (query != null) { session.createSQLQuery(query).executeUpdate(); } and I ovrerided method getRemoveMTMQuery() for Course @Override @Transient public String getRemoveMTMQuery() { return "delete from students2courses where course_id = " + id + ";"; } Now it works but I think it's a bad code. Is there a best way to solve this problem?

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• '<=' operator is not working in sql server 2000

  - by Lalit

  Hello, Scenario is, database is in the maintenance phase. this database is not developed by ours developer. it is an existing database developed by the 'xyz' company in sql server 2000. This is real time database, where i am working now. I wanted to write the stored procedure which will retrieve me the records From date1 to date 2.so query is : Select * from MyTableName Where colDate>= '3-May-2010' and colDate<= '5-Oct-2010' and colName='xyzName' whereas my understanding I must get data including upper bound date as well as lower bound date. but somehow I am getting records from '3-May-2010' (which is fine but) to '10-Oct-2010' As i observe in table design , for ColDate, developer had used 'varchar' to store the date. i know this is wrong remedy by them. so in my stored procedure I have also used varchar parameters as @FromDate1 and @ToDate to get inputs for SP. this is giving me result which i have explained. i tried to take the parameter type as 'Datetime' but it is showing error while saving/altering the stored procedure that "@FromDate1 has invalid datatype", same for "@ToDate". situation is that, I can not change the table design at all. what i have to do here ? i know we can use user defined table in sql server 2008 , but there is version sql server 2000. which does not support the same. Please guide me for this scenario. **Edited** I am trying to write like this SP: CREATE PROCEDURE USP_Data (@Location varchar(100), @FromDate DATETIME, @ToDate DATETIME) AS SELECT * FROM dbo.TableName Where CAST(Dt AS DATETIME) >=@fromDate and CAST(Dt AS DATETIME)<=@ToDate and Location=@Location GO but getting Error: Arithmetic overflow error converting expression to data type datetime. in sql server 2000 What should be that ? is i am wrong some where ? also (202 row(s) affected) is changes every time in circular manner means first time sayin (122 row(s) affected) run again saying (80 row(s) affected) if again (202 row(s) affected) if again (122 row(s) affected) I can not understand what is going on ?

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• Pass variables between separate instances of ruby (without writing to a text file or database)

  - by boulder_ruby

  Lets say I'm running a long worker-script in one of several open interactive rails consoles. The script is updating columns in a very, very, very large table of records. I've muted the ActiveRecord logger to speed up the process, and instruct the script to output some record of progress so I know how roughly how long the process is going to take. That is what I am currently doing and it would look something like this: ModelName.all.each_with_index do |r, i| puts i if i % 250 ...runs some process... r.save end Sometimes its two nested arrays running, such that there would be multiple iterators and other things running all at once. Is there a way that I could do something like this and access that variable from a separate rails console? (such that the variable would be overwritten every time the process is run without much slowdown) records = ModelName.all $total = records.count records.each_with_index do |r, i| $i = i ...runs some process... r.save end meanwhile mid-process in other console puts "#{($i/$total * 100).round(2)}% complete" #=> 67.43% complete I know passing global variables from one separate instance of ruby to the next doesn't work. I also just tried this to no effect as well unix console 1 $X=5 echo {$X} #=> 5 unix console 2 echo {$X} #=> "" Lastly, I also know using global variables like this is a major software design pattern no-no. I think that's reasonable, but I'd still like to know how to break that rule if I'd like. Writing to a text file obviously would work. So would writing to a separate database table or something. That's not a bad idea. But the really cool trick would be sharing a variable between two instances without writing to a text file or database column. What would this be called anyway? Tunneling? I don't quite know how to tag this question. Maybe bad-idea is one of them. But honestly design-patterns isn't what this question is about.

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• SQL queries to determine all values that would satisfy an arbitrary query

  - by jasterm007

  I'm trying to figure out how to efficiently run a set of queries that will provide a new table of all values that would return results for an arbitrary query. Say my table has a schema like: id name age city What is an efficient way to list all values that would return results for an arbitrary query, say "NOT city=X AND age BETWEEN Y and Z"? My naive approach for this would be to use a script and recurse through all possible combinations of {city, age, age} and see which SELECTs return more than 0 results, but that seems incredibly inefficient. I've also tried building large joins on {city, age, age} as well and basically using that table as an argument list to the query, but that quickly becomes an impossibility for queries on many columns. For simple conjunctive equality queries, i.e. "name=X and age=Y", this is much simpler, as I can do something like SELECT name, age, count(*) AS count FROM main GROUP BY name, age HAVING count > 0 But I'm having difficulty coming up with a general approach for anything more complicated than that. Any pointers in the right direction would be most helpful, thanks.

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• Targeting an iFrame once with jQuery

  - by user275074

  Hi, I have a series of frames (4) which are used in a page to create loading of dynamic content through Ajax calls. In each of these frames I target parent level elements and update them with there respective content e.g. $("#loadingGrid1",top.document).show(); $("#frameSkills",top.document).hide(); In jQuery is there a way to instead of targeting specific elements on the parent page multiple times, simply target the page once into a variable e.g. var parentPage=$('#frameSkills',top.document); And then use this variable to apply content like $(parentPage #loadingGrid1).hide() Hope I've explained what I'm after enough. Basically, I'm having to call "top.document" in every jQuery selector I make and it seems like a waste of energy.

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• HTML5 card game [closed]

  - by ChrisCa

  I created a card game in silverlight a year or so ago in order to learn a bit about Silverlight. I am now wanting to make a HTML5 version of the game in an effort to learn a little bit more about that. I am thinking I'd like to take advantage of stuff like Knockout.js and WebSockets and the canvas element. Now what I'm confused about is how to lay out the cards on the screen. With Silverlight I was able to make a "Hand" control, which was made up of two sub controls - the cards the player has in their hand and the ones they have on the table. And they in turn were made up of Card controls. Now I don't believe there is the concept on a User Control in javascript. So I am possibly thinking about this in entirely the wrong way. So my question is - how could I lay out some cards on the table and perhaps make reuse of something for each player? I have a client side JSON object called game, which contains an array of players. Each player has a hand which is made up of an array of in-hand cards and on-table cards. Ideally I would like to bind these to something using Knockout.js - but I don't know what I could bind to. Would I simply position images (of cards) on a canvas? Is there a way to make some kind of Hand object that each player could have and that I could bind to? Any advice? Or sample code you've seen elsewhere?

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• Refactoring a nested loop

  - by user3517441

  I have the following code which I use a lot of times in the class. for (int i = 0; i < someList.size(); i++) { for (int j = 0; j < someList.size(); j++) { if (i != j) { someList.get(i).sendMessageTo(someList.get(j))); //variable action } } } The purpose of the loop is to make each element in the List to send a message (or perform another action) to every element in the list except itself. Is there any way I can create a helper method so I don't have to repeat the loop code. I want to be able to state the variable action and call the helper method. Thanks.

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• Android - How can I access a View object instantiated in onCreate in onResume?

  - by Chris

  In my onCreate() method, I'm instantiating an ImageButton View: public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { Log.d(AntengoApplication.LOG_TAG, "BrowsePicture onCreate"); super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.layout_post); final ImageButton ib = (ImageButton) findViewById(R.id.post_image); ... In onResume, I want to be able to change the properties of the ImageButton with something like: @Override protected void onResume() { super.onResume(); ib.setImageURI(selectedImageUri); } //END onResume But onResume doesn't have access to the ib ImageButton object. If this were a variable, I'd simple make it a class variable, but Android does not allow you to define View object in the class. Any suggestions on how to do this?

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• Mootools event leak

  - by user572263

  The example to demonstrate the issue can be found here: link text The test shows a basic Mootools class that contains an element variable with a click event attached. There’s also a “cleanup” function to remove the event and nullify the element variable. My problem is that when I loop a thousand times to create the “LeakClass” instance and clean it up, it causes a major memory leak like there’s no tomorrow. I tested this on IE8 and Chrome. On the other hand what I’ve noticed is that if I comment out the line that adds the “click” event, the code doesn’t leak. Can somebody please help me structure the class/event in a manner that it doesn’t leak. Thanks in advance.

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• How do I compare 2 fields and return the lowest value of each record?

  - by BigRob

  I'm slowly learning access to make a database of products and suppliers for my parents' business. What i've got is a table of products indexed by our product reference and 2 more tables for 2 different suppliers that contains the suppliers product reference and price that links with our reference. I've made a query that performs a left outer join such that it returns a table of our products with each supplier's reference and price, i.e: Ref | Product Name | Supplier 1 Ref | Supplier 1 Price | Supplier 2 Ref | Supplier 2 Price Here's the query I used: SELECT Catalog.Ref, Catalog.[Product Name], Catalog.Price, [D Products].[Supplier Ref], [D Products].Cost, [GS Products].[Supplier Ref], [GS Products].Cost FROM ([Catalog] LEFT JOIN [D Products] ON Catalog.Ref = [D Products].Ref) LEFT JOIN [GS Products] ON Catalog.Ref = [GS Products].Ref; Not all products are available from both suppliers, hence the outer join. What I want to do (with a query?) is to take the table produced by the query above and simply show the product reference, cheapest supplier reference and cheapest supplier price, i.e: Ref | Cheapest Suppplier Ref | Cheapest Supplier Price Unfortunately my SQL knowledge isn't quite good enough to figure this out, but if anyone can help i'd really appreciate it. Thanks, Rob

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• Adding up row number and displaying total using COUNT (PHP MySQL)

  - by Yvonne

  I'm attempting to run a query that adds up the total number of subjects in a class. A class has many subjects. There is a 'teachersclasses' table between teachers (the user table) and classes. The principles sounds pretty simple but I'm having some trouble in getting my page to display the number of subjects for each class (directly associated with the teacher) This is what I have so far, trying to make use of the COUNT with a nested SELECT: SELECT (SELECT count(*) FROM subjects WHERE subjects.classid = class.classid) AS total_subjects, class.classname, class.classid FROM class Then I am calling up 'num_subjects' to present the total within a while loop: <?php echo $row['total_subjects']?> From the above, I am receiving the total subjects for a class, but within the same table row (for one class) and my other while loop doesnt run anymore, which returns all of the classes associated with a teacher :( ... Bit of a mess now! I know to return the classes for a particular teacher, I can do an additional WHERE clause on the session of 'teacherid' but I think my query is getting too complicated for me that errors are popping up everywhere. Anyone have a quick fix for this! Thanks very much

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• Whether to check for null

  - by coffeeaddict

  I know that you should always check incoming params to a method for null. But what if I have this scenario with a try/catch referring to a local variable. Do I really need to check for null below? Because it's gonna catch it anyway if it's null and the next line of code tries to use the refundResponse variable: public string DoRefund(...) { try { ...... string refundTransactionID = string.Empty; ...... RefundTransactionResponseType refundResponse = transaction.DoRefund(...); if (refundResponse != null) refundTransactionID = refundResponse.RefundTransactionID; ..... } catch (Exception ex) { LogError(ex); return ex.ToString(); } }

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• how does tomcat like web container handle struts 2 variables ?

  - by mobby1982

  i am a newbie . i have a question regarding struts 2 framework and tomcat . i know that each request has it own thread , but my question is are the global variables defined in struts action shared amongst requests. for ex: if i have a global variable named say int pageNo; and i am using in say method called paginationAll() can i use the same variable (pageNo) for another method called say paginatonMaterialAll() in the same action or does each thread has its own set of variables even though globally defined?

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• what does $$ mean in PHP?

  - by chicane

  example a variable declaration within a function: what is $$ mean? global $$link; thanks

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• Cant apply color theme to one frame in Emacs?

  - by prtksxna

  This is my emacs file http://pastie.org/1003551. I want the theme to change when I am in shell-mode. But what happens is that the theme gets applied on all the frames. I set the variable color-theme-is-global to nil, but still the same problem is persisting. (add-hook 'shell-mode-hook 'color-theme-monokai-terminal) (set-variable 'color-theme-is-global nil) These are lines 81 and 83 in my .emacs file. What should I do to make it work?

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• pass by const reference of class

  - by small_potato

  void foo(const ClassName &name) { ... } How can I access the method of class instance name? name.method() didn't work. then I tried: void foo(const ClassName &name) { ClassName temp = name; ... .... } I can use temp.method, but after foo was executed, the original name screwed up, any idea? BTW, the member variable of name didn't screwed up, but it was the member variable of subclass of class screwed up.

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• Finding employees specific to department in SQL SERVER 2000(SET BASED)

  - by xyz

  Suppose I have a table (tblEmp) whose structure is like as under Dept Emp d1 e1 d1 e2 d1 e3 d2 e4 d2 e5 d3 e6 If I need to bring the output as Dept DepartmentSpecificEmployees d1 e1,e2,e3 d2 e4,e5 d3 e6 I will write the query as select Dept, stuff((select Emp + ',' from tblEmp t2 where t1.Dept = t2.Dept for xml path(''),1,1,'')DepartmentSpecificEmployees from tblEmp t1 group by Dept But this will work in Sql Server 2005+. How can I achieve the same in Sql Server 2000 without any variable declaration or loop or cursor? If I use COALESCE as an alternative, then I need to use a variable which will defeat the purpose Please help

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• Objective-c when to release objects

  - by Chris

  -(IBAction)registerUpdate:(id)sender { HTTPRequest* request = [[HTTPRequest alloc] initWithUrl:@"http://www.yahoo.com" delegate:self]; [request doRequest]; } The HTTPRequest makes an asynchronous request and calls the onHTTPResponse method in the current class. My question is do I have to release request? My guess is that I'm supposed to make it an instance variable? [NSString stringWithFormat:@"Data received: %@", [[NSString alloc] initWithData:data encoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding]]; How would I release that string object, or should I assign it to a variable?

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• ASP.NET MVC: How to show value in a label from selected Drop Down List item?

  - by Lillie

  Hi! I'm trying to show a value of selected Drop Down List item in a label. I managed to make this work with Web Forms but with MVC I'm totally lost. My Index looks like this: [...] <% using (Html.BeginForm()) { %> <table> <tr> <td>Processor</td> <td><%= Html.DropDownList("lstProcessor1", new SelectList((IEnumerable)ViewData["Processor1List"], "product_price", "product_description")) %></td> </tr> <tr> <td>Total Amount</td> <td>0,00 €</td> </tr> </table> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> <% } %> [...] And my HomeController starts with: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Mvc; using System.Web.Mvc.Ajax; using MvcApplication1.Models; namespace MvcApplication1.Controllers { [HandleError] public class HomeController : Controller { // Connect database DB50DataContext _ctx = new DB50DataContext(); // GET: /Home/ public ActionResult Index() { // Search: Processors var products = from prod in _ctx.products where prod.product_searchcode == "processor1" select prod; ViewData["Processort1List"] = products; return View(); } I would like the product_price to show on the second line of the table, where it now says 0,00 €. It should also update the price automatically when the item from the Drop Down List is changed. I guess I should use JQuery but I have no idea how. Could someone please give me some tips how to do this?

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• Creating a file path in C#

  - by Jason

  So I'm trying to create a path in C#. I use Environment.Machinename and store it a variable serverName. Then I create another string variable and have some other path extension in there. Here is my code so far: string serverName = Environment.MachineName; string folderName = "\\AlarmLogger"; No matter what I do I can't seem to obtain only one backslash prior to AlarmLogger. Any ideas how I can specify a path in C#? Edit: I'm wondering if my code doesn't seem to want to paste correctly. Anyways when i paste it I only see one backslash but my code has two. Because of the escape character sequence. But something like string test = @"\" + serverName + folderName doesn't seem to want to work for me.

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• Making sure an 'int' is bound on sqlite

  - by iphone_developer

  I have a method called like this... -(void)dbUpdate:(int)forId { Which contains this sqlite to bind and update a database. sqlite3_bind_int(UPDATE_ACCOUNT, 3, forId); When I run the query, it doesn't give me an error, but it doesn't update the database either. If I change this line of code... sqlite3_bind_int(UPDATE_ACCOUNT, 3, forId); manually, to... sqlite3_bind_int(UPDATE_ACCOUNT, 3, 6); the query runs 100% fine, as expected. Changing the variable to an actual integer proves to me that the variable 'forId' isn't being passed or bound to the query properly. What am I doing wrong? How is the best way to pass an Integer (and make sure it is an Integer) into an sqlite bind? Cheers,

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• find a duplicate series in SQL

  - by SomeMiscGuy

  I have a table with 3 columns containing a variable number of records based off of the first column which is a foreign key. I am trying to determine if I can detect when there is a duplicate across multiple rows for an entire series declare @finddupseries table ( portid int, asset_id int, allocation float ) ; INSERT INTO @finddupseries SELECT 250, 6, 0.05 UNION ALL SELECT 250, 66, 0.8 UNION ALL SELECT 250, 2, 0.105 UNION ALL SELECT 250, 4, 0.0225 UNION ALL SELECT 250, 5, 0.0225 UNION ALL SELECT 251, 13, 0.6 UNION ALL SELECT 251, 2, 0.3 UNION ALL SELECT 251, 5, 0.1 UNION ALL SELECT 252, 13, 0.8 UNION ALL SELECT 252, 2, 0.15 UNION ALL SELECT 252, 5, 0.05 UNION ALL SELECT 253, 13, 0.4 UNION ALL SELECT 253, 2, 0.45 UNION ALL SELECT 253, 5, 0.15 UNION ALL SELECT 254, 6, 0.05 UNION ALL SELECT 254, 66, 0.8 UNION ALL SELECT 254, 2, 0.105 UNION ALL SELECT 254, 4, 0.0225 UNION ALL SELECT 254, 5, 0.0225 select * from @finddupseries The records for portid 250 and 254 match. Is there any way I can write a query to detect this? edit: yes, the entire series must match. Also, if there was a way to determine which one it DID match would be helpful as the actual table has around 10k records. thanks!

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